Principles of Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts of living systems, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and diversity of life. This course explores the chemical and molecular basis of life, the flow of energy and matter, principles of heredity, mechanisms of evolution, and the interactions of organisms with their environment. Students gain an understanding of scientific methods and develop skills in critical thinking and experimental design, preparing them for more advanced studies in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are protists and bacteria grouped into different domains?
A)Because protists eat bacteria.
B)Because bacteria are not made of cells.
C)Because protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack.
D)Because bacteria decompose protists.
E)Because protists are photosynthetic.
Answer: C
Q2) The method of scientific inquiry that draws conclusions from careful observation and the analysis of data is known as which of the following?
A)hypothesis-based science
B)deductive reasoning
C)inductive reasoning
D)quantitative science
E)qualitative science
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products?
C H O ________ C H O + ________ CO
A)1; 2
B)3; 1
C)1; 3
D)1; 1
E)2; 2
Answer: E
Q2) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula C H ?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) You have two beakers.One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0.The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13.Into a third beaker,you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCl and 20 mL of the NaOH.After complete stirring,the pH of the mixture will be A)2)0.
B)12.0.
C)7)0.
D)5)0.
E)9)0.
Answer: C
Q2) A strong acid like HCl
A)ionizes completely in an aqueous solution.
B)increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution.
C)reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution.
D)is a strong buffer at low pH.
E)both ionizes completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) In which of the structures illustrated above are the atoms bonded by ionic bonds?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)C, D, and E only
E)none of the structures
Q2) The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to
A)the chemical versatility of carbon atoms.
B)the variety of rare elements in organic molecules.
C)the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms.
D)their interaction with water.
E)their tremendously large sizes.
Q3) The two molecules shown in the figure above are best described as A)optical isomers.
B)enantiomers.
C)structural isomers.
D)cis-trans isomers.
E)chain length isomers.
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6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)nucleotides
B)sugars
C)amino acids
D)nitrogenous bases
E)deoxyribose
Q2) Which class of biological molecules are grouped together because its monomers contain both a nitrogenous base and a five-carbon sugar?
A)carbohydrates
B)lipids
C)proteins
D)nucleic acids
E)This is not a criterion for grouping molecules.
Q3) Of these two,which one will not be hydrolyzed in your digestive tract?
A)fatty acids
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)glucose
E)fructose
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division?
A)light microscopy
B)scanning electron microscopy
C)transmission electron microscopy
D)confocal fluorescence microscopy
E)super-resolution fluorescence microscopy
Q2) In plant cells,how does the middle lamella function?
A)allows adjacent cells to adhere to one another
B)prevents dehydration of adjacent cells
C)maintains the plant's circulatory system
D)allows for gas and nutrient exchange among adjacent cells
E)cell structure and support
Q3) Which cell would be best for studying lyosomes?
A)muscle cell
B)nerve cell
C)phagocytic white blood cell
D)leaf cell of a plant
E)bacterial cell
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
A)pumps equal quantities of Na and K across the membrane.
B)pumps hydrogen ions out of the cell.
C)contributes to the membrane potential.
D)ionizes sodium and potassium atoms.
E)is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration gradient.
Q2) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes?
A)The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water.
B)Lipids and proteins repulse each other in the membrane.
C)Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane.
D)There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane.
E)Molecules such as cellulose can pull them in various directions.
Q3) Based on the figure above,which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell?
A)decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration
B)decreasing extracellular pH
C)decreasing cytoplasmic pH
D)adding an inhibitor that blocks the regeneration of ATP
E)adding a substance that makes the membrane more permeable to hydrogen ions
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Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ________ is to ________.
A)exergonic; spontaneous
B)exergonic; endergonic
C)free energy; entropy
D)work; energy
E)entropy; enthalpy
Q2) An organic molecule is required for the catalytic activity of an enzyme.What is the most specific name below for this molecule?
A)cofactor
B)coenzyme
C)allosteric activator
D)cooperative activator
E)substrate
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor)in a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction
A)gains electrons and gains potential energy.
B)loses electrons and loses potential energy.
C)gains electrons and loses potential energy.
D)loses electrons and gains potential energy.
E)neither gains nor loses electrons, but gains or loses potential energy.
Q2) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?
