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Introduction
Principles of Biology is an introductory course that explores the foundational concepts of the biological sciences. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, this course provides students with a comprehensive overview of the mechanisms that govern living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and the interactions between organisms and their environments, preparing students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 8th Edition by George B Johnson
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Q1) The method of uncovering general principles by carefully using the scientific method is called ________________ reasoning.
Answer: inductive
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about experimental variables?
A)The dependent variable is what the investigator measures.
B)The independent variable is the one the researcher is able to manipulate.
C)When graphing data,the independent variable is always presented on the y-axis.
D)A valid experiment can only have one independent variable.
E)In the control experiment,the variable is not altered.
Answer: C
Q3) The process of using and transforming energy is known as:
A)response to stimulation
B)complexity
C)metabolism
D)homeostasis
Answer: C
Q4) The information that determines what an organism will be like is stored in the _____________ molecule.
Answer: DNA
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Q1) What is true about the half-life of <sup>14</sup>C?
A)It takes 5,730 years for half of <sup>14</sup>C to be converted to <sup>14</sup>N.
B)The half-life never changes over time.
C)It can be employed in the radioisotopic dating of fossils.
D)All of these are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Most elements in nature exist as:
A)solitary unreactive atoms
B)mixtures of different isotopes
C)mixtures of gases
D)mixtures of liquids
Answer: B
Q3) A solution of pH 3 is 100 times more acidic than a solution of pH 5.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Atomic mass refers to the numbers of ___________ and __________ of an atom.
Answer: protons,neutrons
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Q1) Denaturation of proteins is always a reversible process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When a protein is denatured,which level of protein structure is unaffected?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
Answer: A
Q3) When a protein is composed of more than one polypeptide chain,the arrangement of the chains is called the ____________ structure.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Answer: D
Q4) The polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants is __________. Answer: cellulose
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Q1) Which of the following functions to isolate particular chemical activities from the rest of the cell?
A)Peroxisomes
B)Golgi complex
C)Chloroplasts
D)Nucleus
E)Ribosomes
Q2) Explain what happens to plant and animal cells when placed in hypertonic,hypotonic and isotonic environments.
Q3) As cells increase in size,cell ________________ increases more rapidly than cell surface area.
Q4) The endosymbiont theory is supported by the following evidence except:
A)Mitochondria are surrounded by two membranes.
B)Mitochondrial ribosomes are similar to bacterial ribosomes.
C)Mitochondria contain circular molecules of DNA.
D)Mitochondria divide by binary fission.
E)Mitochondria have a matrix.
Q5) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q6) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.
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Q7) Diffusion occurs because of the ________________________ of molecules.

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Q1) What happens to enzymes when the temperature increases beyond their optimal reaction requirement?
Q2) Chemical reactions that release energy are called ______ reactions.
A)exergonic
B)endergonic
C)catalysis
D)catalytic
Q3) A measure of the degree of disorder in a system is called __________.
Q4) The site where a signal molecule binds to the surface of an enzyme is the ______________ site.
Q5) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Q6) Which of the following processes does NOT use ATP?
A)Muscle contraction
B)Active transport
C)Heat production
D)Diffusion of oxygen into the blood
E)Cytoplasmic transport
Q7) If a ball begins to roll down an incline,its ________ energy is converted into _______ energy.
Q8) The First Law of Thermodynamics states that ________________
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Q1) Which of the following does not do photosynthesis?
A)Algae
B)Leaves of plants
C)Some bacteria
D)Roots of plants
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) Which wavelength of light is the shortest?
A)Gamma rays
B)X-rays
C)UV light
D)Visible light
E)Infrared
Q3) How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration intimately related?
Q4) ____________,which is provided by the photosystem,provides a source of hydrogen and the energetic electrons needed to bind them to carbon atoms.
Q5) The full range of energy in sunlight can best be described as
A)electromagnetic radiation.
B)visible light.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)infrared radiation.
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Q1) Select the correct sequence concerning glucose catabolism.
