Principles of Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers topics such as cell theory, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the molecular basis of life, with an emphasis on the scientific method and experimental analysis. Students will develop a foundational understanding of biological systems, their interactions, and their significance in the broader context of science and society, preparing them for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A)informatics
B)schematic biology
C)taxonomy
D)genomics
E)evolution
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)as their genetic material but do not have their DNA encased within a nucleus?
A)animal
B)plant
C)archaea
D)fungi
E)protists
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A)the chemical properties of the element
B)the number of protons in the element
C)the number of neutrons in the element
D)the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
E)both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element
Answer: D
Q2) The reactivity of an atom arises from
A)the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
B)the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
C)the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
D)the potential energy of the valence shell.
E)the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with A)compounds that have polar covalent bonds.
B)oils.
C)oxygen gas (O )molecules.
D)chloride ions.
E)any compound that is not soluble in water.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH ] concentration of 10 ¹² ?
A)pH 2
B)pH 4
C)pH 10
D)pH 12
E)pH 14
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which molecule shown above contains a carboxyl group?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes cis-trans isomers?
A)They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
B)They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
C)They have the same chemical properties.
D)They have different molecular formulas.
E)Their atoms and bonds are arranged in different sequences.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the figure above?
A)It is a saturated fatty acid.
B)A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
C)Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
D)It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
E)It is a saturated fatty acid, a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis, and molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
Q2) Which of the following molecules has a functional group that frequently forms covalent bonds that maintain the tertiary structure of a protein?
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of animal cells have in common?
A)They are largely composed of phospholipids and glycoproteins.
B)Their proteins are made by free cytoplasmic ribosomes.
C)They form rigid structures that provide structural support for cells but limit their expansion.
D)They limit the passage of small molecules.
E)They have functional connections with the cytoskeleton inside the cell.
Q2) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
A)peroxisomes
B)desmosomes
C)gap junctions
D)extracellular matrix
E)tight junctions
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Water passes quickly through cell membranes because
A)the bilayer is hydrophilic.
B)it moves through hydrophobic channels.
C)water movement is tied to ATP hydrolysis.
D)it is a small, polar, charged molecule.
E)it moves through aquaporins in the membrane.
Q2) Ions diffuse across membranes through specific ion channels
A)down their chemical gradients.
B)down their concentration gradients.
C)down the electrical gradients.
D)down their electrochemical gradients.
E)down the osmotic potential gradients.
Q3) Which of the following is one of the ways that the membranes of winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is extremely cold?
A)by increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane
B)by increasing the percentage of cholesterol molecules in the membrane
C)by decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane
D)by cotransport of glucose and hydrogen
E)by using active transport
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Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) When is a reaction at chemical equilibrium?
A)when the reactants are at the same concentration as the products
B)when the forward and backward reactions occur at the same rate
C)when there is no reactant remaining
D)when there is no product remaining
E)A reaction never reaches chemical equilibrium.
Q2) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the noncatalyzed reverse reaction,C + D A + B,in the figure above?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) Although unlikely,if your fever exceeded 41 C what might be a consequence?
A)destruction of your enzymes' primary structure
B)removal of amine groups from your proteins
C)change in the tertiary structure of your enzymes
D)removal of the amino acids in active sites of your enzymes
E)binding of your enzymes to inappropriate substrates
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in yeast makes it unable to convert pyruvate to ethanol.How will this mutation affect these yeast cells?
A)The mutant yeast will be unable to grow anaerobically.
B)The mutant yeast will grow anaerobically only when given glucose.
C)The mutant yeast will be unable to metabolize glucose.
D)The mutant yeast will die because they cannot regenerate NAD from NAD.
E)The mutant yeast will metabolize only fatty acids.
Q2) Which step in the figure above shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?
A)A
B)B C)C D)D E)E
Q3) Which step in the figure above is a redox reaction?
A)A
B)B C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phylogenetic distribution of the enzyme Rubisco is limited to A)C plants only.
B)C and C plants.
C)all photosynthetic eukaryotes.
D)all known photoautotrophs, both bacterial and eukaryotic.
E)all living cells.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the figure above?
A)It represents cell processes involved in C photosynthesis.
B)It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.
C)It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.
D)It represents a C photosynthetic system.
E)It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.
