Principles of Biology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts of life sciences, covering the structure and function of cells, genetic inheritance, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of organisms. The course emphasizes the unifying themes of biology, including the scientific method, molecular biology, energy transformation, and ecological interactions. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students develop critical thinking skills and a comprehensive understanding of how living systems operate, adapt, and interact within their environments.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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2342 Verified Questions
2342 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange in order,the levels of ecological study from most inclusive to most exclusive:
A)biosphere,ecosystem,community,population,individual organism
B)ecosystem,biosphere,population,community,individual organism
C)individual organism,community,population,ecosystem,biosphere
D)individual organism,population,community,ecosystem,biosphere
Answer: A
Q2) Both living and nonliving entities adapt to the environment
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A cell is to a tissue as an atom is to a:
A)molecule
B)subatomic particle
C)electron
D)population
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw the structural formula of a single water molecule.Note the location of partial positive and negative charges.Label the covalent bonds.
Answer: NOT ANSWER
Q2) If an element contains 8 electrons how many electrons will be placed in the 2nd valence shell?
A)6
B)2
C)8
D)5
E)11
Answer: A
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about subatomic particles?
A)Protons are found in the nucleus.
B)Neutrons have no electrical charge.
C)Electrons contain much less mass than neutrons.
D)Electrons are found in orbitals around the nucleus.
E)All electrons in an atom contain the same amount of energy.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) ATP is a protein that supplies energy to the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Carbon can form covalent bonds with as many as four other atoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What are the basic structures that make up a nucleotide?
A)Pentose sugar,phosphate and nitrogen-containing base
B)Pentose sugar,nitrate and phosphorus-containing base
C)Ribose sugar,phosphate and nitrogen-containing base
D)Hydroxide group,phosphate and nitrogen-containing base
E)Pentose sugar,sodium and nitrogen-containing base
Answer: A
Q4) Waxes consist of a glycerol bonded to three long-chain fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are able to reproduce independently from the division of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mitochondria have an inner membrane system called thylakoid membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is NOT part of the endomembrane system of the cell?
A)mitochondria
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi complex
Q4) What figure has the greatest surface area : volume ratio?
A)Figure A
B)Figure B
C)Figure C
D)All of these are the same.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of molecule will require some amount of energy to cross the cell membrane?
A)glycerol
B)polar
C)non-polar molecules
D)carbon dioxide
E)oxygen
Q2) What type of transport mechanism is required to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient?
A)active
B)passive
C)diffusion
D)osmosis
Q3) Which of the following protein functions is not correctly associated with its correct integral protein?
A)carrier proteins-facilitate passage of molecules through the membrane
B)enzymatic proteins-catalyze a specific reaction
C)channel proteins-block the activity of carrier proteins
D)cell recognition proteins-recognize pathogens
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lactose is milk sugar,and humans produce substantial lactase enzyme to digest it when we are infants.However,we soon lose some or even all of our lactase after childhood.In such cases,undigested lactose passes to the lower intestine where bacteria break it down into lactic acid and CO<sub>2</sub>,causing painful gas and bloating.This problem could be avoided by
A)avoiding all dairy products containing lactose.
B)taking lactase enzyme tablets when consuming lactose products.
C)taking any enzyme tablets when consuming dairy products.
D)consuming lactose in tablet form.
E)Both taking lactase enzyme and avoiding all dairy products would be correct.
Q2) In the electron transport systems of chloroplasts and mitochondria,
A)the system consists of a series of membrane bound carriers that transfer electrons from one carrier to another.
B)high energy electrons enter the system and low energy electrons exit the system.
C)energy release occurs when the electron transfers from one carrier to another.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what does the term grana refer?
A)the double membrane of the chloroplast
B)a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
C)a stack of thylakoid membrane structures
D)the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
E)the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
Q2) Which of the following plants is an example of a CAM plant?
A)cactus
B)corn
C)rice
D)wheat
E)oak tree
Q3) Oxygen production in photosynthesis involves all of the following EXCEPT
A)photosystem one.
B)photosystem two.
C)splitting of water.
D)light reactions.
Q4) Plants that conduct C-4 metabolism are desert plants.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetyl-CoA is produced from
A)pyruvate and a coenzyme.
