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Principles of Marketing introduces students to the foundational concepts, strategies, and tools used in the marketing field. The course explores topics such as market research, consumer behavior, segmentation, targeting, positioning, the marketing mix (product, price, place, and promotion), and the development of effective marketing strategies. Through case studies, real-world examples, and interactive activities, students learn how businesses identify customer needs, create value, and build lasting relationships with their target markets. The course also examines the impact of digital technologies, ethical issues, and global trends on modern marketing practices.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing 2014 17th Edition by William M. Pride O.
C. Ferrell
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21 Chapters
3942 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In managing customer relationships,the three primary ways profits can be obtained are by
A)acquiring new customers,enhancing the profitability of new customers,and shortening the duration of relationships with existing customers.
B)enhancing the profitability of existing customers,eliminating customers who provide smaller profits,and finding new customers.
C)extending the length of relationships with customers,cutting organizational costs,and enhancing the profitability of new customers.
D)eliminating long-term customers who have decreased purchases,finding new customers,and increasing sales to existing customers.
E)enhancing the profitability of existing customers,extending the duration of relationships with customers,and obtaining new customers.
Answer: E
Q2) Products can be goods,services,or ideas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The marketing control process does not monitor the activities of external sources of marketing assistance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to the Boston Consulting Group,question marks are characterized as products
A)having a small share of a growing market and requiring large amounts of cash to build market share.
B)generating more cash than is required to maintain share.
C)encompassing the greatest number of products.
D)existing at a cost disadvantage and revealing few opportunities for growth at a reasonable cost.
E)having substantial reported profits but needing a lot of cash to finance the rate of growth.
Answer: A
Q3) How does a firm use a market opportunity to reach a particular target market?
Answer: No Ans
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Q1) Companies that market products with similar features,benefits,and prices to the same customer group are known as ____ competitors.
A)generic
B)product
C)brand
D)total budget
E)monopolistic
Answer: C
Q2) When marketers define their target market,they simultaneously establish a set of
A)technologies.
B)monopolies.
C)competitors.
D)government regulations.
E)sociocultural forces.
Answer: C
Q3) The total amount of disposable income is affected by the amount of taxes consumers pay.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) McDonald's supports and funds Ronald McDonald houses for the families of terminally-ill children to stay in to be near their loved ones.McDonald's action demonstrates the fulfillment of ____ responsibility.
A)legal
B)society
C)philanthropic
D)economic
E)ethical
Q2) Codes of conduct are also frequently known as
A)ethics mandates.
B)codes of ethics.
C)corporate culture.
D)ethics compliance programs.
E)moral codes.
Q3) An organization can rid itself of "bad apples" through screening techniques and enforcement of its code of conduct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the responsibilities of an ethics officer.
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Q1) Nathan,a marketing manager for Casual Express,a retail clothing store chain,wants to use observation methods to gather information about shopping behavior.Which of the following should Nathan know about observation methods of data collection?
A)Observation uses secondary sources of data.
B)Observation depends on mall interviews.
C)Observation can tell Nathan what is being done,but not why.
D)Observation focuses on open-ended questions.
E)Observation works best for telephone surveys.
Q2) A marketing decision support system aids marketing managers in decision making by helping them to anticipate the effects of certain decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One overlooked internal source of secondary marketing information discussed in the text is
A)sales receipts.
B)accounting records.
C)interviews with salespeople.
D)quality control data.
E)consumer surveys.
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Q1) Discuss the difference between sales forecasts and company sales potential.Why is it important for a marketer to be able to forecast sales?
Q2) Interior Designs Inc.sells expensive custom-made draperies,bedding,and accessories through sales representatives who are also interior designers.It also has another,slightly less expensive line that it sells through stores such as Nordstrom's and Saks Fifth Avenue.Interior Designs Inc.is most likely using a(n)____ targeting strategy.
A)differentiated
B)undifferentiated
C)concentrated
D)homogeneous
E)heterogeneous
Q3) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using executive judgment in forecasting company sales.
Q4) What are the major steps of the target market selection process?
Q5) A segmentation variable is used to group smaller markets into one larger market.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What variables are used to segment business markets?
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Q1) Perception is a three-step process that involves
A)motivation,personality,and attitudes.
B)classifying,recording,and eliminating information received through the senses.
C)collecting,eliminating,and organizing information inputs.
D)selecting,organizing,and interpreting information inputs.
