
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Chemistry introduces students to the fundamental concepts of chemical science, including atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, periodicity, states of matter, and basic thermodynamics. The course emphasizes the quantitative and qualitative aspects of chemical reactions, properties of elements and compounds, and the role of chemistry in everyday life and industry. Through both theoretical frameworks and practical laboratory experiences, students develop analytical skills and a foundational understanding necessary for advanced studies in chemistry and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) Why is the number 1.8 (and not some other value)used in the formula for converting between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures?
Answer: This value compensates for the different size of the two degrees.In the Celsius scale there are 100 degrees between the freezing point and the boiling point of water,but in the Fahrenheit scale there are 180 degrees to cover the same interval.The ratio of 180 to 100 is 1.8,so this correction factor is used in the formula.
Q2) An object weighs 37.4 kg.What does the object weigh in the English system?
1 lb = 453.6 g
A)82.5 lb
B)16,965 lb
C)0.0824 lb
D)169.65 lb
Answer: A
Q3) If an automobile gets 24.5 miles to the gallon and the cost of gasoline is $2.75 a gallon,how much will it cost to drive 975 km?
Answer: $68.00
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Q1) Which group contains only d-block elements?
A)Ni,Pd,Pt
B)Si,Ge,As
C)Ce,Pr,Nd
D)Kr,Xe,Rn
E)Po,Fr,Ac
Answer: A
Q2) How many electrons can occupy the shell having n = 2?
A)2
B)6
C)8
D)18
E)32
Answer: C
Q3) Naturally occurring iron contains 5.82% <sup>54</sup>Fe,91.66 % <sup>56</sup>Fe,2.19% <sup>57</sup>Fe,and 0.33% <sup>58</sup>Fe.The respective atomic masses are 53.940 amu,55.935 amu,56.935 amu,and 57.933 amu.Calculate the average atomic mass of iron. Answer: 55.847 amu.
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Q1) Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ion with a -1 charge?
A)Mg
B)Si
C)S
D)Cl
E)Sc
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following formulas in incorrect for a cobalt(III)compound?
A)CoCO<sub>3</sub>
B)CoCl<sub>3</sub>
C)Co<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)CoPO<sub>4</sub>
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following formulas represents a compound that is a base?
A)CaSO<sub>4</sub>
B)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl
C)Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Answer: C
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Q1) Which property could describe a covalent compound?
A)It conducts electricity when melted.
B)It is a gas at room temperature.
C)It is composed of a non-metal and a metal.
D)It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.
E)none of the above
Q2) Consider the molecule SiCl<sub>4</sub>.The electronegativity values for Si and Cl are 1.8 and 3.0,respectively.Based on these values and on consideration of molecular geometry,the Si-Cl bond is ________ and the molecule is ________.
A)polar; polar
B)nonpolar; nonpolar
C)polar; nonpolar
D)nonpolar; polar
E)none of the above
Q3) Which element is most likely to form three covalent bonds?
A)C
B)Si
C)P
D)S
E)Se
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Q1) Which reaction is an example of a precipitation reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> (aq) H<sub>2</sub>O (l)+ CO<sub>2</sub> (g)
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> (aq) CaSO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
C)6 HCl (aq)+ 2 Al (s) 2 AlCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub> (g)
D)FeCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 KOH (aq) Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> (s)+ 3 KCl (aq)
E)2 Hg (l)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2 HgO (s)
Q2) Fe(s)+ CuCl<sub>2</sub> (aq) Cu(s)+ FeCl<sub>2</sub> (aq)In the redox reaction shown,________ is oxidized and becomes ________.
A)Fe; Fe<sup>+</sup>
B)Fe; Fe<sup>2+</sup>
C)Cu; Cu<sup>2+</sup>
D)Cu<sup>2+</sup>; Cu
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is always a spectator ion in a chemical reaction?
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)S<sup>2-</sup>
D)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
E)All of these ions.

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Q1) The number of grams in 7.00 moles of N<sub>2</sub> is ________.
A)7 × (6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>)
B)14.0
C)28.0
D)98.0
E)196
Q2) How many moles of CO<sub>2</sub> are produced when 2.5 moles of O<sub>2</sub> react according to the following equation? C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub> + 5 O<sub>2</sub> 3 CO<sub>2</sub> + 4 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)1.5
B)3
C)5
D)6
E)18
Q3) How many molecules are present in 1.36 g of AgNO<sub>3</sub>?
A)3.84 × 10<sup>-22</sup>
B)4.82 × 10<sup>21</sup>
C)1.36 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D)7.52 × 10<sup>25</sup>

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Q1) Consider the reaction shown:
452 kcal + 4 PCl<sub>5</sub> (s) P<sub>4</sub> (s)+ 10 Cl<sub>2</sub> (g)
This reaction is ________ because the sign of H is ________.