Q3) Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
A)stroma of the chloroplast
B)thylakoid membrane
C)cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast
D)interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space)
E)outer membrane of the chloroplast
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Apoptosis involves all but which of the following?
A)fragmentation of the DNA
B)cell-signalling pathways
C)activation of cellular enzymes
D)lysis of the cell
E)digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells
Q2) In the above diagram,the structure labelled D is a(n)
A)second messenger.
B)activated relay molecule.
C)ligand.
D)receptor.
E)phosphorylation cascade.
Q3) In the formation of biofilms,such as those forming on unbrushed teeth,cell signalling serves which function?
A)formation of mating complexes
B)secretion of apoptotic signals
C)aggregation of bacteria
D)secretion of substances that inhibit foreign bacteria
E)digestion of unwanted parasite populations
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?
A)telophase
B)anaphase
C)prometaphase
D)metaphase
E)prophase
Q2) When a cell is in anaphase of mitosis,which of the following will he see?
A)a clear area in the centre of the cell
B)chromosomes clustered at the poles
C)individual chromatids separating
D)chromosomes clustered tightly at the centre
E)formation of vesicles at the midline
Q3) What does MPF consist of?
A)a growth factor and mitotic factor
B)ATP synthetase and a protease
C)cyclin and tubulin
D)cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
E)ATPase and kinase
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14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) In meiosis,when are homologous chromosomes are separated?
A)anaphase II
B)prophase I
C)mitosis
D)anaphase I
E)prophase II
Q2) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A)Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B)The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C)Sister chromatids are separated.
D)Four daughter cells are formed.
E)The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.
Q3) In sexual reproduction,the reduction division stage is known as A)fertilization.
B)anaphase.
C)meiosis II.
D)meiosis I.
E)G .
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) One species of green plant,with frondlike leaves,a spine-coated stem,and purple cup-shaped flowers,is found to be self-pollinating.Which of the following is true of this species?
A)The species must be haploid.
B)Its reproduction is asexual.
C)All members of the species have the same genotype.
D)Some of the seeds would have true-breeding traits.
E)All of its dominant traits are most frequent.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs,the pancreas,the digestive system,and other organs,resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections.Which of the following terms best describes this?
A)incomplete dominance
B)multiple alleles
C)pleiotropy
D)epistasis
E)codominance
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
A)deletion only
B)duplication only
C)nondisjunction
D)deletion and duplication
E)duplication and nondisjunction
Q2) Correns described that the inheritance of variegated colour on the leaves of certain plants was determined by the maternal parent only.What phenomenon does this describe?
A)mitochondrial inheritance
B)chloroplast inheritance
C)genomic imprinting
D)infectious inheritance
E)sex-linkage
Q3) What is the greatest benefit of having used a testcross for this experiment?
A)The homozygous recessive parents are obvious to the naked eye.
B)The homozygous parents are the only ones whose crossovers make a difference.
C)Progeny can be scored by their phenotypes alone.
D)All of the progeny will be heterozygous.
E)The homozygous recessive parents will be unable to cross over.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of topoisomerase?
A)relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B)elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain
C)adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
D)unwinding of the double helix
E)stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
Q2) What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A)to unwind the DNA helix during replication
B)to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C)to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
D)to degrade damaged DNA molecules
E)to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old)after replication
Q3) How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?
A)Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.
B)Telomerase eliminates telomere shortening and retards aging.
C)Telomerase shortens telomeres, which delays cellular aging.
D)Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.
E)Telomerase will decrease the rate of cell proliferation.
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the
A)binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B)shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C)bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D)attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E)bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
Q2) If a nucleotide substitution switched a U for a C,such that the codon was read as CGC instead of CGU,what would the effect be?
A)a misfolding of the protein
B)an incomplete protein
C)nothing, as the third nucleotide does not determine the amino acid used.
D)nothing, since both these codons code for arginine
E)it would initiate a tumour
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) If she moves the operator to a position upstream from the promoter,what would occur?
A)The lac operon will function normally.
B)The lac operon will be expressed continuously.
C)The repressor will not be able to bind to the operator.
D)The repressor will bind to the promoter.
E)The repressor will no longer be made.
Q2) In response to chemical signals,prokaryotes can do which of the following?
A)turn off translation of their mRNA
B)alter the level of production of various enzymes
C)increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D)inactivate their mRNA molecules
E)alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
Q3) When does the trp repressor block transcription of the trp operon?