E)anticipating,classifying,and discarding information inputs.
Q2) Changes in culture do not affect product development.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to Scenario 7.2.Since Alicia and Carlos were using gas mileage as one of their evaluative criteria,they are most likely in the ____ phase of the consumer buying process.
A)problem recognition
B)external search
C)evaluation of alternatives
D)purchase
E)post-purchase
Q4) A person receives information inputs through the senses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Because retailers have to be concerned with product selection,price,and space,they often evaluate products on the basis of
A)their markup.
B)sales per square foot of selling area.
C)how many of the product they can fit in a certain amount of space.
D)profit per dollar of selling price.
E)the reliability of the supplier.
Q2) Bob Denton of Denton Pest Control buys equipment from Allied Tools because Allied hires him to spray its warehouse for insects periodically.This practice is an example of
A)cost-benefit trading.
B)cooperative selling.
C)reciprocity.
D)supplier agreements.
E)modified rebuy purchase.
Q3) In the buying decision process,one of the activities included in the search for products and suppliers is examining catalogs and trade publications.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Selling products that are not in demand in all world markets,such as hand-powered washing machines for use in countries where electricity is not universally available,represents an international marketing strategy focusing on
A)internationalization.
B)culturalization.
C)nationalization.
D)globalization.
E)customization.
Q2) Which of the following countries has made the greatest inroads into other world markets?
A)Indonesia
B)Philippines
C)Malaysia
D)Japan
E)China
Q3) In what ways can businesses become involved in international marketing activities?
Q4) How do globalized marketing strategies differ from customized marketing strategies? What are the implications of each for marketing managers?
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Q1) Connectivity is the use of digital networks to provide linkages between information providers and users.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Johnson & Johnson learns about consumer needs by understanding the environment in which a product is used and the different applications of the product.The company uses ____ as a research tool to gain this information.
A)futurism
B)social networking
C)give-aways
D)promotional events
E)sponsorship
Q3) ____ is a popular photosharing site on the Internet.
A)LinkedIn
B)Facebook
C)MySpace
D)Twitter
E)Flickr
Q4) In what ways can digital media be used as a market research tool?
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Q1) Dish Network cut back advertising expenditures to minimum levels and reduced the number of channel members for its industrial satellite product.These actions indicate that its product is in the ____ stage of its life cycle.
A)introduction
B)growth
C)maturity
D)early
E)decline
Q2) Laggards are the last to adopt a new product and usually distrust new products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Advertising used in the decline stage may prolong the life of the product.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The width of a product mix refers to the number of generic products offered by a company.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe and illustrate the four major categories of consumer products.
Q6) For each product life cycle stage,discuss the strategic implications.
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Q1) The dropping approach to product deletion generates a sales spurt just before removing the product from the market.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Scenario 12.2.The group of people that management has assembled to take on the task of new-product development is best described as
A)a buying center.
B)a product development task force.
C)a marketing development team.
D)a venture team.
E)a brand management team
Q3) The members of a venture team come from
A)the marketing department.
B)a consulting firm.
C)the research and development department.
D)the production and finance departments.
E)different functional areas of an organization.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and problems associated with test marketing.
Q5) List and discuss the major phases of the new-product development process.
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Q1) Which of the following best defines nonprofit marketing?
A)Activities conducted by individuals and organizations to achieve some goal other than ordinary business goals such as profit or return on investment
B)Marketing activities conducted by organizations other than business organizations
C)Nonbusiness activities aimed at goals such as profit or return on investment
D)Marketing activities aimed at getting the product to the retailers,through intermediaries
E)The marketing activities conducted by individuals and organizations that are considered volunteer establishments
Q2) Client-based relationships are interactions that result in satisfied customers who repeatedly use a service over time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Demand-based pricing relies on information concerning peak demand times and off-peak demand times.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Customers use brands to help judge product quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following issues is least important in using co-branding effectively?
A)The brands involved should represent a complementary fit in a customer's mind.
B)The brands that are teamed together should not lose their individual identities.
C)The brands involved should be owned by different companies.
D)Co-branding should be done in a way so that it is obvious which brand is the main brand or key brand.
E)Co-branding should take advantage of the distribution capabilities of the brands involved.
Q3) Individual branding facilitates market segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Green Giant is an example of a private distributor brand.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is brand equity,and what are the major elements that underlie brand equity?