A)endothermic; positive
B)exothermic; positive
C)endothermic; negative
D)exothermic; negative
E)exothermic; neither positive nor negative
Q2) 2 Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> (s) 4 Al (s)+ 3 O<sub>2</sub> (g) G = +138 kcal
Consider the contribution of entropy to the spontaneity of this reaction.As written,the reaction is ________,and the entropy of the system ________.
A)spontaneous; increases
B)spontaneous; decreases
C)non-spontaneous; increases
D)non-spontaneous; decreases
E)non-spontaneous; does not change
Q3) The label on a package of cookies states that there are 100 calories per serving.Explain the different meanings of this statement to a chemist and to a nutritionist.Be sure your answer explains the difference between kilocalories and Calorie.
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Q1) Which represents the largest pressure?
A)one atmosphere
B)five pounds per square inch
C)one millimeter of mercury
D)five mm Hg
E)one hundred pascals
Q2) Which transformation is condensation?
A)liquid solid
B)liquid gas
C)solid liquid
D)solid gas
E)gas liquid
Q3) Sketch a graph illustrating Boyle's Law.Use a gas sample with a volume of 2.0 L at 0.75 atm and 25°C,and show at least two other points.
Q4) Which pair of molecules has the strongest dipole-dipole interactions?
A)NH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub> and NH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>
D)CO<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub>
E)CO<sub>2</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>
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Q1) A 50.0 mL sample of a 12.0 M solution of HCl is diluted to 250.mL.What is the new concentration?
A)60.0 M
B)12.0 M
C)10.4 M
D)3.00 M
E)2.40 M
Q2) Which statement comparing solutions with pure solvents is not correct?
A)A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower vapor pressure than pure solvent.
B)A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower boiling point than pure solvent.
C)A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower freezing point than pure solvent.
D)A solution will have a greater mass than an equal volume of pure solvent if the solute has a molar mass greater than the solvent.
E)none of the above
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Q1) What is the concentration of a weak base solution if a 25.0 mL sample is neutralized by 48.3 mL of 0.105 M H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
A)0.0543 M
B)0.0676 M
C)0.163 M
D)0.203 M
E)0.609 M
Q2) Bronsted-Lowry theory
A)an acid-base theory that bases reactions on hydrogen and hydroxide ions
B)the species that results when a base accepts a proton
C)a substance which can behave as either an acid or a base
D)the species that results when an acid donates a proton
E)a theory that treats acid-base reactions as proton-transfer reactions
Q3) Which compound produces a basic solution when dissolved in water?
A)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl
B)NaF
C)KClO<sub>4</sub>
D)KCl
E)Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
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Q1) The term nucleon refers to
A)electrons belonging to an atom that undergoes nuclear decay.
B)electrons that are emitted from a nucleus in a nuclear reaction.
C)the nucleus of a specific isotope.
D)both protons and neutrons.
E)none of these
Q2) Which of the following isotopes can be used to monitor spleen function?
A).<sup>99</sup>Tc
B).<sup>14</sup>C
C).<sup>3</sup>H
D).<sup>131</sup>I
E).<sup>60</sup>Co
Q3) When a nucleus is bombarded with particles and breaks into two similarly sized nuclei plus one or more small particles,the process is called A)fission.
B)fusion.
C)spontaneous decay.
D)induced decay.
E)mutation.
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Q1) The functional group illustrated by ROH is an A)alkyl.
B)alcohol.
C)ether.
D)ester.
E)aldehyde.
Q2) Which of the following statements about alkyl groups is incorrect?
A)An alkyl group with four carbon atoms would include butyl in its name.
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub> is an example.
C)In naming,they are used as prefixes and have a "yl" ending.
D)They are derived from alkenes.
E)none of the above
Q3) When an alkane reacts with an element from group 7A,the reaction is referred to as A)combustion.
B)decomposition.
C)displacement.
D)halogenation.
E)oxidation.
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Q1) The bond angle about a carbon atom involved in a double bond is
A)90°.
B)105°.
C)109.5°.
D)120°.
E)180°.
Q2) The cause of cis-trans isomerism is
A)stability of the double bond.
B)lack of rotation of the double bond.
C)strength of the double bond.
D)short length of the double bond.
E)vibration of the double bond.
Q3) Which choice represents the carbon skeleton of 2,5-octadiene?
A)C=C=C-C-C-C-C-C
B)C-C=C-C-C=C-C-C
C)C=C-C-C=C-C=C-C
D)C-C=C-C-C-C-C=C
E)C-C=C-C=C-C-C-C
Q4) The term delocalization means "not limited to a particular place or area." Explain how this term describes the behavior of electrons in aromatic compounds.