A)the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B)the citric acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)glycolysis
E)chemiosmosis
Q3) Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C H O)is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO)and water?
A)glycolysis
B)fermentation
C)oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
D)citric acid cycle
E)oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the C or CAM systems are said to be compromises.Why?
A)Each one minimizes both water loss and rate of photosynthesis.
B)C compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration.
C)Both minimize photorespiration but expend more ATP during carbon fixation.
D)CAM plants allow more water loss, while C plants allow less CO into the plant.
E)C plants allow less water loss but CAM plants allow more water loss.
Q2) In a plant cell,where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A)thylakoid membrane only
B)plasma membrane only
C)inner mitochondrial membrane only
D)thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane
E)thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane
Q3) Photorespiration occurs when rubisco reacts RuBP with A)CO .
B)O .
C)glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
D)3-phosphoglycerate.
E)NADPH.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following types of signalling is represented in the figure?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)hormonal
D)synaptic
E)long-distance
Q2) Put the steps of the process of signal transduction in the order they occur:
1)A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.
2)Protein kinases are activated.
3)A signal molecule binds to a receptor.
4)Target proteins are phosphorylated.
5)Second messenger molecules are released.
A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B)3, 1, 2, 4, 5
C)3, 1, 5, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 5, 3, 4
E)5, 1, 2, 4, 3
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?
A)an increase in production once the restriction point is passed
B)the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk
C)the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome
D)its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with Cdk
E)the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface
Q2) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine,a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus,at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A)anaphase
B)prophase
C)telophase
D)metaphase
E)interphase
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Experiments with cohesins have found that
A)cohesins are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II.
B)cohesins are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I.
C)cohesins are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I.
D)a protein cleaves cohesins before metaphase I.
E)a protein that cleaves cohesins would cause cellular death.
Q2) Columnar aspen,found commonly throughout Canada,although not in the Northwest Territories,can send out underground stems for asexual reproduction.Sexual reproduction is not as common,but when it does happen,the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes.How many chromosomes are in the cells of the underground stems?
A)9
B)10
C)19
D)38
E)It is not possible to say from this information.
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15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Black fur in mice (B)is dominant to brown fur (b).Short tails (T)are dominant to long tails (t).What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?
A)1/16
B)3/16
C)3/8
D)1/2
E)9/16
Q2) This is an example of
A)complete dominance.
B)co-dominance.
C)incomplete dominance.
D)pleitropy.
E)epistasis.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A)pink flowers in snapdragons
B)the ABO blood group in humans
C)Huntington's disease in humans
D)white and purple flower colour in peas
E)skin pigmentation in humans
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early 20th century?
A)Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes.
B)Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate during meiosis.
C)Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes.
D)No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell.
E)Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes.
Q2) How many of their daughters might be expected to be colour-blind dwarfs?
A)all
B)none
C)half
D)one out of four
E)three out of four
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A)Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B)Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C)Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D)Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E)Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
Q2) In an experiment,DNA is allowed to replicate in an environment with all necessary enzymes,dATP,dCTP,dGTP,and radioactively labeled dTTP (³H thymidine)for several minutes and then switched to nonradioactive medium.It is then viewed by electron microscopy and autoradiography.The figure above represents the results.
Which of the following is the most likely interpretation?
A)There are two replication forks going in opposite directions.
B)Thymidine is only being added where the DNA strands are furthest apart.
C)Thymidine is only added at the very beginning of replication.
D)Replication proceeds in one direction only.
E)Thymidine is not being incorporated into the DNA, but is associating with the DNA due to hydrogen bonding.
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?
A)elongation of the polypeptide
B)base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
C)binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
D)covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
E)the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA
Q2) What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule?
A)covalent bonding between sulphur atoms
B)ionic bonding between phosphates
C)hydrogen bonding between base pairs
D)van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms
E)peptide bonding between amino acids
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19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which processes contribute to this dynamic compacting and decompacting of DNA?
A)DNA supercoiling at or around H1
B)methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
C)hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core
D)accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes
E)nucleotide excision and reconstruction
Q2) In addition,she finds what other evidence of this single-stranded RNA piece's activity?
A)She can measure the degradation rate of the remaining single strand.
B)She can measure the decrease in the concentration of Dicer.
C)The rate of accumulation of the polypeptide to be translated from the target mRNA is reduced.
