Principles of Biology Final Exam - 906 Verified Questions

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Principles of Biology Final Exam

Course Introduction

Principles of Biology is a foundational course that explores the fundamental concepts and processes of life. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, and ecology, this course provides students with an understanding of the core principles that govern living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and practical laboratory skills, preparing students for advanced study in the biological sciences and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait

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Chapter 1: What Is Life

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Q1) Biologists think that all organisms alive today descended from organisms that lived before. In fact, they feel that we can trace any living organism back to the origin of life on Earth. Explain how metabolism fits into this thinking.

Answer: Despite the vast diversity of living organisms, they all have very similar metabolic machinery and the metabolic pathways are very similar. This suggests that these evolved in common ancestors. Since all organisms share these similarities, it suggests that all life can be traced back to the original living organisms on Earth.

Q2) Which of the following is considered to be the most basic living unit?

A)molecule

B)organelle

C)organ system

D)tissue

E)cell

Answer: E

Q3) List the units of the hierarchy of life in order from smallest to largest.

Answer: biological molecules \(\rarr\) organelles \(\rarr\) cells \(\rarr\) tissues \(\rarr\) organs \(\rarr\)organ systems \(\rarr\) organism

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Chapter 2: Cells and the Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The internal pH of most cells is near neutral. This allows

A)water to break down into H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.

B)enzymes within the cells to act at peak efficiency.

C)the buffers produced within the body to affect these cells.

D)enzymes outside of these cells to function.

E)rapid fluctuations between acidic and basic conditions within the cells.

Answer: B

Q2) Diagram an atom of nitrogen (which consists of 7 protons, 7 neutrons, and 7 electrons). Be sure to indicate in your illustration the relative size, position, and charge of the subatomic particles.

Answer: The diagram should be circular in nature with a centrally located circular nucleus. The larger, positively charged protons and neutral neutrons should be located inside the nucleus. The very tiny, negatively charged electrons should be located in shells around the nucleus in the following manner:two in the innermost shell, and five in the second shell.

Q3) What differentiates various atoms?

Answer: Different atoms have differing numbers of subatomic particles. An oxygen atom, for example has 8 electrons and 8 protons, while a sodium atom has 11 electrons and 11 protons.

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Chapter 3: How Cells Take in and Use Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a product of cellular respiration?

A)ATP

B)carbon dioxide

C)oxygen

D)water

E)all are products

Answer: C

Q2) As one form of energy is converted into another, there is always some energy lost as

A)chemical energy.

B)activation energy.

C)heat.

D)kinetic energy.

E)light.

Answer: C

Q3) For the following chemical equation, label the reactants by placing an R beside them.

carbon dioxide__ + water__ + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen__

Answer: carbon dioxide(R) + water(R) + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen_

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Chapter 4: The Cell Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spindle fibers

A)are composed of DNA.

B)only appear during interphase.

C)attach to the ends of chromosomes.

D)connect chromosomes to the center of the cell.

E)are used to organize and move chromosomes during mitosis.

Q2) The process in which the cell actually divides is called

A)mitosis.

B)meiosis.

C)cytokinesis.

D)actin.

E)cell plate formation.

Q3) What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?

A)kinetochore

B)centromere

C)chromatin

D)cyclin

E)MPF

Q4) Why are chemotherapy and radiation therapy more effective on cancerous cells than normal cells?

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Chapter 5: Patterns of Inheritance

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Q1) You have just graduated from college as a business major, but have a special interest in genetics, ever since taking introductory biology with the new Life curriculum. Therefore, you decide to manage a pet store where you can dabble in animal breeding experiments. Your first investigation is with one of your childhood favorites, the guinea pig. When you cross a black guinea pig with a white guinea pig, three of the offspring are black and three are white. When you cross two of the black offspring you get six black and two white offspring. Which phenotype is most likely dominant? How do you know? What are the genotypes of the original parental guinea pigs?

Q2) The hairline of some people drops downward near the center of the forehead and forms a distinct point. This condition is known as widow's peak. The alternative phenotype is a continuous hairline that does not drop down. A person with widow's peak always has an affected parent. Explain the inheritance pattern of widow's peak.

Q3) The defective protein that actually causes cystic fibrosis is found in A)blood serum.

B)the mitochondrial membrane.

C)the cell cytoplasm.

D)the nucleus.

E)the cell membrane.

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Chapter 6: DNA: The Thread of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) DNA replication occurs

A)during cell division.

B)continuously.

C)before cell division.

D)only once in the life of the organism.

E)only in gametes.