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Q1) Treatment of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH with an excess amount of oxidizing agent will produce A)an aldehyde.
B)a ketone.
C)an alkene.
D)a carboxylic acid.
E)no reaction.
Q2) The common name of CH<sub>2</sub>(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>OH is A)grain alcohol. B)wood alcohol.
C)rubbing alcohol. D)ethylene glycol (antifreeze). E)glycerol.
Q3) None of the following organic compounds is very likely to form hydrogen bonds except A)alkanes. B)alkenes. C)alcohols. D)aromatics. E)ethers.
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Q1) Amines are most similar in chemical structure and behavior to A)the hydronium ion.
B)ammonia.
C)sodium hydroxide.
D)a primary alcohol.
E)water.
Q2) Which molecule listed is heterocyclic?
A)aniline
B)phenol
C)pyridine
D)benzoic acid
E)naphthalene
Q3) All of the following are nitrogen-containing compounds found in living organisms except A)nucleotides.
B)proteins.
C)neurotransmitters.
D)carbohydrates.
E)alkaloids.
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Q1) All of the following are properties of acetone except A)volatility.
B)flammability.
C)intoxication.
D)solvent for organic substances. E)nutrient.
Q2) The IUPAC name for acetone is A)2-propanal.
B)3-propanal.
C)2-propanone.
D)1-propanone.
E)dimethyl ketone.
Q3) Which compound has the lowest boiling point?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CHO
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
E)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>
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Q1) Which of the following conditions would favor the carboxylate ion form of a carboxylic acid?
A)low pH
B)high pH
C)both A and B
D)neither A nor B
Q2) The solubility of compounds containing the carboxylic acid group can be increased by reaction with A)sulfuric acid.
B)nitric acid.
C)sodium hydroxide.
D)water.
E)benzoic acid.
Q3) When an amine reacts with a carboxylic acid at high temperature the major product is
A)an ester.
B)an amide.
C)a thiol.
D)an ether.
E)an alcohol.
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Q1) All of the following are non-covalent interactions important in maintaining the secondary,tertiary,and quaternary aspects of amino acids except
A)sulfur-sulfur bonds.
B)hydrogen bonding along the backbone.
C)hydrogen bonding between R groups.
D)salt bridges between R groups.
E)hydrophobic interactions between R groups.
Q2) Which category of amino acid contains R groups that are hydrophobic?
A)polar
B)non-polar
C)basic
D)acidic
E)basic and acidic
Q3) The isoelectric point of an amino acid is
A)the pH at which it exists in the basic form.
B)the pH at which it exists in the acid form.
C)the pH at which it exists in the zwitterion form.
D)the pH equal to its pK<sub>a</sub>.
E)the pH equal to its pK<sub>b</sub>.
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Q1) Which term identifies the relatively small portion of the enzyme that is directly involved in the biochemical reaction being catalyzed?
A)substrate
B)active site
C)N-terminal
D)C-terminal
E)precursor
Q2) Enzymes that are affected by the binding of an inhibitor are called A)induced enzymes.
B)allosteric enzymes.
C)proenzymes.
D)zymogens.
E)controlled enzymes.
Q3) All of the following vitamins are fat soluble except
A)Vitamin A.
B)Vitamin K.
C)Vitamin C.
D)Vitamin D.
E)Vitamin E.
Q4) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.
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Q1) In the first step of the citric acid cycle,acetyl-SCoA reacts with ________ to produce ________,which is isomerized to ________ in the second step.
A)succinate; fumarate; malate
B)succinate; malate; fumarate
C)oxaloacetate; isocitrate; citrate
D)oxaloacetate; citrate; isocitrate
E)aconitase; isocitrate; citrate
Q2) Endergonic reactions are those that have a ________ value of G and ________ spontaneous.
A)positive; are B)positive; are not
C)negative; are
D)negative; are not E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not true of NAD<sup>+</sup> and FAD?
A)Energy in the reduced state is used to produce ATP.
B)They both contain two nucleosides.
C)They donate electrons to the electron transport system.
D)The reduced form of FAD has more energy than the reduced form of NAD<sup>+</sup>.
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Q1) Which polysaccharide has only -1,4 glycosidic linkages?
A)cellulose
B)glycogen
C)amylose
D)amylopectin
E)starch
Q2) Which of the following monosaccharides is present in nucleic acids?
A)glucose
B)galactose
C)ribose
D)fructose
Q3) Glycoproteins are formed by bonding an oligosaccharide to a protein through a ________ linkage.
A)glycosidic
B)glucuronic
C)imine
D)ester
E)ether
Q4) Explain why cows and other grazing animals can eat grass and benefit from its nutritive value,but humans cannot.