A)glycolysis - pyruvate - acetyl - CoA - electron transport chain - Krebs cycle
B)glycolysis - pyruvate - acetyl - CoA - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain
C)glycolysis - acetyl - CoA - pyruvate - electron transport chain - Krebs cycle
D)glycolysis - acetyl - CoA - pyruvate - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain
Q2) The Krebs cycle turns _______ times per glucose. 7-1-2013
Q3) When FAD and NAD gain electrons and hydrogens during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,they are said to be _________.
Q4) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
Q5) A proton _______ drives the protons out across the mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space.
Q6) ________________ molecules of ATP are generated from the complete cellular respiration of one molecule of glucose.
Q7) Which of these is an electron carrier molecule?
A)NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)ATP
C)Adenylate kinase
D)Carbonic acid
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Q1) Describe what occurs during prophase of mitosis.
Q2) Which of the following does not occur during telophase?
A)the nuclear membrane disappears
B)the nucleolus reappears
C)chromosomes uncoil
D)the spindle is disassembled
E)cytokinesis often begins now
Q3) Proteins with positive charges that are wrapped around DNA within chromosomes are:
A)chromatids
B)histones
C)centromeres
D)kinetochores
Q4) How are cancer cells different from normal cells?
Q5) During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)G<sub>2</sub>
C)S
D)Prophase
E)Metaphase
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Q1) Meiosis involves four nuclear divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In animals,asexual reproduction can involve the budding off of cells which grow by mitosis into a new individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is Muller's Ratchet theory?
Q4) The main difference between prophase I and II is that in prophase I:
A)synapsis and crossing over occurs
B)the nucleolus disappears
C)the nuclear membrane disappears
D)chromosomes coil
E)the spindle forms
Q5) The process of independent assortment refers to:
A)the random meeting of an egg and sperm
B)the orientation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I
C)the orientation of chromosomes at metaphase II
D)the random choice of which cell in germ-line tissue will begin meiosis
E)whether sexual or asexual reproduction will occur
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Q1) Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder?
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Hemophilia
C)Huntington's disease
D)Tay-Sachs disease
E)Hypercholesterolemia
Q2) All of the following are recessive traits in humans except:
A)mid-digital hair
B)albinism
C)common baldness
D)red-green color blindness
E)sickle-cell disease
Q3) If a white-flowered pea plant (ww)is crossed with a heterozygous purple-flowered plant (Ww),what will their offspring look like?
Q4) Nondisjunction of chromosomes resulting in aneuploidy occurs during:
A)anaphase of mitosis
B)prophase I
C)metaphase II
D)anaphase I or II
E)telophase I

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Q1) The building blocks of DNA are called:
A)proteins
B)bases
C)nucleotides
D)acids
Q2) An unexpected change in a cell's genetic makeup is called a ____________.
Q3) When Frederick Griffith injected dead bacteria of the virulent S strain into mice,the mice:
A)remained healthy
B)died of blood poisoning
C)became ill but lived
D)reproduced quicker
Q4) Biochemist Erwin Chargaff found that in DNA there was a special relationship between individual bases that we now refer to as Chargaff's rule.His observation was that:
A)A = T and G = C
B)C = T and A = G
C)A + T = C + G
D)G = T and C = A
Q5) What is meant by "semiconservative replication?"
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Q1) All of the following occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes except:
A)there is DNA transcription
B)there is alternative splicing of genes
C)in RNA,uracil replaces thymine
D)translation occurs on a ribosome
E)tRNA carries the amino acid to the mRNA to make polypeptides
Q2) During protein synthesis,_______________ occurs in the nucleus as a copy of DNA is made into mRNA,and ______________ begins in the cytoplasm,when mRNA associates with a ribosome.
Q3) A(n)____________ is a piece of DNA with a group of genes that are transcribed together as a unit.
A)promoter
B)repressor
C)operator
D)operon
Q4) The three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis are mRNA,_______________,and ________________.
Q5) The use of information in DNA to produce proteins in the cytoplasm is ____________.
