Principles of Dental Hygiene Practice
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Principles of Dental Hygiene Practice introduces students to the foundational concepts and evidence-based practices essential for the delivery of effective dental hygiene care. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of the dental hygienist, principles of infection control, patient assessment, preventive oral health strategies, and the legal and ethical aspects of dental hygiene. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking and clinical decision-making skills, as well as effective communication with patients and other members of the dental team. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on experience, students gain the knowledge and skills necessary to promote optimal oral health in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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26 Chapters
1191 Verified Questions
1191 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug legislation act was instrumental for the growth of electronic prescribing?
A)Controlled Substance Act
B)Medicare Modernization Act
C)Food,Drug and Cosmetic Act
D)Harrison Narcotic Act
Answer: B
Q2) Clinical studies of drugs first involve human volunteers during which phase of drug testing?
A)Phase 1
B)Phase 2
C)Phase 3
D)Phase 4
Answer: A
Q3) Two drug formulations that produce similar concentrations in the blood and tissues after drug administration are termed _____ equivalent.
A)chemically
B)biologically
C)therapeutically
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enteral route of administration would be
A)intravenous.
B)oral.
C)sublingual.
D)transdermal.
Answer: B
Q2) The _____ is the most common site for biotransformation.
A)kidney
B)blood plasma
C)liver
D)small intestine
Answer: C
Q3) A prodrug is an inactive drug compound that becomes transformed into an active drug compound.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs
A)just before birth.
B)during the third trimester.
C)during the second trimester.
D)before pregnancy status is known.
Answer: D
Q2) Although drug A and drug B have the same ED ,drug B has a wider therapeutic index (TI);therefore,drug A has a greater LD than drug B.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Answer: C
Q3) Which is safe to administer to a pregnant patient?
A)Tetracycline
B)NSAIDs
C)Penicillin
D)Benzodiazepines
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents is an indirect-acting sympathetic agonist?
A)Albuterol
B)Pseudoephedrine
C)Amphetamine
D)Physostigmine
E)Epinephrine
Q2) The parasympathetic fibers originate in the nuclei of the _____ segments of the spinal cord.
A)sacral and lumbar
B)cranial nerves and sacral
C)cranial nerves and lumbar
D)thoracic and lumbar
E)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Which of the following agents is known to deplete endogenous norepinephrine?
A)Propranolol
B)Reserpine
C)Phentolamine
D)Yohimbine
E)None of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following NSAIDs is considered the drug of choice for management of dental pain when a NSAID is indicated?
A)Naproxen
B)Naproxen sodium
C)Ibuprofen
D)Diflunisal
Q2) Raising the pain threshold increases one's reaction to pain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of COX II?
A)It is a widely distributed constitutive enzyme.
B)It is responsible for the adverse reactions of the NSAIDs.
C)It is synthesized only when inflammation occurs.
D)It is not an enzyme.
Q4) Each of the following is an indication for the use of NSAIDs except one.Which is the exception?
A)Dysmenorrhea
B)Gouty arthritis
C)Known aspirin hypersensitivity
D)Asthma
7
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children should not receive codeine after a tonsillectomy due to an increased risk for
A)central nervous system depression.
B)respiratory depression.
C)postural hypotension.
D)constipation.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is an adverse reaction to the opioids?
A)Diarrhea
B)Miosis
C)CNS excitation
D)Hepatotoxicity
Q3) What is the primary advantage of oxycodone ER over previous formulations?
A)It is formulated to help deter substance abuse.
B)It is not a controlled substance.
C)It is a liquid for administration to patients who have difficulty swallowing.
D)It is a Schedule III narcotic,so it is easier to prescribe.
Q4) Opioids are the first choice for the treatment of chronic pain,such as temporomandibular joint and muscle disorders.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices is the dental hygienist's biggest dental problem in the adult patient?
A)Caries
B)Periodontal disease
C)Localized dental infection
D)Systemic dental infection
Q2) Which is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin?