A)when TrpR binds to the inducer
B)when TrpR binds to tryptophan
C)when TrpR is not bound to tryptophan
D)when TrpR is not bound to the operator
E)when TrpR binds to the promoter
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A)HIV infected humans long before the 1980s, but it has now mutated to a more deadly form.
B)HIV mutates rapidly making the virus very different from HIV in the early 1980s.
C)HIV suddenly became apparent and widespread in the 1980s.
D)HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS, such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias.
E)To infect, HIV originally required other concurrent viral infections in the host, however, now HIV can infect humans in the absence of other concurrent viral infections.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics,structures,or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
A)metabolism
B)ribosomes
C)genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D)cell division
E)independent existence
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe,what must be done?
A)The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis.
B)The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
C)The probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
D)The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis and the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
E)The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
Q2) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A)Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers.
B)Anneal primers; denature DNA; extend primers.
C)Extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA.
D)Denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers.
E)Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; add dNTPs; anneal primers; extend primers.
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) If genome size varies,with humans at 2900 Mb,a specific member of the lily family at 120 000 Mb,and a yeast at 13 Mb,what does this tell us?
A)Size matters less than gene density.
B)Size does not compare to gene density.
C)Size is not correlated with the organism's phenotype.
D)Size is mostly due to "junk" DNA.
E)Size is comparable only within phyla.
Q2) What is proteomics?
A)the linkage of each gene to a particular protein
B)the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
C)the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
D)the study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein
E)the study of how a single gene activates many proteins
Q3) What can be surmised about your transcription factor?
A)It is likely involved in a universal metabolic function.
B)There is not enough information to conclude anything.
C)It is unique to Arabidopsis.
D)It is part of a large gene family.
E)It is a transgene.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees.The most likely explanation for this result is that A)humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B)humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C)chimpanzees evolved from humans.
D)convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.
E)humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.
Q2) According to this tree,what percentage of the species seem to be extant (in other words,not extinct)?
A)25%
B)33%
C)50%
D)66%
E)75%
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes theories?
A)They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.
B)They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
C)They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.
D)They are predictions of future events.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) You are shown caterpillars of the moth Nemoria arizonaria.The caterpillars belong to the same species,but some of the caterpillars that were collected from oak flowers resemble oak flowers,while caterpillars collected from oak twigs resemble oak twigs.What is the most plausible explanation for the phenotypic variation?
A)Some of the caterpillars had a mutation that changed the genotype and phenotype.
B)The phenotypic variation appears to be influenced by the environment/diet.
C)Variation among individuals in this species is common, but over time one phenotype will outcompete the other phenotype.
D)The variation is due to heterozygote protection.
E)More data needs to be collected.
Q2) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that
A)introduces new alleles into the population.
B)is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes.
C)occurs frequently in all populations.
D)has no effect on genetic variation/evolution.
E)A and C
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) There are currently two large,permanent bridges that span the Panama Canal.The bridges are about 13 kilometres apart.If snapping shrimp avoid swimming at night and avoid swimming under shadows,then what do these bridges represent for the snapping shrimp?
A)sources of refuge
B)geographic barriers
C)sources of a hybrid zone between the two bridges
D)sources for increased gene flow
Q2) Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species.Recently,these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species,the yellow-rumped warbler.Which of the following pieces of evidence,if true,would be cause for this reclassification?
A)The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction.
B)The two forms live in similar habitats.
C)The two forms have many genes in common.
D)The two forms have similar food requirements.
E)The two forms are very similar in colouration.
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26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Fossilized stromatolites
A)all date from 2.7 billion years ago.
B)formed around deep-sea vents.
C)resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some warm, shallow, salty bays.
D)provide evidence that plants moved onto land in the company of fungi around 500 million years ago.
E)contain the first undisputed fossils of eukaryotes and date from 2.1 billion years ago.
Q2) The synthesis of new DNA requires the prior existence of oligonucleotides to serve as primers.On Earth,these primers are small RNA molecules.This latter observation is evidence in support of the hypothesized existence of
A)a snowball Earth.
B)earlier genetic systems than those based on DNA.
C)the abiotic synthesis of organic monomers.
D)the delivery of organic matter to Earth by meteors and comets.