B)citric acid and a coenzyme.
C)ATP and pyruvate.
D)CO<sub>2</sub> and pyruvate.
E)citric acid and CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q2) The breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first phase of aerobic cellular respiration is:
A)the citric acid cycle.
B)glycolysis.
C)the electron transport system.
D)fermentation.
E)the preparatory reaction.
Q4) Glycolysis will yield a net of 2 ATP only during aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true concerning mitosis?
A)Plant cells lack centrioles while animal cells do not.
B)Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis.
C)Mitosis allows growth and increase in size in both plants and animals.
D)Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells do not.
Q2) What factors are evaluated before a cell is allowed to proceed through the G<sub>1</sub> checkpoint?
A)growth signals
B)availability of nutrients
C)the integrity of cellular DNA
D)all of the above
E)none of these
Q3) Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because
A)the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth.
B)the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and no spindle forms.
C)there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid?
A)prophase I
B)metaphase II
C)anaphase II
D)prophase II
E)metaphase I
Q2) Meiosis occurs during all of the following EXCEPT
A)gametogenesis. B)oogenesis.
C)pangenesis.
D)spermatogenesis.
Q3) Only one of the four daughter cells becomes a functional gamete in spermatogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Monosomy occurs when an individual has only one of a particular type of chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lethal genes (genes that result in the failure to develop a vital organ or metabolic pathway)are nearly always recessive.Animal breeders who discover a unique trait and selectively breed to increase the occurrence of that trait often encounter a noticeable increase in lethal genes.Why?
A)The lethal recessive gene may be incompletely dominant.
B)Spreading the gene among offspring of both sexes will increase the likelihood it will be sex-linked and expressed.
C)The selective-mating of closely related individuals,or inbreeding,increases chances that two recessive genes will "meet" in offspring.
D)"Pleiotropy" - the gene that is being selected for this trait may have the second effect of being lethal.
E)"Epistasis" - selection for the desired trait may result in "uncovering" the lethal gene.
Q2) In a case of incomplete dominance,the phenotypic ratio of the F<sub>2</sub> generation is the same as the genotypic ratio.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription is initiated when:
A)initiation factors assemble ribosomal subunits,mRNA,and initiator tRNA.
B)RNA polymerase comes to a stop sequence.
C)RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promoter.
D)new nucleotides are added to an existing strand of nucleotides.
Q2) DNA replication is considered semiconservative because:
A)it will create three new,identical strands when finished.
B)it uses the original strand as a template for replication.
C)it always replicates in the 3 to 5 prime direction.
D)it never replicates in the 5 to 3 prime direction.
Q3) An unknown chemical is analyzed and found to contain the bases thymine and guanine.This chemical is most likely
A)tRNA.
B)mRNA.
C)DNA.
D)rRNA.
Q4) The poly-A tail is a modified guanine nucleotide that tells a ribosome where to attach when translation begins.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following series of events is associated with the formation of cancer?
A)The proto-oncogenes mutate and become oncogenes which are continuously active.There is also an associated loss of tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells.
B)The oncogenes mutate and become proto-oncogenes which are continuously active.There is also an associated loss of tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells.
C)The proto-oncogenes mutate and become oncogenes which stop functioning altogether.There is also an associated increase in the tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells.
D)The oncogenes mutate and become proto-oncogenes which stop functioning altogether.There is also an associated increase in the tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells.
Q2) The regulator gene codes for the DNA-binding proteins that act as repressors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)bioinformatics - the study of a genomic and proteomic information using computer analysis
B)polymerase chain reaction - process that separates DNA fragments according to size
C)genomics - the study of the genomes of humans and other organisms
D)proteomics - the study of species' proteins
Q2) Plants are being genetically engineered to have
A)a requirement for more fertilizer.
B)an increased water requirement.
C)the ability to produce human proteins.
D)increased susceptibility to herbicides.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Gene cloning can be accomplished by recombinant DNA technology and polymerase chain reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteomics is the study of the exact role of the genome in cells or organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is
A)comparative anatomy.
B)biogeography.
C)the fossil record.
D)comparative biochemistry.
Q2) Fossils like Archaeopteryx offer evidence linking
A)reptiles and mammals.
B)fish and amphibians.