A)Ampicillin
B)Amoxicillin
C)Cloxacillin
D)Ticarcillin
E)Piperacillin
Q3) Tetracyclines should not be used in children younger than _____ years of age.
A)6
B)9
C)12
D)15
Q4) Metronidazole has antiinflammatory activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would a patient ever take a vaginal tablet of nystatin orally?
A)The vaginal tablet is dosed once per day,which is less frequently than the oral pastille.
B)The vaginal tablet does not contain sugar.
C)The vaginal tablet does not require a prescription.
D)The vaginal tablet has better flavor than the oral tablet.
E)Only if they did not read the directions and did not know any better.
Q2) Nystatin is available in the form of a(n)_____ for the treatment of oral candidiasis.(Select all that apply. )
A)intramuscular injection
B)200-mg oral tablet
C)aqueous suspension
D)pastille
Q3) Ketoconazole should not be used with _____ because it could reduce the absorption of ketoconazole.
A)penicillin V
B)metronidazole
C)anticholinergic agents
D)acyclovir
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristics of the ideal local anesthetic except A)sterilization by autoclave.
B)slow onset.
C)reversible.
D)absence of local reactions.
Q2) Which local anesthetic will have the shortest duration of action?
A)Lidocaine (plain)without vasoconstrictor
B)Lidocaine with vasoconstrictor
C)Mepivacaine with vasoconstrictor
D)Prilocaine with vasoconstrictor
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of mepivacaine?
A)Cross-allergenicity has been demonstrated between mepivacaine and other currently available amides.
B)Mepivacaine is effective topically.
C)Mepivacaine can be used as a 3% solution without a vasoconstrictor.
D)The benefit of a shorter duration of anesthesia warrants eliminating the vasoconstrictor.
Q4) Levonordefrin is more potent than epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients should be instructed to fast before a dental procedure using nitrous oxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetic agents was introduced in the middle 1800s and led to a dramatic reduction in surgically related mortality?
A)Propofol
B)Isoflurane
C)Ether
D)Nitrous oxide
Q3) Nitrous oxide,as used in the dental office,maintains the patient in stage _____ of Guedel's system of stages and planes.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q4) Nitrous oxide has amnestic qualities.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are rationales for the use of analgesic-sedative combinations? (Select all that apply. )
A)Relief of both anxiety and pain is often required in one patient.
B)Sedatives interfere with analgesic agents.
C)Sedatives may induce excitation when given without an analgesic to patients with uncontrolled pain.
D)Anxiety can raise the pain threshold.
Q2) A sedative-hypnotic agent can produce varying degrees of central nervous system (CNS)depression.The same drug may be either a sedative or a hypnotic.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) Sedatives potentiate analgesic agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anxiety control is only necessary for the first third of a dental appointment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents has the most serious drug interaction with warfarin?
A)Omeprazole
B)Aspirin
C)Digitalis
D)Lomotil
Q2) Many _____ end in the suffix -pril.
A)b-adrenergic blockers
B)calcium channel blockers
C)angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
D)angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Q3) Which of the following categories of drug is the best choice to relieve the acute symptoms of angina?
A)Nitroglycerin (NTG,Nitrostat,Nitrolingual)
B)Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid)
C)Propranolol
D)Verapamil (Calan,Isoptin)
E)Nifedipine (Procardia)
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer types of combination therapy for treating ulcers often combine an antibiotic with a(n)
A)hyperosmotic laxative.
B)proton-pump inhibitor.
C)antacid.
D)prostaglandin.
Q2) Which type of drugs work by blocking 5-HT receptors in the central nervous system and the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A)Laxatives
B)Antidiarrheals
C)Antiemetics
D)Antacids
E)Proton-pump inhibitors
Q3) Certain gastrointestinal drugs such as _____ have been abused by patients with _____.
A)antiemetics;low blood sugar
B)laxatives;bulimia
C)nitroglycerin;familial hypercholesterolemia
D)antispasmodics;diabetes
15
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding adverse reactions to antiepileptic agents?
A)These medications have a broad therapeutic index.
