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Principles of Criminal Justice introduces students to the fundamental concepts and structures that form the foundation of the criminal justice system. The course explores the role and functions of key institutions such as the police, courts, and corrections, while examining the philosophies and practices that guide criminal law, due process, and the pursuit of justice. Emphasis is placed on understanding how laws are created and enforced, the rights of the accused, methods of crime control, and the ethical challenges faced by practitioners. Through case studies and contemporary issues, students will gain insight into the balance between public safety, individual freedoms, and social justice within the criminal justice system.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Criminal Justice 10th Edition by Larry J. Siegel
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Q1) Less serious felonies make up the bottom layer (Level 4) of the criminal justice system wedding cake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The term used in some jurisdictions for a preliminary hearing to show cause to bring a case to trial: ___ hearing.
Answer: Probable cause
Q3) If the prosecution can present sufficient evidence, the grand jury will issue a(n) ____, which specifies the exact charges on which the accused must stand trial.
A)true bill of indictment
B)information
C)charging bill
D)nolle prosequi
Answer: A
Q4) A ___ __ __ is designed to restrict the maximum time after an event that legal proceedings may be initiated.
Answer: Statute of limitations
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Q1) Young people face a much higher rate of victimization than older individuals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) June decides not to report the burglary to the police because she feels that the break-in was her fault. Which crime measurement tool is most likely to record June's case
A)NIBRS
B)Self-report study
C)UCR
D)NCVS
Answer: D
Q3) Discuss the trends in violent crime in the United States.
Answer: There has been a gradual increase in the violent crime rate from 1830 to 1860. After the Civil War, this rate increased significantly for about 15 years. Until World War I, there was a decrease. After a period of readjustment, the crime rate steadily declined until the Depression, when another crime wave was recorded. There was a decrease from the 1930s to the 1960s in homicide, then there began a sharp increase that continued through the 1980s. Crime peaked in 1991, and has been declining ever since.
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Q1) Discuss two of the following Amendments (Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, or Eighth Amendments) and how each serves to limit and control the manner in which the federal government operates the justice system.
Answer: The Fourth Amendment bars illegal searches and seizures by police officers. The Fifth Amendment limits the admissibility of confessions that have been obtained unfairly or without proper warning. The Sixth Amendment guarantees the defendant the right to a speedy and public trial by an impartial jury, the right to be informed of the nature of charges against them and the right to confront any prosecution witnesses. The Eighth Amendment protects against the imposition of excessive bail and fines as well as the potential of the infliction of cruel and unusual punishment.
Q2) US civil law is primarily concerned with:
A)compensating the injured party for harm.
B)protecting the public against harm.
C)controlling social values and mores.
D)contracting legal obligations between aggrieved individuals.
Answer: A
Q3) Homicide, robbery, and rape are examples of which type of crime.
Answer: Felony
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Q1) About 23 state police agencies have the same general police powers as municipal police and are territorially limited in their exercise of law enforcement regulations only by the state's boundaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a factor that distinguishes private policing from public policing
A)Private policing focuses their efforts on public and private property.
B)Private police are concerned almost solely with prevention.
C)Private policing is concerned more on loss prevention than on crime.
D)Private policing often employs private justice.
Q3) What term is used to describe the use of computer software to identify geographic "hot spots" where a majority of predatory crimes are concentrated
A)Crime mapping
B)Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)
C)Data mining
D)Systems analysis
Q4) The states' strategic plan for homeland security prioritizes _______, protection, and preparation to respond and recover.
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Q1) The _________ unit is the branch of the police that conducts investigations of charges of police misconduct or corruption.
Q2) Based on research like the Kansas City study, what is the prevailing wisdom on preventive patrols
A)The number of patrol cars on the street and their visibility to citizens has little impact on the crime rate.
B)More patrol cars on the street can deter specific types of crime, such as motor vehicle theft and vandalism.
C)Fewer patrol cars on the street results in higher crime rates.
D)Patrol cars should be assigned to a reactive response mode only.
Q3) The time-in-rank system used in police departments often discourages the:
A)recruitment and hiring of college-educated officers.
B)recruitment and hiring of minority officers.
C)transfer of experienced officers to other departments.
D)use of a military-like organizational structure.
Q4) More than 90 percent of all police departments require this type of training, and the average officer receives more than 500 hours of _____ training, including 400 hours in the classroom and the rest in the field.
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Q1) The social agent style of policing is characterized by officers who view themselves as community problem solvers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ___________________ is where evidence is admissible in court if the police officers acted in good faith by first obtaining court approval for their search, even if the warrant they received was deficient or faulty.
Q3) What was the name of the famous commission that investigated corruption in New York City in the 1970s
A)Warren Commission
B)Knapp Commission
C)Christopher Commission
D)Mollen Commission
Q4) The vast majority of law enforcement agencies, more than 75 percent, require recruits to have a college degree.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe the factors that have been related to police shootings.
Q6) Police subculture is considered a(n) ____________ decision-making factor.
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Q1) Plea bargaining is rare.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the most common reason for prosecutors to reject cases
A)Due process problems
B)Arrest problems
C)Evidence problems
D)Interest of justice problems
Q3) Which type of indigent defense program relies on block grants given to lawyers or law firms in exchange for their legal services on a set number of cases involving poor defendants
A)Contract system
B)Assigned counsel system
C)Prepaid legal service
D)Public defender system
Q4) Explain the selection and functions of a trial judge.