E)the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Three living species X,Y,and Z share a common ancestor T,as do extinct species U and V.A grouping that consists of species T,X,Y,and Z (but not U or V)makes up
A)a valid taxon.
B)a monophyletic clade.
C)an ingroup, with species U as the outgroup.
D)a paraphyletic group.
E)a polyphyletic group.
Q2) The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of
A)their common ancestor having been legless.
B)a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees)lifestyle.
C)several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other.
D)individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows)lifestyle during their lifetimes.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Though plants,fungi,and prokaryotes all have cell walls,we place them in different taxa.Which of these observations comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa,well before relevant data from molecular systematics became available?
A)Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
B)Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals.
C)Some have cell walls only for support.
D)Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
E)Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance.
Q2) If the vertical axis of the above figure refers to "Darwinian fitness," then which of the following is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness?
A)number of daughter cells produced per mother cell per generation
B)amount of ATP generated per cell per unit time
C)average swimming speed of cells through the growth medium
D)amount of glucose synthesized per unit time
E)number of generations per unit time
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) You are given an unknown organism to identify.It is unicellular and heterotrophic.It is motile,using many short extensions of the cytoplasm,each featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern.It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei,one large and two small.This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?
A)foraminiferans
B)radiolarians
C)ciliates
D)kinetoplastids
E)slime moulds
Q2) Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced,without the net loss of any genetic information?
A)conjugation
B)horizontal gene transfer
C)binary fission
D)phagocytosis
E)meiosis
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event during the evolution of land plants probably made the synthesis of secondary compounds most beneficial?
A)the greenhouse effect present throughout the Devonian period
B)the reverse-greenhouse effect during the Carboniferous period
C)the association of the roots of land plants with fungi
D)the rise of herbivory
E)the rise of wind pollination
Q2) Two small,poorly drained lakes lie close to each other in a northern forest.The basins of both lakes are composed of the same geologic substratum.One lake is surrounded by a dense Sphagnum mat; the other is not.Compared to the pond with Sphagnum,the pond lacking the moss mat should have
A)lower numbers of bacteria.
B)reduced rates of decomposition.
C)reduced oxygen content.
D)less-acidic water.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating)animals,as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means?
1)The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks.
2)The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal's mouth.
3)The seed coat should be able to withstand low pH levels.
4)The seed coat,upon its complete digestion,should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals.
5)The seed coat should be resistant to the animals' digestive enzymes.
A)4 only
B)1 and 2
C)2 and 3
D)3 and 5
E)3, 4, and 5
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens?
A)Fungal cells are enclosed within algal cells.
B)Lichen cells are enclosed within fungal cells.
C)Photosynthetic cells are surrounded by fungal hyphae.
D)The fungi grow on rocks and trees and are covered by algae.
E)Algal cells and fungal cells mix together without any apparent structure.
Q2) Lichens are older than plants.Is it possible that lichens were an important component in aiding the colonization of land by plants?
A)Yes; lichens could have floated in oceans and accidentally been washed up on land.
B)Yes; lichens could have modified the rocks and soil in a similar way that they do today when they colonize areas disturbed by volcanic explosions and fires.
C)No, because fungus and algae colonized land at different times.
D)No, because the fungus component of lichens is not as old as algae.
E)More experiments need to be done before we are sure.
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the characteristics unique to animals is
A)gastrulation.
B)multicellularity.
C)sexual reproduction.
D)flagellated sperm.
E)heterotrophic nutrition.
Q2) With the current molecular-based phylogeny in mind,rank the following from most inclusive to least inclusive.
1)ecdysozoan
2)protostome
3)eumetazoan
4)triploblastic
A)4, 2, 3, 1
B)4, 3, 1, 2
C)3, 4, 1, 2
D)3, 4, 2, 1
E)4, 3, 2, 1
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The larvae of many common tapeworm species that infect humans are usually found
A)encysted in freshwater snails.
B)encysted in the muscles of an animal, such as a cow or pig.
C)crawling in the abdominal blood vessels of cows and pigs.
D)crawling in the intestines of cows and pigs.
Q2) According to the graph,during which season(s)of the year is the relationship between the sea slug and its dinoflagellates closest to being commensal?
A)winter
B)spring
C)summer
D)fall
E)spring and fall
Q3) Which structure do sea slugs use to feed on their prey?