D)The amount of miRNA is multiplied by its replication.
E)The cell's translation ability is entirely shut down.
Q3) When is a cell considered to be differentiated?
A)When it replicates by the process of mitosis.
B)When it loses connections to the surrounding cells.
C)When it produces proteins specific to a particular cell type.
D)When it appears to be different from the surrounding cells.
E)When it has transcribed all of its genes.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid.Which of the following observations supports this theory?
A)Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
B)Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes.
C)Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells.
D)Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
E)Viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell.
Q2) Based on the above table,which virus meets the requirements for a bacteriophage?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
A)lytic phages
B)proviruses
C)viroids
D)bacteriophages
E)retroviruses
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A)by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B)by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C)by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D)by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E)by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
Q2) Which of the following are probably siblings?
A)A and B
B)A and C
C)A and D
D)C and D
E)B and D
Q3) For which of the following might RNAi more possibly be useful?
A)to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B)to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C)to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D)to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E)to raise the concentration of a desired protein
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Why is sequencing of eukaryotic genomes more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea?
A)because of the large size of eukaryotic proteins
B)because of hard-to-find proteins
C)because of the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
D)because of the large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA
E)because a different technique must be used to sequence eukaryotic DNA
Q2) Bioinformatics can be used to scan sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation,for probable splice sites,and for sequences that specify known mRNAs.Such sequences containing these elements are called
A)expressed sequence tags.
B)cDNA.
C)multigene families.
D)proteomes.
E)short tandem repeats.
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be A)theories.
B)hypotheses.
C)guesses.
D)dogmas.
E)facts.
Q2) Currently,two extant elephant species (X and Y)are placed in the genus Loxodonta,and a third species (Z)is placed in the genus Elephas.Thus,which statement should be true?
A)Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B)Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z.
C)Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct).
D)Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z.
E)Species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor, but nothing more can be claimed than this.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Rank the following one-base-point mutations (from most likely to least likely)with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide:
1)insertion mutation deep within an intron
2)substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon
3)substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon
4)deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)4, 3, 2, 1
C)2, 1, 4, 3
D)3, 1, 4, 2
E)2, 3, 1, 4
Q2) Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of
A)pansexual selection.
B)stabilizing selection.
C)intrasexual selection.
D)intersexual selection.
E)artificial selection.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum)and one-seeded juniper (J.monosperma)have overlapping ranges.If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells)from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells)of the other species,then which of these terms is applicable?
A)behavioural isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)temporal isolation
D)hybrid breakdown
E)reduced hybrid viability
Q2) A narrow hybrid zone separates the toad species Bombina bombina and Bombina variegata.What is true of those alleles that are unique to the parental species?
A)Such alleles should be absent.
B)Their allele frequency should be nearly the same as the allele frequencies in toad populations distant from the hybrid zone.
C)The alleles' heterozygosity should be higher among the hybrid toads there.
D)Their allele frequency on one edge of the hybrid zone should roughly equal their frequency on the opposite edge of the hybrid zone.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The first terrestrial organisms probably were considered which of the following?
1)burrowers
2)photosynthetic
3)multicellular
4)prokaryotes
5)eukaryotes
6)plants and their associated fungi
A)2 and 4
B)3 and 5
C)1, 3, and 5
D)2, 3, and 6
E)2, 3, 5, and 6
Q2) Which of the following steps has not yet been accomplished by scientists studying the origin of life?
A)synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes
B)abiotic synthesis of polypeptides
C)formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes
D)formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids
E)abiotic synthesis of organic molecules
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Taxonomically,what should be done with the birds?
A)The traditional stance is correct. Such dramatic morphological change as undergone by birds merits that the birds be placed in their own order, separate from the reptiles.
B)The birds should be reclassified, and their new taxon should be the subclass Aves. Genetic similarity trumps morphological dissimilarity.
C)The rest of the reptiles should be reclassified as a subclass within the class Aves.
D)Science is consensual. Taxonomy is a science. Variant classification schemes involving the birds should be tolerated until consensus is reached.
Q2) What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains,rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
A)molecular
B)behavioural
C)nutritional
D)anatomical
E)ecological
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Given that the enzymes that catalyze nitrogen fixation are inhibited by oxygen,what are two "strategies" that nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes might use to protect these enzymes from oxygen?