B)CNS depression is a common side effect of antiepileptic agents.
C)Central nervous system (CNS)depression will antagonize that of other sedative agents.
D)Both A and B are true.
E)Both B and C are true.
Q2) Which of the following antiepileptics may be used to manage trigeminal neuralgia?
A)Phenytoin
B)Carbamazepine
C)Ethosuximide
D)Valproic acid
Q3) Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for the treatment of _____ seizures.
A)generalized tonic-clonic
B)generalized absence
C)partial simple
D)partial complex
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interaction of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)with many drugs such as amphetamines,and with foods such as wines,cheese,and fish,can precipitate
A)hair loss.
B)hypertensive crisis.
C)gout.
D)dysgeusia.
Q2) First-generation antipsychotics are primarily _____ antagonists.
A)acetylcholine
B)norepinephrine
C)dopamine
D)serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)
Q3) Second-generation antipsychotics are primarily antagonists at all of the following receptor types except one.Which is the exception?
A)Acetylcholine
B)Norepinephrine (NE)
C)Dopamine
D)Serotonin (5-HT)
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adverse effects of glucocorticoids are primarily an extension of their therapeutic actions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids is ________,and an excess is __________.
A)Addison disease;Cushing disease
B)Addison disease;Cushing syndrome
C)Addison syndrome;Cushing syndrome
D)Addison syndrome;Cushing disease
Q3) Inhibition of phospholipase A by steroids leads to decreased production of (Select all that apply. )
A)neutrophils.
B)prostaglandins.
C)arachidonic acid.
D)leukotrienes.
Q4) Most dental patients taking steroids who are having normal dental treatment rendered do not need additional corticosteroids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should intranasal decongestants only be used for 3 to 5 days?
A)They produce systemic toxicity.
B)They can cause rebound congestion.
C)They will start to cause systemic autocoid effects.
D)They will produce xerostomia.
Q2) If a patient with COPD is given oxygen and the PaO rises,the stimulant to breathing is A)markedly stimulated.
B)slightly stimulated.
C)slightly depressed.
D)removed.
Q3) Sedation with antihistamines is additive with that caused by other CNS depressant drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cromolyn sodium works by blocking acetylcholine receptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin resistance develops because of prolonged _____ and resulting _____.
A)hyperglycemia;hyperinsulinemia
B)hyperglycemia;hypoinsulinemia
C)hypoglycemia;hyperinsulinemia
D)hypoglycemia;hypoinsulinemia
Q2) Acarbose (Precose)slows the breakdown of ingested carbohydrates so that postprandial hyperglycemia is reduced.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary goal of treating diabetes is to maintain hemoglobin A C levels
A)at zero.
B)as close to normal as possible (<7%).
C)at a level of 40%.
D)as high as possible.
Q4) Type I diabetes results from an autoimmune destruction of
A)thyroid tissue.
B)pancreatic b cells.
C)synovial fluid.
D)parotid gland tissue.
E)liver cells.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a potential consequence of hypersecretion of pituitary hormones except one.Which is the exception?
A)Goiter
B)Acromegaly
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Cushing disease
E)Giantism
Q2) Why do postmenopausal women use medroxyprogesterone (Provera)in conjunction with estrogens?
A)It potentiates estrogen and postmenopausal women require a higher amount.
B)It prevents an increase in the risk of uterine cancer that can occur when estrogen is used alone.
C)It facilitates the passage of estrogen across membrane surfaces.
D)It helps to prevent osteoporosis.
Q3) No treatment should be initiated for any patient with a visible goiter,exophthalmos,or a history of taking antithyroid drugs until approval is obtained from the patient's physician.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) One major concern of the dental health care worker is thrombocytopenia in patients undergoing antineoplastic therapy because this can lead to an increased risk of infections.
A)Both parts of the statement are true.
B)Both parts of the statement are false.
C)The first part of the statement is true;the second part is false.
D)The first part of the statement is false;the second part is true.
Q2) The appointment should be scheduled _____ chemotherapy when providing oral care for patients on antineoplastic agents.
