Principles of Management
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Management provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and practices of management in organizations. The course examines the core functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, and explores how managers use these functions to achieve organizational goals. Emphasis is placed on the development of management skills such as decision-making, motivation, team building, communication, and strategic analysis. Students will also analyze real-world case studies to understand the challenges faced by managers in todays dynamic business environment and how effective management impacts organizational success.
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Human Resource Management 10th Edition by Lloyd Byars
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19 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: A Strategic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Today HRM is clearly divorced from the management and the strategic planning process of the organization,and occupies a purely administrative role.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The primary function of a human resource department is to provide support to operating managers on all human resource matters.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) _____ refers to the broad spectrum of HR activities involved in obtaining and managing the organization's human resources.
A)Human resource development
B)Human resource research
C)Talent management
D)Employee and labor relations
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Equal Employment Opportunity: The Legal Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 permits women,persons with disabilities,and persons who are religious minorities to have a jury trial and sue for punitive damages if they can prove they are victims of intentional hiring or workplace discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission has taken the view that pregnancy benefits are not applicable to unmarried employees.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits sex-based discrimination in rates of pay paid to men and women working in the same or similar jobs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Implementing Equal Employment Opportunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EEOC will attempt to conciliate an agreement between the charging party and the employer if the EEOC's investigation results in a finding of "reasonable cause."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Outline the EEOC posting requirements.
Answer: Title VII requires employers,employment agencies,and labor organizations covered by the act to post EEOC-prepared notices summarizing the requirements of Title VII,the ADEA,the Equal Pay Act,the ADA,and the Civil Rights Act of 1991.The EEOC has prepared such a poster,and a willful failure to display it is punishable by a fine of not more than $100 for each offense.Organizations subject to notice requirements by Executive Order 11246 and Title VII can display a poster meeting the requirements of both the EEOC and the OFCCP.
Q3) Define the term "sexual harassment".
Answer: The EEOC Guidelines on Discrimination Because of Sex define sexual harassment as any unwelcome sexual conduct that "has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating,hostile,or offensive work environment.
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Job Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) A thorough job analysis often uncovers unsafe practices and/or environmental conditions associated with a job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Related tasks comprise the _____ of a job.
A)elements
B)micromotions
C)duties
D)positions
Q3) A grouping of work _____ makes up a work task.
A)responsibilities
B)duties
C)elements
D)positions
Q4) Pertinent information relating to the nature of a specific job is determined via ____.
A)career planning
B)job analysis
C)succession charting
D)job specifications
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of past staffing levels,instead of workload levels,to project future HR requirements is the essence of which statistical model?
A)Productivity ratios
B)Regression analysis
C)Time-series analysis
D)Personnel ratios
Q2) Differentiate between replacement planning and succession planning.What are the problems with succession plans?
Q3) Scenario analysis involves thoroughly examining internal practices and procedures and measuring them against the ways other successful organizations operate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the various advantages of employing contingent workers?
Q5) Short-range planning is five years or less.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Write a short note on skills inventory.What are the advantages of a skills inventory?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Recruiting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,it can be said that those employees who were recruited using RJP:
A)have more job satisfaction.
B)lack the technical skills required for the job.
C)tend to exhibit poor job performance.
D)show low job survival rates.
Q2) In order to avoid the risk of inviting an employment discrimination lawsuit,during the recruitment process,employers should avoid asking for information that is related to the applicant's:
A)past experience.
B)expectations from the job.
C)age.
D)future career plans.
Q3) Research has not identified a single best source of recruitment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cooperative work programs primarily involve:
A)combining formal education and work experience.
B)recruitment with the help of the Internet.
C)involving employees in the recruitment process.
D)agreement between management and labor to cooperate in job analysis.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Selecting Employees
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Q1) Explain the terms validity and reliability with reference to the selection procedure.
Q2) _____ tests measure how well the applicant can do a sample of the work to be performed.