1)couple them with photosystem II (the photosystem that splits water molecules)
2)package them in membranes that are impermeable to all gases
3)be obligate anaerobes
4)be strict aerobes
5)package these enzymes in specialized cells or compartments that inhibit oxygen entry
A)1 and 4
B)2 and 4
C)2 and 5
D)3 and 4
E)3 and 5
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Archaea and bacteria have different membrane lipids.
B)Both archaea and bacteria generally lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C)The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
D)Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA.
E)Only some archaea use CO to oxidize H , releasing methane.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P.bursaria?
A)photoautotroph
B)photoheterotroph
C)chemoheterotroph
D)chemoautotroph
E)mixotroph
Q2) Biologists have long been aware that the defunct kingdom Protista is polyphyletic.Which of these statements is most consistent with this conclusion?
A)Many species within this kingdom were once classified as monerans.
B)Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protist ancestors.
C)The eukaryotic condition has evolved more than once among the protists.
D)Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
E)Some protists, all animals, and all fungi share a protist common ancestor, but these protists, animals, and fungi are currently assigned to three different kingdoms.
Q3) Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature?
A)foraminifera silicon-rich tests
B)dinoflagellata holdfast
C)diatoms tests made of cellulose
D)phaeophyta (brown algae) blade
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two small,poorly drained lakes lie close to each other in a northern forest.The basins of both lakes are composed of the same geologic substratum.One lake is surrounded by a dense Sphagnum mat; the other is not.Compared to the pond with Sphagnum,the pond lacking the moss mat should have
A)lower numbers of bacteria.
B)reduced rates of decomposition.
C)reduced oxygen content.
D)less-acidic water.
Q2) The following traits provide supporting evidence that charophyceans are the closest relatives of land plants,with the exception of the fact that
A)both groups have rings of cellulose synthesizing proteins.
B)in both groups, a phragmoplast forms between daughter nuclei of dividing cells.
C)both groups have alternation of generation.
D)both groups contain peroxisome enzymes.
E)the structure of flagellated sperm is similar in both groups.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) It would be best for these students,and for society in the long run,if their biology professor responds by
A)acknowledging their concern, and promising not to hold them responsible for any material on plants.
B)chiding them for their careerist attitudes, and advising them to whine less and study more.
C)offering extra credit for a research paper on plants that harm humans, as well as plants that heal humans.
D)lowering the stress level by providing them with the relevant test questions from the upcoming test so they can research the answers ahead of time.
Q2) Angiosperm double fertilization is so called because it features the formation of
A)two embryos from one egg and two sperm cells.
B)one embryo from one egg fertilized by two sperm cells.
C)two embryos from two sperm cells and two eggs.
D)one embryo involving one sperm cell and an endosperm involving a second sperm cell.
E)one embryo from two eggs fertilized by a single sperm cell.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fungal spore germinates,giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed.Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement,as described here?
A)karyogamy
B)mycelial flagella
C)alternation of generations
D)breezes distributing spores
E)cytoplasmic streaming in hyphae
Q2) Which feature seen in chytrids supports the hypothesis that they diverged earliest in fungal evolution?
A)the absence of chitin within the cell wall
B)coenocytic hyphae
C)flagellated spores
D)formation of resistant zygosporangia
E)parasitic lifestyle
Q3) Which tree depicts the closest relationship between zygomycetes and chytrids?
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) What conclusion is apparent from the data in the table?
A)Land animals have more Hox genes than do those that live in water.
B)All bilaterian phyla have had the same degree of expansion in their numbers of Hox genes.
C)Acoel flatworms should be expected to contain seven Hox genes.
D)The expansion in number of Hox genes throughout vertebrate evolution cannot be explained merely by three duplications of the ancestral vertebrate Hox cluster.
E)Extant insects all have seven Hox genes.
Q2) Which distinction is given more emphasis by the morphological phylogeny than by the molecular phylogeny?
A)metazoan and eumetazoan
B)radial and bilateral
C)true coelom and pseudocoelom
D)protostome and deuterostome
E)moulting and lack of moulting
Q3) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing genomic features of placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) Healthy corals are brightly coloured because they
A)secrete colourful pigments to attract mates.
B)host symbionts with colourful photosynthetic pigments.