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Q1) Starbucks has an agreement with Pepsi Co.through which Pepsi distributes Starbucks' coffee drink,Frappucino,to grocery stores and other retail outlets.This is an example of
A)a strategic channel alliance.
B)exclusive distribution.
C)dual distribution.
D)horizontal channel integration.
E)channel leadership.
Q2) Select the greatest advantage of horizontal channel integration.
A)The flexibility of the channel is decreased.
B)The markets are more heterogeneous.
C)The expanded number of units is coordinated.
D)Efficiencies in advertising,marketing research,and purchasing are increased.
E)Planning and research are increased to cope with increased competition.
Q3) Which mode of transportation hauls more freight than any other?
A)Railroads
B)Waterways
C)Pipelines
D)Trucks
E)Airways

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Q1) Retail facilities located in big,low-cost buildings with large on-premise inventories and minimal services are called
A)catalog showrooms.
B)category killers.
C)warehouse showrooms.
D)warehouse clubs.
E)display outlets.
Q2) Which of the following wholesalers never take actual possession of the goods?
A)Drop shippers
B)Cash-and-carry wholesalers
C)Truck jobbers
D)Mail-order wholesalers
E)Rack jobbers
Q3) In order to justify direct-response marketing,a product really needs to be priced above
A)$50.
B)$10.
C)$5.
D)$20.
E)$100.
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Q1) Firms that link the purchase of their product to philanthropic efforts practice cause-related marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A business usually cannot operate at peak efficiency when sales fluctuate significantly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Barrister's Deli decides to run advertisements for its lunch specials on a local FM radio station.Marketing research later reveals that the restaurant's target market listens primarily to satellite radio stations.This promotion program suffered from an error in the selection of
A)shared symbols.
B)targeted customers.
C)communication channel.
D)decoded meanings.
E)noise minimizers.
Q4) Personal selling makes possible immediate feedback from consumers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A marketer that wanted to include detailed information in advertisements would most likely use
A)radio.
B)television.
C)outdoor displays.
D)magazines.
E)mass transit.
Q2) One way for a company to measure the effectiveness of its publicity-based public relations efforts is to
A)tabulate the equivalent in advertising dollars if the time and space were purchased.
B)ask for return of reply cards.
C)calculate market share increase.
D)count the number of exposures in the media.
E)conduct an environmental audit of media alternatives.
Q3) What are the advantages of using an advertising agency to develop an advertising campaign?
Q4) Identify and describe four publicity-based public relations tools.
Q5) What is an advertising platform? What is the best way to develop a platform?
Q6) Discuss how event sponsorship can be used as a public relations tool.
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Q1) Paid personal communication that attempts to inform and persuade customers to purchase products in an exchange situation is called
A)advertising.
B)sales promotion.
C)personal selling.
D)target marketing.
E)public relations.
Q2) To equalize the workload,a sales manager divides a geographic market into sales territories of equal size according to land area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A missionary salesperson is usually employed by
A)a retailer.
B)a wholesaler.
C)either a retailer or a producer.
D)a manufacturer.
E)an independent intermediary.
Q4) Explain the major issues to consider when developing a sales training program.
Q5) Identify and describe several ways to motivate sales personnel.
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Q1) How can the price at which a new product is introduced influence the entrance of competition into a market?
Q2) Reductions for transportation and other costs related to the physical distance between buyer and seller are known as
A)base-point pricing.
B)freight absorption pricing.
C)price zoning.
D)location pricing.
E)geographic pricing.
Q3) A company trying to position itself as value oriented should not
A)set prices that are reasonable relative to product quality.
B)use premium pricing for its products.
C)set prices similar to those of its competitors.
D)use any advertising for its products.
E)consider costs when determining the price of products.
Q4) The idea behind prestige demand is that many prestige products seem to sell better at a high price than at a low price.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The federal government often uses ____ pricing when it grants defense contracts.
A)markup
B)differential
C)breakeven
D)cost-plus
E)competition-based
Q2) Marketers must take steps to make sure that the pricing objectives they set are consistent with the organization's ____ objectives and ____ objectives.
A)advertising;marketing
B)overall;marketing
C)marketing;promotional
D)overall;promotional
E)overall;revenue
Q3) The use of market share as a pricing objective oversimplifies the value of price in contributing to profits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the ethical implications of professional pricing.
Q5) Explain the difference between cost-plus and markup pricing.
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