Q6) Explain why mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
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Q1) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Q2) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA transcripts as there are genes in the human genome?
This is possible because human genes are fragmented and use alternative splicing.
Q3) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q4) Explain how genomic imprinting works.
Q5) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?
Q6) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?
Q7) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make DNA to transfer to another organism?
Q8) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Q9) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?
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Q1) A __________ is a separate group of organisms incapable of interbreeding with other such groups.
Q2) When only a very few individuals give rise to a new population in a new area of favorable habitat,they might differ in appearance from the other,larger population from which they separated.This effect is called the:
A)mutation effect
B)founder effect
C)inbreeding effect
D)outbreeding effect
Q3) Most types of organisms evolve at about the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bats,pterosaurs,and birds are examples of _________ evolution.
Q5) During fossilization,remains of an organism may become suspended in fossilized plant sap,which is called ________.
Q6) The differences produced between breeds produced by artificial selection are more distinctive than differences between wild species.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The highest,most inclusive level of our current classification scheme is
Q2) Choose the highest,most inclusive category.
A)Order
B)Family
C)Genus
D)Phylum
Q3) Select the scientific name from the following names:
A)robin
B)tiger
C)Marmota
D)Apis mellifera
Q4) Which of the following domains only contain one kingdom?
A)Bacteria and Fungi
B)Archaea and Bacteria
C)Fungi and Protista
D)Protista and Animalia
E)Animalia and Plantae
Q5) A cladogram grouped birds with reptiles because the bird characteristic of ____________ was not emphasized.
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Q1) When bacterial cells participate in conjugation,the bridge between the cells through which the DNA passes is:
A)a pilus
B)a capsule
C)a flagella
D)made of lipopolysaccharide
E)made of peptidoglycan
Q2) The ________________ model proposes that when life originated,key chemical processes generating the building blocks of life were contained in a spherical structure.
Q3) Which type of cells is the HIV virus able to infect?
A)Macrophages and T lymphocytes
B)Red blood cells and liver cells
C)Intestine and T lymphocytes
D)B lymphocytes and nervous tissue
E)Brain cells and glands
Q4) Bacteriophages that integrate into the host's genome do so during a _____________ cycle.
Q5) Are viruses living or nonliving? Explain.
Q6) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
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Q1) Which type of life cycle do bacteria have?
A)Asexual
B)Zygotic meiosis
C)Gametic meiosis
D)Sporic meiosis
E)Budding
Q2) What is the evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction?
Q3) What is the theory of endosymbiosis?
Q4) Which type of life cycle do animals have?
A)Asexual
B)Zygotic meiosis
C)Gametic meiosis
D)Sporic meiosis
E)Budding
Q5) Why are colonial protists not considered to be multicellular?
Q6) Although __________________ evolved many times in different lines of the protists,most protists are single-celled.
Q7) __________ meiosis occurs after fertilization.
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Q8) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is a form of asexual reproduction known as _______________.

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Q1) The symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi is called
Q2) The relationship between plant roots and fungi can best be described as:
A)an association
B)predation
C)mutualism
D)parasitism
Q3) The yeasts mostly belong to which group?
A)Ascomycetes
B)Basidiomycetes
C)Zygomycetes
D)Imperfect fungi
Q4) How are fungi used by humans?
Q5) Any unicellular fungus is called:
A)yeast
B)a mushroom
C)toadstools
D)morels
E)truffles
Q6) Differentiate between conidia and spores.
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Q1) Chelicerates include the extinct trilobites,and modern-day horseshoe crab and:
A)lobsters
B)spiders and mites
C)nematodes
D)insects
Q2) The phylum that shows the greatest diversity,or the greatest number of species,is:
A)Arthropoda
B)Echinodermata
C)Chordata
D)Mollusca
Q3) Heartworm infection in dogs and cats are caused by a parasitic _____ that infests the heart of the animal.
A)flatworm
B)rotifer
C)roundworm
D)segmented worm
E)echinoderm
Q4) An example of an echinoderm is a ______________________.