A)nematocysts
B)a sharp beak
C)an incurrent siphon
D)a radula
E)a mantle cavity
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) What group of mammals have (a)embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples,(b)young that feed on milk,and (c)a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
A)Eutheria
B)Marsupiala
C)Monotremata
Q2) Which of the following is a cluster of genes coding for transcription factors involved in the evolution of innovations in early vertebrate nervous systems and vertebrae?
A)Hox
B)Dlx
C)Otx
D)FOXP2
E)more than one of these
Q3) Whose DNA would have had the most sequence homologies with amphibian DNA?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
E)9
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that
A)only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem.
B)root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not.
C)a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots.
D)vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves.
E)leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not.
Q2) A vessel element would likely lose its protoplast in which section of a root?
A)zone of cell division
B)zone of elongation
C)zone of maturation
D)root cap
E)apical meristem
Q3) Which of the following are true statements about the cells shown in the photograph in the figure above?
A)They are parenchyma cells.
B)They are photosynthetic.
C)They are usually found in roots.
D)They are phloem cells.
E)They are parenchyma cells and photosynthetic.
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following involve active transport across membranes except
A)the movement of mineral nutrients from the apoplast to the symplast.
B)the movement of sugar from mesophyll cells into sieve-tube elements.
C)the movement of sugar from one sieve-tube element to the next.
D)the movement of K across guard cell membranes during stomatal opening.
E)the movement of mineral nutrients into cells of the root cortex.
Q2) Phloem transport is described as being from source to sink.Which of the following would most accurately complete this statement about phloem transport as applied to most plants in the late spring?
Phloem transports ________ from the ________ source to the ________ sink.
A)amino acids; root; mycorrhizae
B)sugars; leaf; apical meristem
C)nucleic acids; flower; root
D)proteins; root; leaf
E)sugars; stem; root
Q3) Active transport of amino acids in plants at the cellular level requires
A)NADP and channel proteins.
B)xylem membranes and channel proteins.
C)sodium/potassium pumps and xylem membranes.
Page 38
D)ATP, transport proteins, and a proton gradient.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhizobia and mycorrhizae share all of the following features except
A)they both benefit by receiving carbohydrate from the plant.
B)many are host-specific.
C)they both become parasitic in nutrient-rich environments.
D)they both enhance the growth of most plants.
E)they both are found in most ecosystems of the world.
Q2) There are many ways that soils can be protected; which of the following is not one of them?
A)Leaving vegetation, such as tree cover and standing crops, to protect soil from erosion.
B)Not removing leaf litter and other organic material from soil.
C)Clear cutting, but in a few years replanting new seedlings.
D)Avoiding use of chemicals that may harm soil organisms.
E)Earthworms are important for soil aeration and addition of nutrients.
Q3) Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of
A)water and minerals through root hairs.
B)water and minerals through mycorrhizae.
C)carbon dioxide through stoma.
D)carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following developmental processes in a seed is the most evolutionarily advantageous for the initial establishment of a viable seedling?
A)The emergence of the radical.
B)The coleoptiles in monocots.
C)The protective layer of cutin outside of the seed coat.
D)The emergence of the first photosynthetically active leaves.
E)The development of a nutrient-rich hypocotyl.
Q2) A fruit is
A)a mature ovary.
B)a mature ovule.
C)a seed plus its integuments.
D)a fused carpel.
E)an enlarged embryo sac.
Q3) The ovary is most often located on/in the A)stamen.
B)carpel.
C)petals.
D)sepals.
E)receptacle.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Similar to other hormones,gibberellins affect plant development in several ways,except to
A)stimulate pollen tube growth.
B)cause bolting.
C)promote normal fruit growth.
D)induce seed dormancy.
E)stimulate stem and leaf growth.
Q2) A flash of red light followed by a flash of far-red light given during the middle of the night to a short-day plant will likely A)cause increased flower production.
B)have no effect upon flowering.
C)inhibit flowering.
D)stimulate flowering.
E)convert florigen to the active form.
Q3) In legumes,it has been shown that "sleep" (nastic)movements are correlated with A)positive thigmotropisms.
B)rhythmic opening and closing of K channels in motor cell membranes.
C)senescence (the aging process in plants).
D)flowering and fruit development.
E)ABA-stimulated closing of guard cells caused by loss of K .