A)just before starting B)after the first few days of C)during the course of D)only after
Q3) Which antineoplastic agent is used to manage breast cancer?
A)Plant alkaloid
B)Antibiotic
C)Steroid
D)Estrogen
E)Tamoxifen
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following actions is indicated for the management of acute airway obstruction EXCEPT one.Which is the EXCEPTION?
A)Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position
B)Clearing the pharynx and pulling the tongue forward
C)Allowing the patient to sit upright
D)Administering the Heimlich maneuver
E)Performing cricothyrotomy
Q2) When a patient has a cardiac arrest permanent brain damage occurs within how many minutes?
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)10
Q3) Which is administered for syncope?
A)Nitroglycerin
B)Spirits of ammonia
C)Glucose
D)Diphenhydramine
E)Glucagon
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the effect of opioids such as codeine on an infant after administration to the mother?
A)Opioids appear in breast milk when analgesic doses are administered.
B)If the mother is addicted,the infant will experience withdrawal symptoms after birth.
C)The infant should be observed for signs of euphoria.
D)Both A and B are true.
E)Both B and C are true.
Q2) The pregnant dental patient is most comfortable during which trimester?
A)First trimester
B)Second trimester
C)Third trimester
D)None of the above
Q3) Which is the best choice of analgesic for a pregnant patient?
A)Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin,ASA)
B)Ibuprofen (Motrin)
C)Naproxen (Naprosyn)
D)Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately _____% of incarcerated individuals are there because of drug abuse problems.
A)20
B)40
C)60
D)80
Q2) What is "spice" or "K-2"?
A)A designer drug created by spraying natural herbs with synthetic chemicals that produce psychoactive effects similar to cannabis
B)A method of smoking oregano to get a hallucinogenic effect
C)The stems of the hemp plant rather than the leaves
D)A version of phencyclidine (PCP)
E)A British female pop group or a brand of snow skis
Q3) Drug withdrawal from sedative-hypnotic agents can be more life threatening than withdrawal from opioids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) The Adverse Events Reporting law requires reporting of "serious" adverse events for A)both over-the-counter drugs and dietary supplements.
B)over-the-counter drugs but not dietary supplements.
C)dietary supplements but not over-the-counter drugs.
D)neither over-the-counter drugs nor dietary supplements.
Q2) Which is true of eugenol?
A)Used in mouth rinses containing thymol,eucalyptol,and menthol.
B)Extract of aloe vera plant leaf used to treat aphthous ulcers.
C)Historically used in dentistry as a topical analgesic for dental pain.
D)Herbal-based product that significantly reduces plaque and gingivitis.
E)Naturally occurring sweetener with an anticariogenic effect.
Q3) Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C)Environmental Protection Agency
D)Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)
E)US Pharmacopeia
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Actinic lip changes,if keratotic,are best treated with A)sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 15 or greater.
B)acyclovir.
C)5-fluorouracil (5-FU).
D)topical steroids.
E)diphenhydramine.
Q2) Which antiviral agent is available without a prescription?
A)Acyclovir
B)Valacyclovir
C)Penciclovir
D)Docosanol
E)Famciclovir
Q3) According to the Centers for Disease Control,a patient with active herpetic lesions should receive which type of dental care?
A)Any dental restorative work or periodontal care is fine.
B)Periodontal care but not restorative work.
C)Direct restorative work (amalgam,composite)and routine prophylaxis.
D)Routine prophylaxis only.
E)Emergency dental care or treatment for the lesions only.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Topical NaF 2% is recommended for patients with porcelain or composite restorations.APF 1.23% is not recommended for patients with porcelain or composite restorations.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q2) Fluoride is thought to work by
A)interacting with mineralized tissue,including bones and teeth.
B)acting on individual microorganisms in biofilm.
C)functioning as an antibiotic.
D)doing both A and B.
E)doing both B and C.
Q3) Annual 4-minute in-office topical fluoride applications reduce tooth decay in permanent teeth of children living in nonfluoridated areas by A)6%.
B)16%.
C)26%.
D)36%.
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