Q2) Packaged DNA is referred to as A)chromosomes.

B)histones.

C)chromatin.

D)protein.

E)nucleosomes.

Q3) Why do geneticists refer to the two sugar phosphate strands of DNA as "antiparallel"?

Q4) Given a strand of DNA that "reads" GATTACGATT, what would the sequence of bases on the opposite side "read"?

Q5) It is discovered that a chromosome from the cells of a particular organism is made up of a strand of DNA that is 500 base pairs long. If 30% of the DNA molecule is determined to be made up of adenine, how many of the bases would you expect to be guanine?

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Chapter 7: Genes, Proteins, and Genetic Engineering

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Sample Questions

Q1) What enzymes are used to cut DNA molecules? How do they work?

Q2) The "language" of the genetic code of DNA uses an alphabet of A)nucleotide bases.

B)proteins.

C)amino acids.

D)sugars.

E)phosphate molecules.

Q3) What enzyme is used to "glue" together the ends of cut pieces of DNA?

A)DNA polymerase

B)RNA polymerase

C)DNA ligase

D)restriction enzymes

E)protease

Q4) tRNA molecules are composed of A)DNA.

B)nucleotides.

C)amino acids

D)polypeptides.

E)lipids.

Q5) What types of mutations are the most harmful, and why?

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Chapter 8: Reproduction and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immature eggs are called A)oocytes.

B)blastocysts. C)follicles.

D)basal cells.

E)ovaries.

Q2) External fertilization is most commonly seen

A)in land animals.

B)in plants.

C)in aquatic animals.

D)during dry seasons.

E)among all animals.

Q3) Negative feedback loops act to A)control sperm production.

B)cause uterine contractions during childbirth.

C)cause milk production after childbirth.

D)cause expulsion of milk during breastfeeding.

E)cause an erection of the penis when stimulated.

Q4) Describe the pathway of sperm during ejaculation, from production to exiting the body. Include the contributions of various accessory ducts and glands.

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Chapter 9: The Mechanisms of Evolution

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Q1) Define and give examples of several vestigial structures.

Q2) The formation of new species from populations that are not isolated from each other is called

A)convergent evolution.

B)gene flow.

C)allopatric speciation.

D)sympatric speciation.

E)parapatric speciation.

Q3) A population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

A)consists of allele frequencies that are constantly changing.

B)is under no selective pressures.

C)consists of genotype frequencies that are constantly changing.

D)is very common in nature.

E)requires a small population size.

Q4) Provide evidence for the following statement. "At the time of Darwin's journey, geology was more influential in the development of evolutionary thought than was biology."

Q5) How did the concept of biogeography shape Darwin's thinking?

Q6) What is genetic diversity? Why is it important to maintain genetic diversity?

Q7) What can we learn about evolution from molecular evidence?

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Chapter 10: Lifes Origins and Biodiversity

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Q1) In many areas of the world, humans are destroying habitats at an alarming rate. Why is habitat destruction so dangerous?

Q2) Consider the evolution of metabolic pathways. We believe that these pathways evolved from the

A)precursor to the end product, as enzymes became more efficient over time.

B)precursor to the end product, as cells simplified the biochemistry of the external environment.

C)end product to the precursor, as cells gradually evolved according to a predetermined plan.

D)end product to the precursor, as intermediates in the pathway were depleted in the environment.

E)end product to the precursor, as photosynthesis began to supply the energy to power the changes at each stage.

Q3) Contrast homologous and analogous traits, giving examples.

Q4) Why are most Hawaiian silverswords found at high altitudes?

Q5) How could the formation of membranes have promoted the evolution of the first true cells?

Q6) Compare the first forms of photosynthesis to evolve with the form used by green plants today.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Single-Celled Life

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Q1) In bacteria, the cell wall is composed mainly of A)peptidoglycans.

B)lipids.

C)glycoproteins.

D)proteins.

E)various polysaccharides.

Q2) Members of the Archaea differ from members of the Bacteria (or eubacteria)in that only the members of the Archaea have A)different lipids in their membranes.

B)a nuclear membrane.

C)enzymes to carry out respiration in their plasma membranes.

D)a peptidoglycan cell wall.

E)a variety of morphologies, including cocci and vibrios.

Q3) Prokaryotes reproduce

A)very slowly.

B)via binary fission.

C)sexually.

D)such that one of the offspring is always much larger than the other.

E)via binary fusion.

Q4) Explain how bioremediation works, using an oil spill as an example.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Fungi and Plants: Decomposers and Producers

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Q1) The cell walls of fungi are composed mainly of A)hyphae.