Q5) Cnidarians have two basic body forms,medusae and ________.
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Q1) An example of a modern-day jawless fish (agnathan)is:
A)lampreys
B)shark
C)perch
D)angelfish
Q2) Mammals and dinosaurs did not live during the same time periods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All mammals have three middle-ear bones which evolved from:
A)bones in the reptile jaw
B)jaws of fishes
C)wing bones of birds
D)cartilage of shark skeletons
Q4) The largest living reptiles ever on earth were the _____________.
Q5) When did the major evolutionary expansion of terrestrial plants and animals occur?
A)Mesozoic era
B)Paleozoic era
C)Cenozoic era
D)2 million years ago
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Q1) Java man was the first fossil specimen of H.erectus found.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ancestor of humans is commonly thought to be:
A)Australopithecus afarensis
B)Australopithecus boisei
C)Australopithecus anamensis
D)Australopithecus africanus
Q3) Few fossils of early Homo have been found,and there is much debate about whether different individuals should be grouped together.Which of these is believed to be more ancient than the others?
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo rudolfensis
C)Homo ergaster
D)Homo sapiens
Q4) The very first primates were:
A)prosimians
B)monkeys
C)gibbons
D)apes

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Q1) The special type of muscle found only in the heart is __________ muscle.
Q2) Muscle cells are unique because of the contractible protein fibers,called _____________________,within them.
A)tropomyosin
B)sarcoplasmic reticulum
C)myofilaments
D)collagen fibers
Q3) Which body system transports extracellular fluid and fats to the circulatory system?
A)Lymphatic
B)Endocrine
C)Skeletal
D)Integumentary
E)Digestive
Q4) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.
Q5) Your quadriceps are your:
A)upper arm muscles
B)calf muscles
C)thigh muscles
D)shoulder muscles
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Q1) The average lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately:
A)15 days
B)1 month
C)2 months
D)4 months
E)6 months
Q2) When heart valves do not close fully or open incompletely,this can be heard using a stethoscope as:
A)lub dub
B)atherosclerosis
C)heart murmur
D)major heart defect
Q3) Angina pectoris is:
A)the muscle tissue that lines the left side of the heart
B)the muscle tissue that lines the right side of the heart
C)when a blood vessel bursts in the brain
D)another term for "chest pain"
E)when blood leaks back into the atria because the valves are leaky
Q4) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Q5) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
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Q1) Which mineral in hemoglobin combines with oxygen in a reversible way?
A)Nitrogen
B)Calcium
C)Iron
D)Zinc
E)Sodium
Q2) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
Q3) The structures of the vertebrate lung through which gases are exchanged with the blood are the:
A)pleural membranes
B)bronchioles
C)bronchi
D)alveoli
Q4) Fish possess a single lung.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Amphibians can obtain additional oxygen through their skin by diffusion,a process called ___________________ respiration.
Q6) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Q1) The __________ secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate solution into the small intestine to aid digestion.
A)liver
B)gallbladder
C)spleen
D)pancreas
Q2) Which is incorrect concerning the large intestine?
A)It is about 1 meter long.
B)Its major function is to store solid waste.
C)Many bacteria live there and produce gas.
D)It is lined with villi.
E)No digestion takes place therE.
Q3) The optimal diet contains:
A)more carbohydrates than fats
B)the right amount of essential nutrients
C)sufficient calories to supply the body's energy needs
D)All of these
Q4) Excessive acid produced by the stomach can erode a hole,called an ______________,in the lining of the stomach.
Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
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Q1) What is the waste product of fish?
A)Urea
B)Ammonia
C)Uric acid
D)Urine
Q2) Which organism does not contain kidneys?
A)Beetle
B)Hummingbird
C)Lizard
D)Shark
E)Rabbit
Q3) Freshwater fish drink water all the time to compensate for their tendency to lose water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In mammals,uric acid is produced as a waste product of the degradation of:
A)proteins
B)purine nucleotides
C)polysaccharides
D)lipids
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Q1) The virus that causes AIDS is the _______________ virus.