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catabolism of specialized brown fat depots in certain animals is substantially increased during A)acclimatization.
B)torpor.
C)evaporative cooling.
D)nonshivering thermogenesis.
E)shivering thermogenesis.
Q2) All types of muscle tissue have
A)intercalated disks that allow cells to communicate.
B)striated banding patterns seen under the microscope.
C)cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated.
D)a response that can be consciously controlled.
E)interactions between actin and myosin.
Q3) The type of muscle tissue surrounding internal organs,other than the heart,is A)skeletal muscle.
B)cardiac muscle.
C)striated muscle.
D)intercalated cells.
E)smooth muscle.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earthworms,grasshoppers,and birds all have a A)gastric cecae.
B)larynx.
C)crop.
D)pharynx.
E)epiglottis.
Q2) A group of animals among which a relatively long cecum is likely to be found is the A)carnivores.
B)herbivores.
C)autotrophs.
D)heterotrophs.
E)omnivores.
Q3) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A)blood clotting and vitamin C
B)normal vision and vitamin A
C)synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D
D)protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E
E)production of white blood cells and vitamin K
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following choices,impairment of a mammal's breathing cycle is most likely following neural damage in
A)the cerebrum and cerebellum.
B)the medulla oblongata and the pons.
C)the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex.
D)the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
E)the frontal lobe and the temporal lobe.
Q2) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by A)low-density lipoproteins.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)erythropoietin.
D)epinephrine.
E)platelets.
Q3) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?
A)systole of the left atrium
B)diastole of the right ventricle
C)systole of the left ventricle
D)diastole of the right atrium
E)diastole of the left atrium
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Septic shock,a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure,is a response to
A)certain bacterial infections.
B)specific forms of viruses.
C)the presence of natural killer cells.
D)a fever of >39.5°C in adults.
E)increased production of neutrophils.
Q2) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A)memory cells.
B)macrophages.
C)stem cells.
D)B cells.
E)T cells.
Q3) When antibodies bind antigens,the clumping of antigens results from A)the multivalence of the antibody having at least two binding regions.
B)disulphide bridges between the antigens.
C)complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
D)bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
E)denaturation of the antibodies.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules
A)achieves the sorting of plasma proteins according to size.
B)achieves the conversion of toxic ammonia to less toxic urea.
C)maintains homeostasis of pH in body fluids.
D)regulates the speed of blood flow through the nephrons.
E)reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic balance.
Q2) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is
A)ammonia.
B)ammonium.
C)urea.
D)uric acid.
Q3) Which excretory system modification do you expect to find?
A)absent juxtamedullary nephron
B)short loop of Henle, excreting dilute urine
C)long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
D)extensive capillary network on the metanephridia
E)very long flame bulbs in the protonephridia
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19801
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is
A)thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance.
B)insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism.
C)progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation.
D)epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses.
E)oxytocin and prolactin in milk production.
Q2) When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a population of target cells,then
A)the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms.
B)the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein.
C)the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell.
D)the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
E)the steroid hormones affect only the release of proteins from the target cell, whereas peptide hormones affect only the synthesis of proteins that remain in the target cell.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly describes a difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A)Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell.
B)Spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, while oogenesis results in four mature egg cells.
C)In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
D)Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell. In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
E)Spermatogenesis results in two mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves,making the mass of the cells narrower and longer,is
A)convergent extension.
B)induction.
C)elongational streaming.
D)bi-axial elongation.
E)blastomere formation.
Q2) In frog embryos,the blastopore becomes the A)anus.
B)ears.
C)eyes.
D)nose.
E)mouth.
Q3) The migratory neural crest cells
A)form most of the central nervous system.
B)serve as precursor cells for the notochord.
C)form the spinal cord in the frog.
D)form neural and non-neural structures in the periphery.
E)form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjacent neurons with direct (non-neurotransmitter)action potential transfer are said to have electrical synapses,based on the presence of
A)tight junctions at their point of contact.
B)gap junctions at their point of contact.
C)leaky junctions at their point of contact.
D)anchoring junctions at their point of contact.
E)desmosomes at their point of contact.
Q2) The major excitatory neurotransmitter of the human brain is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)glutamate.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q3) The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its
A)permitting passage by positive but not negative ions.