B)cellulose.

C)chitin.

D)phospholipids.

E)mycelia.

Q2) Which plant group has a dominant gametophyte generation when compared to the sporophyte generation?

A)flowering plants

B)gymnosperms

C)ferns

D)horsetails

E)bryophytes

Q3) Why is pollen considered an important adaptation to land?

Q4) This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat and drought conditions.

A)hyphae

B)cell walls

C)mycelia

D)specialized organelles

E)spores

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Chapter 13: The Evolution and Diversity of Animals

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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic differentiating Neanderthals from modern humans?

A)Neanderthals had smaller brains.

B)Neanderthals were shorter.

C)Neanderthals had larger noses.

D)Neanderthals were stronger.

E)Neanderthals had projecting brow ridges.

Q2) Sponges are very interesting animals. Although they do not have true tissues, they have a number of cooperating cell types. How do these different cell types cooperate in obtaining nutrients for the sponge?

Q3) Which of the following is a deuterostome phylum?

A)Arthropoda

B)Echinodermata

C)Porifera

D)Platyhelminthes

E)Annelida

Q4) Name and briefly characterize the four classes of fishes. Indicate which class is considered to be most similar to the ancestral chordate and which is the ancestor of the land vertebrates, justifying your choices.

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Chapter 14: Ecology of Populations and Communities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Do predators control prey? Or do prey control predator populations? Explain your answer.

Q2) A life table

A)is used extensively by the insurance industry.

B)can be used to determine the exact year of death for an individual.

C)for humans does not take into account deaths from accidents.

D)has no predictive value.

E)determines the maximum age a human can reach.

Q3) Which age structure diagram would be most indicative of the African country of Kenya?

A)pyramid-shaped with a wide base

B)bullet-shaped

C)middle section wider than both the relatively narrow base and top

D)tapering from a broad top to a narrow bottom

E)base and top both wider than the constricted center

Q4) Both low birth and death rates characterize the demographic transition. Which factors will lower birth and death rates for twenty-first century Homo sapiens?

Q5) Prey organisms use varied strategies to try to avoid being eaten. List some of these strategies.

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Chapter 15: Ecosystems and the Biosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) This compound is capable of destroying ozone molecules.

A)carbon dioxide

B)methane

C)water vapor

D)chlorofluorocarbon

E)nitrous oxide

Q2) The human population may reach 12 billion people by the year 2100. Applying your knowledge of energy flow, suggest the feeding habits necessary to support this large number of people.

Q3) The carbon source for a heterotroph is

A)breathing carbon dioxide from the air.

B)water.

C)sunlight.

D)ingesting organic matter.

E)various inorganic molecules found in all ecosystems.

Q4) What does sustainability mean? What strategies might be employed to reach sustainable levels of agriculture?

Q5) A mountain stream can be divided into several sections. In each of these sections the biological diversity varies greatly. What factors influence the diversity in this mountain stream?

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Chapter 16: Body Function, Survival, and the Steady State

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Q1) Why do astronauts experience bone loss in space?

Q2) What are the three types of muscle, and where are they found?

Q3) How does epithelial tissue differ from connective tissue, in structure and function?

Q4) Describe the production of urea in the mammalian body. Where is it finally excreted?

Q5) Which of the following organisms would be likely to use the least energy per kilogram of body weight to maintain its temperature in a preferred range?

A)a whale in the Arctic Ocean

B)a clam remaining submerged at low tide

C)a tuna swimming in the deep ocean

D)a lizard in a desert environment

E)a human in a tropical environment

Q6) Describe the problem a marine fish has with water balance.

Q7) What benefit does running a fever provide to a sick person?

Q8) Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands and give examples of each.

Q9) If someone experiences damage to the hypothalamus and no longer produces ADH, what effect will this have on kidney function?

Q10) What process in the kidney makes drug testing of urine possible?

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Circulation and Respiration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms refers to heart pains?

A)atherosclerosis

B)arteriosclerosis

C)angina pectoris

D)myocardial infarction

E)aortic dissection

Q2) The most important function of the globin (protein)portion of a hemoglobin molecule is to

A)directly bind oxygen.

B)promote binding of oxygen to the heme group.

C)allow release of oxygen from the heme group.

D)facilitate the reaction of CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.

E)cause constriction of the capillaries.

Q3) What is the hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, as in the case of a hemorrhage?

A)ANH

B)TSH

C)BSH

D)erythropoietin

E)renin

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