C)birds and mammals.
D)birds and reptiles.
E)amphibians and reptiles.
Q3) Most of Darwin's observations about changes in species over time and in different environments took place in and near
A)North America.
B)Africa.
C)South America.
D)Asia.
E)Greenland.
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Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met,what is the net effect?
A)evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment
B)evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment
C)very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation
D)no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
Q2) What do the Founder Effect and the Bottleneck Effect have in common?
A)Both the Founder Effect and the bottleneck effect result from mutation
B)Both the Founder Effect and the bottleneck effect result from increase gene flow
C)Both the Founder Effect and the bottleneck effect are examples of disruptive selection
D)Both the Founder Effect and the bottleneck effect occur by chance.
Q3) The recessive allele for sickle cell anemia is more prevalent in regions of Africa where malaria is prevalent,than it is in regions where there is no malaria.This is due to a:
A)heterozygous advantage
B)Founder Effect
C)frequency dependent selection
D)bottleneck effect
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Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Q1) Norway rats (Rattus norvegicus)and roof rats (Rattus rattus)are different species.Occasionally,mating occurs if the two species are kept together in captivity.The resulting pregnancies are not successful and the embryos die.This is an example of A)mechanical isolation.
B)hybrid sterility.
C)zygote mortality.
D)lack of F<sub>2</sub> fitness.
Q2) Evolutionary change above the species level is referred to as __________,whereas evolutionary changes below the species level is known as _____________.
A)convergent; divergent
B)macroevolution; microevolution
C)microevolution; macroevolution
D)punctuated; gradualistic
Q3) The evolutionary species concept assumes that the members of a species are reproductively isolated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) The synthesis of DNA or RNA from the organic soup would have been guided by the actions of enzymes in the A)protein-first hypothesis.
B)RNA-first hypothesis.
C)clay-catalyst hypothesis.
D)chloroplast.
Q2) The time that it takes for half of a radioactive isotope to change into another stable element is its A)activation time.
B)life span.
C)half-life.
D)chemical life cycle.
Q3) Biological evolution differs from chemical evolution in that it would have been possible only after the development of A)true cells.
B)nucleic acids.
C)enzymes.
D)a metabolic pathway.
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Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of those listed,which level of classification is the most specific?
A)Kingdom
B)Phylum
C)Family
D)Domain
E)Class
Q2) Which of the following statements about taxonomy is NOT true?
A)In cladistics,a common ancestor and all its descendents that share one or more derived traits are placed in a single clade.
B)Analogous structures are derived from a common ancestral structure to perform the same function.
C)Biochemical data and the fossil record can be used independently to indicate the length of time since two species diverged from a common ancestor.
D)Homologous structures are derived from a single structure in the ancestor,although they may be adapted to different uses in the descendent species (e.g.,a dog's foreleg and a human's arm).
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Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Similarities between the archaea and eukarya include
A)same ribosomal proteins.
B)similar tRNA.
C)similar initiation of transcription.
D)All of the choices are correct similarities.
E)same ribosomal proteins and different initiation of transcription.
Q2) Prokaryotes generally range in size from
A)10-400 nm.
B)20-300 mm.
C)10-100 µm.
D)1-10 µm.
E)50-100nm.
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatch?
A)thermophiles - live in extremely cold temperatures
B)methanogens - prefer anaerobic environments
C)halophiles - live in high salt environments
D)thermoacidophiles - live in high temperatures and acidic environments
Q4) A lichen is a symbiotic relationship between cyanobacteria and fungi.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flagellated protist that is sexually transmitted is
A)Plasmodium.
B)Giardia.
C)Entamoeba.
D)Trichomonas.
E)Paramecium.
Q2) Which of the following alga is mismatched with its description?
A)Chlamydomonas-unicellular
B)Volvox-filamentous
C)Ulva-multicellular
D)Chara-multicellular
Q3) Which is NOT a feature found in protozoans?
A)heterotrophic
B)multicellular
C)usually motile
D)eukaryotic
Q4) The 1840s Irish potato famine was caused by a water mold parasite on potatoes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about mycorrhizae is/are true?
A)Fungi may enter the cortex of plant roots but do not enter the cytoplasm of plant cells.
B)Plants are harmed,while fungi benefit.