Q2) Which cells complete their maturation in the bone marrow?
A)Mast cell
B)B cell
C)T cell
D)Monocyte
E)Natural killer cell
Q3) What are the chemical weapons involved with the first line of defense?
A)Oil and sweat glands within the skin
B)Mucus and cilia lining the respiratory tract
C)Saliva and digestive enzymes
D)All of these are correct.
Q4) The ________________ is the outermost layer of skin,consisting of dying,waterproof cells.
Q5) Which of the following cells do not kill cells directly?
A)B cells
B)T cells
C)Macrophages
D)Neutrophils
E)Natural killer cells
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Q1) ______________ nerves carry impulses away from the central nervous system.
A)Sensory
B)Motor
C)Afferent
D)Involuntary
Q2) Drug addiction occurs when the central nervous system:
A)adjusts to the increased firing of neurons by reducing the number of membrane receptors in postsynaptic membranes
B)initiates new cell growth that depends on continual input of the drug
C)uses the drug as its sole neurotransmitter
D)stores the drug between neurons in the cerebral cortex for later use
Q3) Much of the thought that occurs in the thinking portion of the brain occurs in the gray outer layer called the ______________.
Q4) Cells that insulate and speed impulse conduction down neurons in the PNS are:
A)nodes of Ranvier
B)astrocytes
C)Schwann cells
D)oligodendrocytes
Q5) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Q1) The type of light-detecting visual pigment complex found in rods is:
A)rhodopsin
B)carotene
C)acetylcholine
D)opsin
Q2) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Q3) Animals such as bats use a type of sonar called ______________ to locate objects.
Q4) The light that passes through the pupil is focused by the lens on the:
A)iris
B)sclera
C)retina
D)lens
E)choroids
Q5) What is not possible when eyes are located on the side of the head?
A)Seeing distances
B)Seeing in black and white
C)Seeing green
D)Depth perception
Q6) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
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Q1) _______________ is the hormone released by the pancreas to lower levels of glucose in the blood.
Q2) Prolactin stimulates the breasts to produce milk,which is released in response to oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An absolute deficiency in beta cells of the pancreas results in:
A)type I diabetes
B)type II diabetes
C)pancreatitis
D)excessive calcium in the blood
Q4) The adrenal cortex releases ______________,which stimulates the kidney to take up extra sodium ions.
A)aldosterone
B)epinephrine
C)glucose
D)ADH
Q5) _______________ hormone is produced by the four little parathyroid glands.
Q6) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine.
Q7) Why are anabolic steroid hormones so dangerous?
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Q1) __________________ is the male sex hormone,responsible for secondary sexual characteristics.
Q2) All birds practice internal fertilization,even though most male birds lack a penis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The secondary oocyte does not complete the second meiotic division until:
A)ovulation
B)puberty
C)fertilization
D)birth
Q4) The developing embryo is termed a fetus at what stage?
A)After the third month
B)After implantation
C)At the ninth month of pregnancy
D)At the end of the second trimester
Q5) During which period of prenatal development is it especially critical not to consume alcohol and why?
Q6) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?
Q7) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
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Q1) During the sporophyte generation in the life cycle of a fern,the plant releases _______________ that germinate and become gametophytes.
A)haploid spores
B)diploid spores
C)haploid gametes
D)diploid gametes
Q2) The symbiotic relationship with fungi called mycorrhizae:
A)allow plants to take up minerals such as phosphorus
B)cause disease in the infected plant
C)only benefit the fungus
D)existed only millions of years ago
Q3) All of the following are parts of the carpel except:
A)ovary
B)style
C)stamen
D)stigma
Q4) In some seeds,_____________ is used up in the formation of the cotyledons.
Q5) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.
Q6) The _________ are the most abundant type of seedless vascular plant.
Q7) Plants are _____________ because they can produce their own food.
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Q1) The ___________ is a type of vascular tissue that conducts water.
Q2) The ______________ of materials moved through the phloem occurs because of water pressure.