A)Interest
B)Proficiency
C)Productivity
D)Psychomotor
Q3) A criterion predictor never correlates perfectly with a criterion of job success.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The split halves method used to determine reliability involves administering the test to a group of employees and later,usually in about two to four weeks,giving the same group the same test.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Write a short note on polygraph tests.
Q6) Explain the purpose of a preliminary interview.
Q7) Discuss the various types of aptitude tests.
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Chapter 8: Orientation and Employee Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following topics should be covered during an organizational orientation program?
A)Rules unique to the job
B)Detailed explanation of the job
C)Union contract provisions
D)Removal of things from department
Q2) A(n)_____ is any directive or information that helps the employee perform a work component correctly,easily,and safely.
A)KSA
B)reinforcement
C)key point
D)orientation kit
Q3) Training that requires an individual to learn several different jobs in a work unit or department and perform each job for a specified time period is known as:
A)apprenticeship training.
B)classroom training.
C)behavioral training.
D)cross training.
Q4) Describe needs assessment.
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Chapter 9: Management and Organizational Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a common outdoor activity called "The Wall," a team has to get over a 12- to 14-foot structure by working together.The wall is viewed as a symbol for any business challenge.This is an example of which training method?
A)Business simulation
B)Adventure learning
C)Role playing
D)Incident method
Q2) Competence studies are relatively expensive and take time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is one of the methods used to determine management development needs?
A)Task analysis
B)Case study
C)Focus group
D)Skills evaluation
Q4) What is an understudy assignment? What are its advantages and disadvantages?
Q5) Define management development.
Q6) Describe a management succession plan.
Q7) Describe assessment centers.
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Chapter 10: Career Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a factor in today's work environment that helps explain why plateauing of careers may become more prevalent?
A)More promotions occur during recessionary periods.
B)Today's employees enter organizations at lower positions.
C)Today's employees are generally less educated than their predecessors.
D)Employers are now depending more on older employees.
Q2) Due to concerns regarding confidentiality,managers should not act as mentors in their subordinate's career development planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate dual-career couples from dual-earner couples.
Q4) According to the Glass Ceiling Commission,which of the following is a suggestion for toppling job-advancement barriers?
A)Avoid the use of affirmative action as a tool.
B)Make an effort to "hire in one's own image".
C)Limit the pool of candidates.
D)Initiate family-friendly programs.
Q5) Explain why it is necessary for employees to review career progress.
Q6) Explain why it is necessary for an organization to communicate career options.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Performance Management Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only necessary condition for high level performance is ability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Personal characteristics used in performing a job are called:
A)effort.
B)ability.
C)needs.
D)efficiencies.
Q3) Behaviorally anchored rating scales are designed to reduce halo,leniency,and central tendency errors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Civil Service Reform Act permits the use of ranking methods for federal employees.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An understanding of job descriptions is crucial in conducting performance appraisals.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Organizational Reward System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the organizational reward system and distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic rewards.
Q2) Garnishment of wages:
A)is a requirement of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
B)is a legal procedure by which an employer is empowered to withhold wages for payment of an employee's debt to a creditor.
C)can be used as grounds for dismissal of an employee.
D)is among the more popular wage policies as rated by workers.
Q3) _____ is a feeling of being accepted by and belonging to a group of employees through adherence to common goals,confidence in the desirability of those goals,and the desire to progress toward the goals.
A)Job satisfaction
B)Motivation
C)Organizational morale
D)Role perception
Q4) The Equal Pay act first went into effect in 1991.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List some considerations in the selection of rewards.
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Chapter 13: Base Wage and Salary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A skill-based pay system pays individuals for the specific skills that are shown to be required by a comprehensive job analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most reliable and most expensive method of surveying wage data?
A)Telephone interviews
B)Personal interviews
C)Mailed questionnaires
D)Controlled experimentation
Q3) An organization's compensation system should produce a base wage/salary structure that is:
A)regressively equitable.
B)externally equitable.
C)characterized by many "green circled jobs".
D)characterized by many "red circled jobs".
Q4) Describe the point method of job evaluation.