C)The presence of the fungi give plants a greater absorptive surface for the intake of minerals.
D)All of the above are true.
E)All statements are true except that plants are harmed,while fungi benefit.
Q2) Fungal infections are difficult to treat because
A)fungal and human cells are so similar that it is difficult to make fungal medications that do not harm human cells.
B)they "hide out" inside of cells,and have long latent periods where medications can not get to the organism.
C)they mutate very rapidly and therefore become resistant to most medications.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Molecular data suggests that Club and Sac fungi are more closely related than Club fungi and Zygospore fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Flagellated sperm and a sporophyte that is dependent on the gametophyte are characteristics of A)gymnosperm.
B)angiosperm.
C)liverworts.
D)moss.
E)liverworts and mosses.
Q2) Which of the following structures is a male reproductive structure?
A)archegonia
B)megaspore
C)pollen cone
D)pistil
Q3) In the pine life cycle,
A)fertilization occurs shortly after pollination to produce the zygote.
B)the gametophyte generation is dominant and the sporophyte generation is inconspicuous.
C)seed cones are smaller than pollen cones.
D)seed cones are located near the tips of higher branches and pollen cones develop near the tips of lower branches.
E)the cone is the fruit that surrounds the seeds.
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Q1) Which of the following structures is a stem adaptation instead of a root adaptation?
A)stolons
B)rhizomes
C)tubers
D)corms
E)All are stem adaptations
Q2) Plant roots function to
A)anchor the plant.
B)store the products of photosynthesis.
C)produce hormones that stimulate stem growth.
D)All of the choices are plant root functions.
Q3) We are very familiar with two things found in large woody plants,wood and bark.The wood is essentially made of ________ and the bark is essentially made of ________.
A)xylem; phloem and cork
B)vascular tissue; epidermal tissue
C)the cortex; the epidermis
D)pith; collenchyma
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Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) The early experiment by Van Helmont (1600s)describes how he grew a tree in a large pot and found that after five years,the amount of soil in the pot had not changed.He concluded that the increase in weight was due to the addition of water.At that time,the compounds in air had not yet been identified.Today,you know that he only discovered half the story.Which additional experiment would provide evidence for the rest of the story?
A)Carbon is discovered as a major element in trees and is lacking in water molecules.
B)Radioactive carbon in carbon dioxide in the air is identified as part of the tree structure.
C)A very careful measurement of the water taken in and lost by the tree would have revealed only half the added weight gained by the tree was from water.
D)Analysis of nutrients in the soil would account for half the weight of the tree.
E)All of the experiments but for an analysis of nutrients in the soil would account for half the weight of the tree.
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Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) Which of the following ions is affected by gibberellins and is also involved in signal transduction?
A)H<sup>+</sup>
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup>
C)Na<sup>+</sup>
D)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
Q2) Mutualism is a beneficial relationship between a plant and animal species.It can lead to the death of the plant species if the animal species is removed from the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism?
A)abscisic acid
B)auxin
C)cytokinin
D)ethylene
E)gibberellin
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Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) A megasporocyte is found in the A)anther.
B)stigma.
C)ovule.
D)filament.
E)style.
Q2) Which method of asexual reproduction would be most likely to occur in a wild population of plants? This method enables the parent plant to produce multiple offspring that start to grow away from the parent plant.
A)Growth of stolons.
B)Growth of rhizomes.
C)Production of suckers from the parent plant.
D)The root develops slips which can produce new offspring.
Q3) Which of the flowering plant structures is used to attract a specific type of pollinator?
A)petals
B)stamens
C)sepals
D)carpel
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Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sponges?
A)If the cells of a sponge are mechanically separated,they will spontaneously reassemble into a complete and functioning sponge.
B)Sponges have two tissue layers.
C)Sponges have an osculum,an opening in the upper body.
D)Sponges are filter feeders.
E)Sponges can reproduce sexually or asexually.
Q2) Which statement most accurately describes the colonial flagellate hypothesis?
A)Animals are descended from an ancestor that resembles a spherical colony of flagellated cells.
B)Both animals and fungi are descended from an ancestor that resembles a spherical colony of flagellated cells.
C)All animals are descended from an ancestor that resembles a single celled organism that was a flagellated cell.