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Q1) Steps 1-5 of glycolysis are referred to as the "energy investment" portion of the process because these steps
A)consume ATP instead of producing it.
B)generate waste products which cost ATP for disposal.
C)produce NADH which is less energy-rich than ATP.
D)involve several endergonic isomerizations.
E)none of the above
Q2) Glycogenolysis can be correctly represented by which of the following pathways?
A)glucose glycogen
B)glycogen glucose
C)pyruvate glycogen
D)glycogen pyruvate
E)glucose pyruvate
Q3) When energy is needed and adequate oxygen is available,pyruvate is converted to
A)glucose
B)glycogen
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)acetyl-SCoA
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Q1) Fats and oils can be referred to by the general term ________ because
A)phospholipids; they are formed when any one of the three ester groups is replaced by a phosphate group
B)triglycerides; they are formed when any one of the three functional groups of glycerol reacts with a fatty acid C)triacylglycerols; they are formed by reaction of 1,2,3-propanetriol with three fatty acids D)soaps; they can undergo saponification reactions
E)steroids; they have a specific tetracyclic ring structure
Q2) Which choice is an example of a material that is transported across cell membranes by active transport?
A)cholesterol
B)K<sup>+</sup>
C)glucose
D)oxygen
E)carbon dioxide
Q3) Compare the three mechanisms for moving materials across cell membranes.Be sure to mention gradients,energy considerations,actual method of transport,and types of materials transported in your answer.
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Q1) The first chemical step in the breakdown of triacylglycerols is
A)complete hydrolysis to fatty acids and glycerols.
B)partial hydrolysis to fatty acids,phosphates,and diacylglycerols.
C)oxidation of alcohol groups to carbonyls.
D)rearrangement to cholesterol derivatives.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which type of molecule is the major form for long term storage of chemical energy in the body?
A)carbohydrates
B)proteins
C)triglycerides
D)steroids
E)waxes
Q3) The intermediate that carries two-carbon units to be added to a fatty acid chain is A)malonyl-SCoA.
B)fatty acyl-SCoA.
C)carnitine.
D)ATP.
E)glycerol 3-phosphate
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Q1) rRNA is associated with what part of the cell?
A)cytoplasm
B)mitochondrion
C)nucleus
D)ribosome
E)cell membrane
Q2) The process of manufacturing an identical copy of a DNA molecule is called A)mutation.
B)replication.
C)transcription.
D)translation.
E)translocation.
Q3) In replication of DNA,each new double strand consists of one template strand and one new strand.Therefore,replication is said to be A)repetitive.
B)semiconservative.
C)polymeric.
D)catabolic.
E)none of these
Q4) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
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Q1) Telomerase is a(an)
A)constriction that determine the shape of chromosomes during cell division.
B)sequence of nucleotides that code for proteins which function as enzymes.
C)sequence of nucleotides that code for proteins which function as chemical messengers,usually hormones or neurotransmitters.
D)enzyme which adds specific groups of nucleic acids to the ends of the DNA molecule.
E)sequence of non-coding nucleotides at the ends of chromosomes.
Q2) A mutation is
A)an error in base sequence that is repeated in each replication or transcription of DNA.
B)something that causes an error in the nucleotide sequence in DNA.
C)something that causes abnormal growth in embryos.
D)something that causes abnormal and excessive cell division.
E)excessive cell division leading to growth of tumors.
Q3) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.
Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
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Q1) When glutamate acts as the source of an amino group,the enzyme involved is a A)transferase.
B)lipase.
C)pepsin.
D)synthetase.
E)dehydrogenase.
Q2) One of the most important functions of amino acids is for the synthesis of A)glucose.
B)pyruvate for energy.
C)body proteins.
D)purines and pyrimidines.
Q3) If nitrogen is to be excreted from the body,it is converted to which chemical?
A)ammonia
B)arginine
C)glycine
D) -ketoglutarate
E)urea
Q4) Explain the difference between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids.Identify the amino acids in each category.
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Q1) A hormone that is involved in mediating inflammation and in metabolism of simple carbohydrates is classified as a(an)
A)mineralocorticoid.
B)glucocorticoid.
C)sex hormone.
D)receptor molecule.
E)inhibitor.
Q2) Vasopressin is an example of which type of hormone?
A)polypeptide
B)amino acid
C)steroid
D)polyatomic
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following compounds is not an amino acid derivative hormone?
A)dopamine
B)epinephrine
C)thyroxine
D)norepinephrine
E)All of these are amino acid derivatives.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65905
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
Q2) All of the following are functions of the kidneys except A)filtration.
B)reabsorption.
C)detoxification.
D)secretion.
E)control of concentrations of electrolytes.
Q3) intracellular fluid
A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response
B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses
C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower
D)fluid inside cells
E)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid
F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher
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