C)build their skeletons from colourful minerals.
D)secrete colourful pigments to protect themselves from ultraviolet light.
Q2) The parapodia of polychaetes have a function most similar to that of A)rhinophores.
B)dorsal plummules.
C)cerata.
D)more than one of these.
Q3) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio? Assume that all of the following are the same total length.
A)a mollusk
B)an annelid
C)an arthropod
D)a platyhelminth
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35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?
A)Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.
B)Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.
C)Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.
D)The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved simultaneously.
E)Fossil evidence indicates that early anthropoids were arboreal and cat-sized.
Q2) Internal fertilization,leathery amniotic egg,and skin that resists drying are characteristics of A)amphibians.
B)nonbird reptiles.
C)chondrichthyans.
D)mammals.
E)birds.
Q3) Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism?
A)fingerprints
B)enhanced depth perception
C)shortened hind limbs
D)opposable big toe
E)repositioning of foramen magnum
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about growth in plants?
A)Only primary growth is localized at meristems.
B)Some plants lack secondary growth.
C)Only stems have secondary growth.
D)Only secondary growth produces reproductive structures.
E)Monocots have only primary growth, and eudicots have only secondary growth.
Q2) While studying the plant Arabidopsis,a botanist finds that an RNA probe produces coloured spots in the sepals of the plant.From this information,what can be inferred?
A)The differently coloured plants will attract different pollinating insects.
B)The RNA probe is transported only to certain tissues.
C)The coloured regions were caused by mutations that occurred in the sepals.
D)The RNA probe is specific to a gene active in sepals.
E)More research needs to be done on the sepals of Arabidopsis.
Q3) Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?
A)parenchyma cells
B)collenchyma cells
C)sclerenchyma cells
D)tracheids and vessel elements
E)sieve-tube elements
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much more slowly than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected.This is most likely because
A)the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling.
B)the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil.
C)sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil.
D)water and mineral uptake are faster when mycorrhizae are present.
E)B and D.
Q2) Transpiration in plants requires all of the following except
A)adhesion of water molecules to cellulose.
B)cohesion between water molecules.
C)evaporation of water molecules.
D)active transport through xylem cells.
E)transport through tracheids.
Q3) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.
B)Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.
C)Transpiration is required for both processes.
D)Bulk flow of water is involved.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of
A)water and minerals through root hairs.
B)water and minerals through mycorrhizae.
C)carbon dioxide through stoma.
D)carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about nitrogen fixation in root nodules?
A)The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme.
B)The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs.
C)Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low O concentration within the nodule.
D)The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil.
E)The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic.
Q3) Leghemoglobin is produced in some root nodules to
A)transport oxygen from air in the soil to the root tissues.
B)bind oxygen in the nodule to keep the area anaerobic.
C)supply iron to the nitrogenase enzyme.
D)feed the symbiotic bacteria.
E)attract bacteria in the soil to the developing nodule.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a multiple fruit?
A)apple
B)strawberry
C)raspberry
D)pineapple
E)corn on the cob
Q2) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis would most likely
A)fail to produce sepals.
B)fail to produce petals.
C)fail to produce anthers.
D)fail to produce pollen.
E)fail to produce ovules.
Q3) The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths,a(n)________,which covers the young shoot,and a(n)________,which covers the young root.
A)cotyledon; radicle
B)hypocotyl; epicotyl
C)coleoptile; coleorhiza
D)scutellum; coleoptile
E)epicotyl; radicle
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A)auxins.
B)cytokinins.
C)indole acetic acid.
D)ethylene.
E)carbon dioxide concentration (in air).
Q2) You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates.You discover a plant that produces a hormone under water-deficit conditions that triggers a suite of drought responses.Most likely the hormone is
A)ABA.
B)GA.
C)IAA.
D)2, 4-D.
E)salicylic acid.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with high salt levels.While studying these bacteria,you note that their internal environment is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings.You also discover that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt concentration in their environment changes.The new species can tolerate small changes in this way,but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism for altering its own internal salt levels.What type of homeostatic mechanism is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels?
A)conformation
B)regulation
C)integration
D)assimilation
E)acclimatization
Q2) With its abundance of collagenous fibres,cartilage is an example of A)connective tissue.
B)reproductive tissue.