D)None of these describe the colonial flagellate hypothesis.
Q3) Metamorphosis is a change in form and physiology that occurs during the development of an insect.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Q1) The following are differences between amphibians and reptiles EXCEPT
A)amphibians have smooth non-scaly skin,whereas reptiles are covered with scales and their skin is dry.
B)all reptiles respire by the use of lungs,while amphibians use small lungs supplemented by cutaneous respiration.
C)amphibian eggs are laid in water,but reptiles do not require water for reproduction.
D)reptiles are ectothermic,while amphibians are endothermic.
Q2) Which term can be applied to all of the vertebrates except for the jawless fish?
A)Gnathostomes
B)Endothermic
C)Tetrapods
D)Amniotes
Q3) The duckbill platypus is different than most mammals because it
A)lacks hair.
B)is "cold-blooded."
C)doesn't secrete milk.
D)doesn't give birth,but lays eggs.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is not an anthropoid?
A)chimpanzee
B)human
C)New World monkey
D)lemur
Q2) Most researchers believed that modern humans evolved from
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus africanus.
C)Proconsul.
D)Homo ergaster.
E)Homo erectus.
Q3) Which European species is believed to have evolved from Homo ergaster?
A)Homo heidelbergensis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo floresiensis
D)Homo sapiens
E)Australopithecus africanus
Q4) Old World monkeys have a prehensile tail and a flattened nose.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) _______ is responsible for receiving,interpreting,and producing a response to stimuli.
A)Muscle tissue
B)Nervous tissue
C)Epithelial tissue
D)Connective tissue
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about cartilage?
A)Cartilage cells are located in small spaces called lacunae.
B)The matrix of cartilage includes calcium salts.
C)The matrix of cartilage is both solid and flexible.
D)The human fetal skeleton is made up of cartilage.
E)Adult bodies possess structures that are made up of cartilage such as the nose,ear,and pads between the vertebrae in the backbone.
Q3) What tissue type is characterized by being a transport medium for nutrients and also includes blood and adipose tissues?
A)muscle tissue
B)nervous tissue
C)epithelial tissue
D)connective tissue
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) Which of these white blood cells are phagocytic?
A)lymphocytes
B)neutrophils
C)macrophages
D)both neutrophils and macrophages
E)both lymphocytes and macrophages
Q2) Which kind of white blood cell is involved in the production of antibodies?
A)neutrophils
B)B lymphocytes
C)monocytes
D)eosinophils
E)macrophage
Q3) The vessels in our circulatory system that allow molecules to diffuse across to tissues are
A)arteries.
B)veins.
C)capillaries.
D)lymph vessels.
E)venules.
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Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Complement and interferon are specific kinds of antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The activities of macrophages
A)are part of the nonspecific response against disease.
B)stimulate lymphocytes to carry on specific immunity.
C)stimulate phagocytic neutrophils.
D)do none of these things.
E)are part of the nonspecific response against disease and stimulate phagocytic neutrophils.
Q3) Innate immunity is a defense system that becomes fully functional after it has undergone a period of exposure to various pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of antibodies in a newborn baby is most often due to
A)exposure of the baby to antigens after birth.
B)antibodies that crossed the placenta from the mother's blood.
C)immunity developed after birth.
D)natural immunity developed in the baby before birth.
E)antibodies are inherited from the father.
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Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of digestion?
A)pancreas
B)salivary glands
C)appendix
D)gall bladder
Q2) Microvilli serve to
A)absorb nutrients.
B)secrete bile.
C)produce antibodies.
D)synthesize vitamins.
Q3) Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the A)pharynx.
B)larynx.
C)epiglottis.
D)glottis.
E)sphincter muscle.
Q4) An unhealthy diet can lead to obesity in individuals which can result in cardiovascular disease and Type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) When trying to stimulate breathing,it is better to give a mixture of carbon dioxide and oxygen than only oxygen because
A)pure oxygen causes you to breathe too rapidly.
B)carbon dioxide and oxygen together exert a greater pressure than an equal amount of oxygen.
C)carbon dioxide buildup in the blood stimulates the respiratory center in the brain.
D)oxygen causes lactic acid buildup,and the change in pH prevents breathing.