A)growth
B)mass flow
C)stoppage
D)inhibition
Q3) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.
Q4) Within the epidermis of leaves are ______________ through which gases,such as carbon dioxide and oxygen,pass.
A)vessel elements
B)trichomes
C)stomata
D)root hairs
Q5) The _______________ cambium gives rise to thick layers of secondary xylem and phloem.
Q6) What causes the annual rings we see in the wood of trees?
Q7) Describe the mechanism in which stomata open and close.
Q8) How do plants regulate water loss?
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Q1) Flowers which contain only male or female structures are called:
A)perfect
B)imperfect
C)clones
D)gametophytes
Q2) Describe how adventitious plantlets form.
Q3) In angiosperms,an unusual reproductive process involving two sperm cells occurs,called:
A)self-pollination
B)double fertilization
C)pollen tube formation
D)germination
Q4) All of the following fruits are classified as drupes except: A)olives
B)pears
C)plums
D)cherries
Q5) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
Q6) _____ is the mechanism by which organisms measure seasonal changes in relative day and night length.
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Q1) If a plant species grows where no life existed before,this is a:
A)primary succession
B)pioneering succession
C)biotic creation
D)secondary succession
Q2) Which of the following tends to happen as a population approaches its carrying capacity?
A)increased competition for food
B)increased competition for shelter
C)increased competition for mating sites
D)increased competition for light
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A type of symbiosis in which one species benefits from the relationship while the other neither benefits nor is harmed is called:
A)parasitism
B)mutualism
C)commensalism
D)benefitism
Q4) _______________ is the consuming of one organism by another.
Q5) In what manner does predation reduce competition?
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Q1) Microscopic organisms floating on the surface of the ocean make up the ___________________.
Q2) A ___________ is a type of major land ecosystem determined mostly by the features of the climate in the area.Many are actually named for the dominant plants or lack of.
A)biome
B)community
C)biosphere
D)land formation
Q3) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q4) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?
Q5) Humans intrude into the nitrogen cycle by:
A)disposing of human manure rather than allowing it to recycle
B)manufacturing nitrogen compounds to apply to agricultural fields
C)tying up nitrogen in human body mass because of overpopulation
D)use of antibiotics that destroy important bacteria in the nitrogen cycle
Q6) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
Q7) Deserts that occur on the back sides of mountain ranges are due to an effect called a __________________.
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Q8) Plants are the ____________ in the food chain in an ecosystem.
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Q1) Young birds see objects flying overhead and respond by crouching down into the nest and remaining still.Over time,some objects become familiar and the young birds do not crouch down.This type of learning is referred to as:
A)sensitization
B)associative learning
C)operant conditioning
D)habituation
Q2) Ethologist Konrad Lorenz raised geese from eggs and the first thing the goslings saw was him.Consequently,they treated him as if he were their parent and followed him.This is an example of:
A)operant conditioning
B)classical conditioning
C)imprinting
D)nonassociative learning
E)sculpting
Q3) Give an example for each of the following types of communication within social groups.Alarm calls;Alarm pheromones;Trail pheromones;Dance language.
Q4) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q5) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
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Q1) The number of species inhabiting an ecosystem is referred to as ___________________.
Q2) Choose the one environmental problem that you feel is in need of our most immediate attention.Describe the problem and explain why you feel it is the one that is most urgent.
Q3) Groundwater came to be in the ground how long ago?
A)During the formation of the Earth.
B)During the last ice age,12,000 years ago.
C)Within the last 1,000 years.
D)It is continuously recharged with snowmelt and rainwater.
Q4) A lack of ozone is dangerous because ozone:
A)is a reserve for oxygen that we breathe
B)cools the Earth
C)filters out dangerous ultraviolet rays
D)triggers the development of clouds
Q5) _________________ is the most abundant greenhouse gas.
Q6) How do you think our overpopulation problem will be solved? Support your answer with specific examples or ideas.
Q7) Acid precipitation is due to the addition of __________ to the atmosphere.
Q8) Pollution taxes often take the form of ____________________.
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