C)nervous tissue.
D)epithelial tissue.
E)adipose tissue.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching to enzymes that digest fat.Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?
A)amylase
B)pepsidase
C)lipase
D)secretin
E)pepsin
Q2) A hiatal hernia that disrupts the functional relationship between the smooth muscle in the esophagus and that in the stomach would be most likely to increase the frequency of A)gastric reflux.
B)premature entry of food into the duodenum.
C)excess secretion of pepsinogen.
D)increased stomach pH.
E)retention of food in the stomach.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because A)the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
B)the capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
C)the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
D)the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
E)the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system.
Q2) The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the A)amphibians.
B)birds.
C)fishes.
D)mammals.
E)reptiles.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is
A)the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins.
B)the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency.
C)human papilloma virus, which can remain latent for several years.
D)the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis.
E)multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system.
Q2) An invertebrate,such as an insect,has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes A)complement.
B)lysozyme.
C)mucus.
D)neutrophils.
E)dendritic cells.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?
A)a vampire bat
B)a salmon in fresh water
C)a marine bony fish
D)a freshwater bony fish
E)a shark inhabiting freshwater Lake Nicaragua
Q2) A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink sea water instead
A)will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life.
B)will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
C)will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload.
D)will find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst.
E)will risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A)Graves disease and the thyroid
B)giantism and the posterior pituitary gland
C)goiter and the adrenal medulla
D)diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid glands
E)dwarfism and the adrenal cortex
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?
A)greater production of T than of T
B)hyposecretion of TSH
C)hypersecretion of TSH
D)hypersecretion of MSH
E)a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
Q3) Which category of signal exerts its effects on target cells by binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins?
A)neurohormones
B)estrogens
C)androgens
D)vitamin D
E)neurohormones, estrogens, androgens, and vitamin D
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by
A)increasing the body temperature.
B)providing access to water for external fertilization.
C)increasing ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sex.
D)direct effects on gonadal structures.
E)direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms.
Q2) In excreted urine,a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is A)progesterone.
B)estrogen.
C)follicle-stimulating hormone.
D)chorionic gonadotropin.
E)hypothalamic-releasing hormones.
Q3) Among nonmammalian vertebrates,the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as
A)a specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males.
B)a shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
C)a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
D)a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
E)a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal cells that are present only for a brief developmental phase will,following completion of that phase,undergo
A)diapause.
B)apoptosis
C)meiosis.
D)oxidative phosphorylation.
E)re-differentiation.
Q2) The developmental precursors to the gonadal tissues of C.elegans uniquely contain
A)proteins of maternal origin.
B)high concentrations of potassium ions.
C)haploid proteins.
D)T tubules for the propagation of action potentials.
E)P granules of mRNA and protein.
Q3) Which membranes fuse first during fertilization?
A)cortical granule membrane and egg plasma membrane
B)vitelline layer and sperm plasma membrane
C)sperm plasma membrane and cortical granule membrane
D)sperm plasma membrane and egg plasma membrane
E)jelly coat and sperm plasma membrane
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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The excitatory effect of glutamate can be found in A)postsynaptic cells.
B)the synapse
C)the glia.
D)axon hillocks.
E)the nodes of Ranvier.
Q2) Assume that a single IPSP has a negative magnitude of -0.5 mV at the axon hillock and that a single EPSP has a positive magnitude of +0.5 mV.For a neuron with an initial membrane potential of -70 mV,the net effect of the simultaneous arrival of six IPSPs and two EPSPs would be to move the membrane potential to
A)-72 mV.
B)-71 mV.
C)-70 mV.
D)-69 mV.
E)-68 mV.
Q3) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
A)thin, non-myelinated neurons.
B)thin, myelinated neurons.
C)thick, non-myelinated neurons.
D)thick, myelinated neurons.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because
A)they cease breathing while sleeping and remain underwater.
B)they sleep for only 30 minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease breathing.
C)they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water while they sleep.
D)they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water.
E)they alternate which half of their brains is asleep and which half is awake.
Q2) Failure of an embryonic neuron to establish a synaptic connection to another cell
A)converts that neuron to an ependymal cell.
B)causes the neuron to migrate to another part of the brain.
C)converts that neuron to a glial cell.
D)leads to Alzheimer's disease.