Q5) If the prosecutor decides to pursue a case, the charges may later be dropped if conditions are not favorable for a conviction in a process called
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Q6) Through the use of examples, discuss the major tasks of a prosecutor.
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ is a charging document drawn up by a prosecutor and submitted to a grand jury.
Q2) The Fifth Amendment guarantees you the right to a public trial.
A)True B)False
Q3) _____________________ has become an essential, but controversial, part of the administration of justice.
Q4) Which of the following statements is false regarding bail issues
A)It is expensive because the government must pay to detain those offenders who are unable to make bail but who would otherwise remain in the community.
B)There is no racial or ethnic disparity in the bail process.
C)It is unfair because a higher proportion of detainees receive longer sentences than people released on bail.
D)It is dehumanizing because innocent people who cannot make bail suffer in the nation's deteriorated jail system.
Q5) Holding an offender in secure confinement before trial is referred to as _______.
Q6) Describe how each of the five innovative bail systems works.
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Q1) Indeterminate sentences use sentencing guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______ can be lost if inmates break prison rules, get into fights, or disobey correctional officers.
Q3) Who determines the actual length of incarceration in an indeterminate sentence
A)Judge
B)Prosecutor and the defense attorney
C)State legislature
D)Correctional agency and the judge
Q4) What is the core goal of using mandatory life sentences so criminals cannot hurt other citizens
A)Restitution
B)Incapacitation
C)Retribution
D)General deterrence
Q5) Three-strikes laws are an example of a(n) ____________________ sentence.
Q6) The ____________________ goal of punishment means that an offender must pay back the victim for their loss.
Q7) List and briefly discuss the arguments for and against the death penalty.
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Q1) In ____, the Supreme Court held that a probationer is constitutionally entitled to counsel in a revocation-of-probation proceeding if the imposition of a sentence has been suspended.
A)Mempa v. Rhay
B)Minnesota v. Murphy
C)Griffin v. Wisconsin
D)Morrissey v. Brewer
Q2) _______ is credited with originating community sentencing.
Q3) Community service is an example of:
A)forfeiture.
B)shock incarceration.
C)restitution.
D)intensive probation supervision.
Q4) What is the basis of historical probation that allowed Grant to serve a punishment in the community by following conditions of supervision
A)Judicial reprieve
B)Surety
C)Suspended sentencing
D)Dispositions

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Q1) The ____________________ was the practice of correctional official selling the labor of inmates to private businesses.
Q2) Explain the influence of Quakers on the development of America's prisons.
Q3) Joliet and the "The Rock" were examples of what type of prison
A)Maximum security
B)Medium security
C)Minimum security
D)A prison farm
Q4) Where were the English forced to house large numbers of prisoners in the late eighteenth century
A)In the ancient Le Stinche prison
B)In the basement of Westminster Abbey
C)In abandoned coal and copper mines
D)On prison hulks and barges
Q5) What type of jail has the correctional officer's station located inside a secure room
A)Linear jail
B)Indirect supervision jail
C)Direct supervision jail
D)Maximum security jail
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Q1) Which is false regarding correctional officers
A)Correctional officers have minimal impact on a prisoner's ability to adjust to prison life.
B)Prison guards historically were viewed as ruthless individuals who enjoyed their power over inmates.
C)A significant problem of correctional officers is that facilities are underfunded.
D)Crowded prisons create stress and impair job performance for correctional officers.
Q2) Jill isn't supposed to be friends with the correctional officers, but it turns out that one of the correctional officers that maintains security on the cell block went to high school with Jill. They even dated the same guy years ago. What is the major problem with Jill and the correctional officer being friends
A)The duality of the correctional officer's role.
B)Jill will likely turn on her correctional officer friend someday to exploit her.
C)The other inmates on Jill's cell block are jealous.
D)Jill will be moved to a special wing to give birth.
Q3) Discuss the elements of the Inmate Social Code.
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Q1) Charles Loring Brace was the philanthropist who developed the Children's Aid Society.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ______ were reformers in America who developed programs for troubled youths and influenced legislation creating the juvenile justice system.
Q3) Which best explains the recent surge in the number of juvenile detentions
A)An increase in juvenile court cases.
B)A surge in the number of female violent offenders.
C)A surge in the number of cases involving drugs and violence.
D)All of these explain the recent surge in the number of juvenile detentions.
Q4) In re Gault forced the courts to process juvenile offenders within the framework of appropriate constitutional procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most incarcerated juvenile offenders are held for status offenses.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In re Gault ruled that a minor has basic _____ rights at trial.
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Q1) Worldwide estimates for illegal logging activities account for products worth at least ______ per year
A)$1 billion
B)$5 billion
C)$10 billion
D)$15 billion
Q2) Once subprime loans have been issued, the vendors typically bundle them into large pools and sell them as securities in a process known as _____________.
Q3) A _______ is an investment fraud that involves the payment of purported returns to existing investors from funds contributed by new investors
A) Ponzi scheme
B) RICO scheme
C) Phishing scheme
D) denial-of-service attack
Q4) _______ is the process of creating a global economy through transnational markets and political and legal systems.
Q5) ____________________ is cyber crime with malicious intent, by the desire for revenge, and to inflict wanton destruction.
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