E)oxygen alone could lead to spontaneous human combustion.
Q2) When nerve impulses pass to the diaphragm,the diaphragm relaxes and exhalation occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen-poor blood becomes oxygen-rich blood in the capillary beds of the A)trachea.
B)bronchi.
C)bronchioles.
D)alveoli.
E)larynx.
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Q1) Malpighian tubules are the excretory system attached to the gut in A)earthworms.
B)insects.
C)humans.
D)planarians.
Q2) Deamination of amino acids,in the excretory system,will initially result in the formation of A)ammonia.
B)urea.
C)glucose.
D)creatinine.
E)uric acid.
Q3) Selective reabsorption of glucose and amino acids occur in the ____ of the nephron.
A)glomerulus
B)distal convoluted tubule
C)proximal convoluted tubule
D)collecting duct
E)loop of the nephron (loop of Henle)
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Q1) The sodium-potassium pump is primarily responsible for
A)the resting potential.
B)the action potential.
C)the excretion of salts.
D)the contraction of muscle fibers.
E)maintaining isotonic water balance.
Q2) At a synapse,
A)synaptic vesicles fuse with the postsynaptic membrane.
B)synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane.
C)neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft.
D)neurotransmitters are actively transported across the synaptic cleft.
E)synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane and neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft.
Q3) The likely effect on a neuron of two excitatory signals and twenty inhibitory signals is A)transmission of a nerve impulse.
B)transmission of a nerve impulse releasing inhibitory neurotransmitters at the next synapse.
C)prohibiting the axon from firing.
D)confused integration.
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Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Q1) Arthropods
A)have camera-type eyes.
B)have eyespots that sense the direction and intensity of light.
C)make use of a wider range of the electromagnetic spectrum than humans.
D)have compound eyes composed of independent units called ommatidia.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) The correct order in which a light ray reaches the retina is:
A)cornea-vitreous humor-pupil-lens-aqueous humor-retina.
B)lens-vitreous humor-cornea-aqueous humor-retina.
C)lens-cornea-aqueous humor-vitreous humor-retina.
D)cornea-aqueous humor-pupil-lens-vitreous humor-retina.
E)lens-aqueous humor-cornea-vitreous humor-retina.
Q3) If a person were to suffer a second degree burn to their fingers,which group of receptors would suffer the greatest amount of damage?
A)Meissner corpuscles
B)Merkel disks
C)Pacinian corpuscles
D)Ruffini endings
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Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) Which of the following bones is (are)NOT part of the axial skeleton?
A)ribs
B)skull
C)sternum
D)scapula
E)vertebrae
Q2) Which feature of the mammalian skeleton provides an advantage for animals that are land based predators?
A)Walking on their toes.
B)Elongated hindlimbs that propel them forward.
C)Bipedal locomotion on the soles of the feet.
D)Long legs and running on the tips of elongated phalanges.
E)All of these are advantages for land based predators.
Q3) Actin and myosin filaments are both present in the dense region called the A)A band.
B)Z line.
C)H zone.
D)I band.
E)M band.
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A)pituitary
B)hypothalamus
C)thymus
D)testes
E)All are endocrine glands.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism in regards to hormone regulation?
A)ADH is released from the pituitary causing water to be reabsorbed in the kidneys.
B)A baby suckles in order to stimulate milk production.
C)The uterine contractions during labor stimulate oxytocin production.
D)All of these are examples of a negative feedback mechanism.
E)None of these are examples of a negative feedback mechanism.
Q3) The removal of the anterior pituitary gland would result in all of the following except
A)a decrease in the body's ability to lower blood calcium levels.
B)a decrease in the ability to stimulate the adrenal cortex.
C)milk production.
D)production of the sex hormones.
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Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) All of the following statements concerning activities in the female reproductive system are true EXCEPT
A)the follicles in the ovary produce estrogen.
B)a surge of FSH is believed to promote ovulation.
C)the placenta can produce both estrogen and progesterone.
D)LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.
E)the corpus luteum produces progesterone.
Q2) In in-vitro fertilization,sperm are placed in the vagina of a woman by a physician.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI),a single sperm is injected into an egg in an attempt to create a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most male animals,the penis or other copulatory organ achieves erection by A)muscle contraction.