Q5) The minimum of a pay grade's range places a ceiling on the rate that can be paid. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Incentive Pay Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new law was passed that prohibits cash bonuses and other incentives for the five most-senior officers and the 20 highest paid executives at companies that have received funds under the:
A)Corporate and Financial Institutions Compensation Fairness Act.
B)Troubled Asset Relief Program.
C)Financial Accounting Standards Board.
D)Scanlon plan.
Q2) The key to having a successful suggestion system is to:
A)adopt every contribution that is submitted.
B)keep rewards out of it to prevent over-submission by those wanting a payoff.
C)clearly communicate how the system works.
D)keep anonymous those who supply top ideas.
Q3) According to the text,managerial personnel generally receive incentives in the form of all of the following EXCEPT:
A)annual bonuses.
B)COLA increases.
C)long-term performance planning.
D)stock options.
Q4) Discuss the major issues related to the executive pay controversy.
Q5) What are the two basic requirements of an effective incentive pay plan?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Employee Benefits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Managed care programs include:
A)employee benefit packages.
B)pension plans.
C)PPOs and HMOs.
D)group life insurance.
Q2) To receive unemployment compensation,one must meet all of the following requirements EXCEPT:
A)employee must have been covered by Social Security for a minimum number of weeks.
B)employee must have voluntarily quit the former job.
C)employee must be willing to accept any suitable employment offered through the state's unemployment compensation commission.
D)employee's separation from work must be due to a layoff.
Q3) Figures compiled by the U.S.Chamber of Commerce show that the single most expensive benefit was ____.
A)retirement-related
B)medical-related payments
C)payments for time not worked
D)social security payments
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A citation is a safety award given to a company that maintains an extraordinary safety record.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following guidelines is suggested for implementing a drug-testing program?
A)Assume employees are drug-free until proven otherwise.
B)Use any type of urinalysis,even the most mediocre method,as long as it gets done.
C)Make positive test scores a BFOQ where possible.
D)Use monitored laboratories that employ nonblind testing to ensure the integrity of the testing procedures.
Q3) OSHA Form 300 requires employers to log each recordable occupational injury and illness within six working days from the time the employer learns of it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed in 1980.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Employee Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Notation of rules infractions in an employee's record constitutes advance warning and is sufficient to support disciplinary action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain what is meant by due process.
Q3) The traditional concept concerning employer/employee free decisions on termination in nonunionized organizations is termed:
A)collective bargaining.
B)agency shop.
C)fairness doctrine.
D)employment at will.
Q4) An employee has the right to refuse to submit to a disciplinary interview without the presence of a union representative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How have the NLRB v.Weingarten and Baton Rouge Water Works decisions affected union representation during disciplinary interviews?
Q6) Explain what is meant by just cause.
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Chapter 18: The Legal Environment and Structure of Labor
Unions
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Q1) Explain the Wagner Act.
Q2) A strike is the collective refusal of employees to work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the main provisions of the Landrum-Griffin Act.
Q4) Which of the following acts established the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)?
A)The Railway Labor Act
B)The Wagner Act
C)The Taft-Hartley Act
D)The Norris-La Guardia Act
Q5) The Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA)is composed of three members from the party with a majority in Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A yellow-dog contract makes it mandatory for all employees to join the union.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define the Railway Labor Act.
Q8) List the main provisions of the Civil Service Reform Act. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Union Organizing Campaigns and Collective Bargaining
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Q1) If the NLRB does not permit another election in the bargaining unit within 12 months of a union's certification,it is known as:
A)a certification bar.
B)boulwarism.
C)a contract bar doctrine.
D)a recognition bar.
Q2) When management makes its best offer at the outset of bargaining and firmly adheres to the offer throughout the bargaining sessions,it is known as:
A)Gissel bargaining.
B)a recognition bar.
C)boulwarism.
D)a contract bar.
Q3) Strikes and lockouts are two names for the same type of job action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the various reasons for employees joining a union?
Q5) Discuss the various reasons for employees opposing unionization.
Q6) Describe a bargaining unit.
Q7) Explain the terms lockout,strike,and checkoff
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