E)results in the programmed cell death of that neuron.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A skeletal muscle with abnormally low levels of calcium ions would be impaired in A)ATP hydrolysis.
B)the initiation of an action potential.
C)maintaining its resting membrane potential.
D)initiating contraction.
E)its ability to sustain glycolysis.
Q2) Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus.
1)transmission
2)transduction
3)integration
4)amplification
A)1 2 3 4
B)1 4 2 3
C)2 4 1 3
D)3 1 2 4
E)3 1 4 2
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Q1) The behaviour of most animals is influenced by the periods of daylight and darkness in the environment.Fiddler crabs' courtship behaviours are instead synchronized by the 29 1/2-day cycle of the moon.What is the adaptive significance of using lunar cues?
A)The fiddler crab courtship ritual is highly visual so individuals need the light of the full moon to be able to observe courtship displays.
B)Egg maturation in fiddler crab females takes 29 1/2 days.
C)By courting at full and new moon, fiddler crabs link their reproduction to times of highest tides that disperse larvae to safer, deeper waters.
D)The algae that larval fiddler crabs consume for energy and metabolism blooms on a monthly cycle, so recently hatched larvae have plenty to eat during a crucial time of their life.
E)It takes about 29 days for a fiddler crab to reach sexual maturity.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oligotrophic lakes are characterized by
A)high nutrients and high productivity.
B)high capacity to filter dissolved nutrients and chemical pollutants.
C)generally, low nutrient levels and high oxygen levels.
D)amount of decomposable organic matter in bottom sediment is high.
E)cold water temperature.
Q2) Community ecology focuses on
A)analyzing factors that affect population sizes.
B)organisms' physiology and behaviour that enables them to cope in a particular environment.
C)interactions among species that affect the structure and organization of a community.
D)flow of energy and chemical cycling of energy between organisms and the environment.
E)interactions of individuals in many different populations.
Q3) In deep water,which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity?
A)temperature
B)light availability
C)solute concentration
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best explains survivorship curve B?
A)It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care for offspring during midlife as indicated by increased survivorship.
B)This curve is likely of a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few of which are expected to survive.
C)It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at 60-70% relative age.
D)There was a mass emigration of young to middle-aged individuals in this cohort.
E)Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature.
Q2) Pacific salmon and annual plants are excellent examples of
A)cohort disintegration.
B)dispersion.
C)Allee effect.
D)iteroparous reproduction.
E)semelparous reproduction.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two "species" are likely to compete for the same ecological niche?
A)Big Mac and Quarter Pounder
B)French Fries and Hash Browns
C)Premium Caesar Salad with Crispy Chicken and Premium Crispy Chicken Classic Sandwich
D)Filet-O-Fish and Double Cheeseburger
E)No two species can ever occupy the same ecological niche.
Q2) According to the Shannon Diversity Index,which block would show the greatest diversity?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about
A)character displacement in the colour of barnacles.
B)habitat preference in two different species of barnacles.
C)desiccation resistance and barnacle species.
D)how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution.
E)competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
A)cyanobacterium-primary producer
B)grasshopper-primary consumer
C)zooplankton-primary producer
D)eagle-tertiary consumer
E)fungus-detritivore
Q2) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following?
A)light and nutrient availability
B)predation by primary consumers
C)increased pressure with depth
D)pollution
E)temperature
Q3) What is the goal of restoration ecology?
A)to replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area
B)to speed up the restoration of a degraded ecosystem
C)to completely restore a disturbed ecosystem to its former undisturbed state
D)to prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status
E)to manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following statements are correct,with the exception of:
A)Cloning techniques, such as the one used to create "Dolly" are being used to try and resurrect extinct species.
B)Although the cloning process resulted in the birth of a Pyrenean ibex, the ibex died shortly after birth.
C)Preservation of species will no longer be necessary once scientists can resurrect species.
D)Resurrecting species does not get around the issue of genetic diversity.
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?
A)increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B)the depletion of the ozone layer
C)overexploitation of selected species
D)habitat destruction
E)zoned reserves
Q3) The main goal of sustainable development is to
A)involve more countries in conservation efforts.
B)use only natural resources in the construction of new buildings.
C)use natural resources such that they do not decline over time.
D)reevaluate and re-implement management plans over time.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58