B)testicular pressure.
C)bones or exoskeleton interlocking.
D)artery dilation or hemolymph pressure.
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) The process in which neighboring cells influence the development of each other,either by direct contact or by production of chemical signals,is
A)neurulation.
B)gastrulation.
C)induction.
D)maternal determinants.
E)homeotic pattern formation.
Q2) Which of the following statements about embryonic development is NOT true?
A)A blastopore is the opening into the primitive gut formed by gastrulation.
B)A blastocoel is the fluid-filled cavity of a blastula.
C)A primitive gut is also referred to as an archenteron.
D)The primitive streak occurs in the morula stage of the embryonic development.
E)A zygote undergoes cleavage,which increases the cell number,but not the volume of the egg cytoplasm.
Q3) The human embryo becomes a fetus at the end of the second month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of maintaining a large territory?
A)There will be a large number of females that reside within the territory.
B)There will be a large diversity of food types within the territory.
C)There will be ample room for nesting sites.
D)It will be energetically expensive to control and defend the territory.
E)All of the choices are disadvantages of a large territory.
Q2) Which of the following is a proximal cause that will stimulate birds to migrate?
A)Environmental stimuli such as changes in temperature.
B)The bird getting older.
C)An increase in the number of males within the population causing an increase in competition for mates.
D)A new predator moving into the environment that poses a threat to the survival of the population.
E)All of these are proximal causes that will influence birds to migrate.
Q3) The endocrine system produces hormones in the body and it can be manipulated to cause an individual to change their behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) In the logistic growth curve formula,when N is very large,(K-N)/N is almost equal to 0,which results in
A)the population growing as fast as it can,or r(N).
B)the population growth slowing to zero.
C)the population exceeding carrying capacity; more are dying due to starvation than are born.
D)the population going extinct.
E)You can't tell without knowing the value of r (rate of reproduction).
Q2) The deceleration phase of growth always precedes the stable equilibrium phase in exponential growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Zero population growth will be achieved as soon as couples have only replacement reproduction,with two children per couple.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many species are held below the environmental carrying capacity by predation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Two communities may have exactly the same number of species,yet one might be measured as having a greater species diversity.Why?
A)composition or a listing of the various species in a community
B)a community and all of the abiotic factors associated with it
C)the native species plus the introduced species
D)the potential number of species that should exist in a community minus the species that have gone locally extinct
E)both the number of species and the evenness or relative abundance of individuals of the different species
Q2) A small marine amphipod has recently been discovered that carries a bad-tasting organism on its back,which is contrary to its normal behavior.If a fish ingests the pair,it immediately spits them back out.If the amphipod is alone,however,it is readily eaten.There is no apparent benefit or harm in this relationship for the "backpack" organism.This is probably a case of A)mutualism.
B)parasitism.
C)commensalism.
D)competitive exclusion.
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) What occurs to air currents as they travel from 60<sup>0</sup> north towards the pole?
A)The warmed air will rise and cool producing a low pressure area with high rainfall.
B)The warmed air will rise and cool producing a low pressure area with low rainfall.
C)The cool air will rise and warm up producing a low pressure area with high rainfall.
D)The cool air will rise producing a high pressure area with low rainfall.
Q2) Kansas and Pennsylvania are approximately at the same latitude.Yet why are the potential natural communities in Kansas mostly grassland and in Pennsylvania mostly temperate forest?
A)different temperatures
B)different levels of moisture
C)different soil texture and pH levels
D)different vegetation due to different seed banks
E)different altitudes
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Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about keystone species is NOT true?
A)The extinction of keystone species can lead to other extinctions and a loss of biodiversity.
B)Keystone species are defined as a population subdivided into several small isolated populations due to habitat fragmentation.
C)Examples of keystone species are grizzly bears,bats,beavers and alligators.
D)The numbers of individuals in the keystone species in their respective community may or may not be excessively high.
Q2) Scientists estimate that at least 50-60% of all species now living will most likely become extinct in the next 20-50 years unless planned,coordinated action takes place.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Introduction of alien or exotic species into new ecosystems occurs by A)colonization when new settlers arrive in an area.
B)accidental transport by ship or plane without anyone's knowledge.
C)agricultural and horticultural activities.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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