B)permitting passage by negative but not positive ions.
C)ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport.
D)binding with only one type of neurotransmitter.
E)permitting passage only to a specific ion.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in the
A)grey matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.
B)white matter of the brain and the grey matter of the spinal cord.
C)grey matter of the brain and the grey matter of the spinal cord.
D)white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.
E)all areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Q2) Learning a new language during adulthood alters activity in the brain's language-processing locations by
A)altering synaptic effectiveness in these locations.
B)increasing the rate of mitosis in these locations.
C)inhibiting synapses that work in the previously learned language.
D)causing established neurons to produce different neurotransmitter molecules.
E)forming electrical synapses between cells.
Q3) The motor cortex is part of the A)cerebrum.
B)cerebellum.
C)spinal cord.
D)midbrain.
E)medulla oblongata.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sense of head motion begins with sensory transduction by the structures at which numbers?
A)2, 3, and 4
B)2, 5, and 7
C)4
D)5
E)7 and 8
Q2) The middle ear converts
A)air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves.
B)fluid pressure waves to air pressure waves.
C)air pressure waves to nerve impulses.
D)fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses.
E)pressure waves to hair cell movements.
Q3) The perceived pitch of a sound depends on
A)which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves.
B)which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid.
C)which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion.
D)whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes.
E)the listener having had training in music.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts,members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts.The likely explanation is that
A)the behavioural difference is caused by genetic differences between populations.
B)members of different populations have different nutritional requirements.
C)the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations.
D)members of different populations differ in learning ability.
E)members of different populations differ in manual dexterity.
Q2) Which of the following statements about evolution of behaviour is correct?
A)Natural selection will favour behaviour that enhances survival and reproduction.
B)An animal may show behaviour that minimizes reproductive fitness.
C)If a behaviour is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through natural selection.
D)Innate behaviours can never be altered by natural selection.
E)All of the statements are correct.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except
A)producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen.
B)removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
C)moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes.
D)regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater.
E)being the source of most of Earth's rainfall.
Q2) "How do seed-eating animals affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?" This question
A)would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B)would be difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C)would be difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D)is one that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E)All options are correct.
Q3) Which zone experiences the most abiotic change over a 24-hour period?
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that
A)Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion.
B)Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased.
C)current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries.
D)it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans.
E)the ecological footprint of Canada is large because per capita resource use is high.
Q2) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with A)chance.
B)patterns of high humidity.
C)the random distribution of seeds.
D)competitive interaction between individuals of the same population.
E)the concentration of nutrients within the population's range.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In McDonaldland,which of the following would be an example of an introduced species?
A)Big Mac
B)Quarter Pounder
C)BK Whopper
D)Filet-O-Fish
E)Double Cheeseburger
Q2) According to the nonequilibrium model
A)communities will remain in a climax state if there are no human disturbances.
B)community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition.
C)communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance.
D)interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time.
E)communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.
Q3) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they
A)are the fastest predators.
B)prey on the community's dominant species.
C)maintain exponential growth.
D)avoid consuming omnivores.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings,which are then hauled to the local landfill.Which of the following actions would most benefit the suburban ecosystem?
A)Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheep's feces to be delivered to the landfill.
B)Collect the lawn clippings and burn them.
C)Collect the lawn clippings and add them to a compost pile, don't collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn, or apply composted clippings to the lawn.
D)Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake.
E)Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.
Q2) Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?
A)Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous.
B)Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
C)Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber.
D)The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.
E)Nutrients evaporate easily into the atmosphere in the post-logged forest.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) The long-term problem with red-cockaded woodpecker habitat intervention in the southwest United States is
A)the only habitat that can support their recovery is large tracts of mature southern pine forest.
B)the mature pine forests in which they live cannot ever be subjected to forest fire.
C)all of the appropriate red-cockaded woodpecker habitat has already been logged or converted to agricultural land.
D)the social organization of the red-cockaded woodpecker precludes the dispersal of reproductive individuals.
E)what habitat remains for the red-cockaded woodpecker does not contain trees suitable for nest-cavity construction.
Q2) How are movement corridors potentially harmful to certain species?
A)They increase inbreeding.
B)They promote dispersion.
C)They spread disease and parasites.
D)They increase genetic diversity.
E)They allow seasonal migration.
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