Principles of Biology Exam Review - 1631 Verified Questions

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Principles of Biology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Principles of Biology is an introductory course that explores the foundational concepts of life sciences, providing a comprehensive overview of biological systems and processes. Students will examine topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and the physiological mechanisms that sustain living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and the application of biological principles to real-world issues. This course serves as a crucial stepping stone for further studies in biology and related fields, fostering critical thinking and an appreciation for the complexity and diversity of life.

Recommended Textbook

Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk

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25 Chapters

1631 Verified Questions

1631 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold

Introduction to the Scientific Method

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79 Verified Questions

79 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878

Sample Questions

Q1) What type of subject is treated as closely as possible to an experimental subject except that he or she does not get the experimental treatment?

Answer: control

Q2) What is the result when a well-tested hypothesis is supported by many independent studies in the scientific community?

A) The hypothesis would be considered a scientific theory.

B) The hypothesis is now be referred to as a prediction.

C) Further experiments would not occur unless a sufficient alternative is proposed.

D) The hypothesis is a fact that cannot be refuted.

Answer: A

Q3) Which factor in an experiment can be manipulated?

A) bias

B) control

C) placebo

D) variable

Answer: D

Q4) What type of reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements?

Answer: Deductive

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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and

Pseudoscience:

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53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19879

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the pH of a neutral solution?

A) 1

B) 5

C) 7

D) 9

Answer: C

Q2) If a solution has a pH of 2, how does its H ion concentration compare to a solution with a pH of 4?

A) It is 2 times higher.

B) It is 10 times higher.

C) It is 100 times higher.

D) It is 1000 times higher.

Answer: C

Q3) Why is oxygen considered highly electronegative?

A) It pulls electrons toward itself.

B) It has a nonpolar structure.

C) It repels electrons away from its nucleus.

D) It discharges electrons readily out of the atom.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better

Performance and Health

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87 Verified Questions

87 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19880

Sample Questions

Q1) Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A) chloroplast

B) endoplasmic reticulum

C) centriole

D) mitochondrion

Answer: A

Q2) What is a deficiency of water in the body?

A) diffusion

B) dehydration

C) endocytosis

D) hypertension

Answer: B

Q3) Which type of amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body?

Answer: essential

Q4) What characteristic of a plasma membrane allows certain molecules to pass through while preventing the passage of other molecules?

Answer: semipermeable

Q5) What is a fat with many unsaturated carbons called?

Answer: polyunsaturated

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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration

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63 Verified Questions

63 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shannon has considered herself an extremely healthy person for most of her life. She is a marathon runner and watches her diet very carefully. She has 8% body fat, weighs 105 pounds, and is 5 foot 10 inches tall. Why might Shannon's health still be of concern?

A) She is overweight for her height.

B) She likely has metabolic problems associated with high blood pressure.

C) She doesn't have enough body fat for menstruation or pregnancy.

D) She doesn't consume enough nutrients for normal bodily functions.

Q2) According to the diagram, how many molecules of oxygen (O ) combine with electrons and hydrogen ions to form one molecule of water (H O) at the end of the electron transport chain?

A) 1/2

B) 1

C) 2

D) none

Q3) Which process creates the most ATP per glucose molecule metabolized?

A) glycolysis

B) fermentation

C) anaerobic respiration

D) aerobic cellular respiration

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the thick fluid found inside chloroplasts?

A) grana

B) stroma

C) chlorophyll

D) thylakoids

Q2) What happens during photorespiration?

A) The Calvin cycle produces twice as much glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).

B) The enzyme rubisco uses oxygen as its substrate for the reaction with ribulose bisphosphate.

C) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) is broken down into glycolate.

D) A second wave of light reactions occurs to replace the Calvin cycle.

Q3) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?

Q4) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur?

Q5) What happens first after chlorophyll absorbs light energy?

A) Water splits into H and O .

B) Hydrogen ions combine with electrons to produce NADPH.

C) Electrons are released and move to a higher energy level.

D) Carbon dioxide is converted to sugar.

Q6) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?

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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19883

Sample Questions

Q1) What type of reproduction includes the binary fission used by single-celled bacteria to produce genetically identical daughter cells?

A) sexual reproduction

B) asexual reproduction

C) fertilization

D) condensation

Q2) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)

Q3) What process occurs when cancer cells detach from tumors and spread to other parts of the body?

A) angiogenesis

B) carcinogenesis

C) metastasis

D) mutagenesis

Q4) What gene encodes a protein that will inhibit cell division?

A) angiogenesis inhibitor

B) growth factor

C) oncogene

D) tumor-suppressor gene

Q5) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)

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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics

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71 Verified Questions

71 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19884

Sample Questions

Q1) What may result if a mutation occurs in a gene?

A) There may be no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.

B) A nonfunctional protein may be created.

C) A protein with a new function will not be formed.

D) The phenotype of the organism may be changed.

Q2) When a recessive allele is associated with a genetic disease in humans, what would heterozygotes be considered?

A) vectors

B) dizygotic

C) carriers

D) qualitative

Q3) If a scientist is studying the heritability of IQ, which people would show the highest correlation between their IQ scores?

A) two unrelated children

B) a child and his mother

C) monozygotic twins

D) dizygotic twins

Q4) What type of trait shows continuous variation, where there is a large range of phenotypes in a population (for example, height or skin color)?

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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and

Dna Profiling

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What information can be inferred about Queen Victoria based on a pedigree of the British royal family?

A) She was the first royal family member with hemophilia.

B) All of her children were born with hemophilia.

C) She was the first royal family member with a mutation in a blood-clotting gene.

D) She inherited a mutation in a blood-clotting allele.

Q2) When comparing the DNA fingerprints of a parent and child, the parent's DNA fingerprint will have which of the following genetic traits?

A) all of the DNA bands that the child has

B) more than half of the DNA bands that the child has

C) DNA bands that match those in the child's fingerprint and that aren't from the other parent

D) DNA bands that are very close to bands found in the child but do not match precisely

Q3) In human ABO blood types, what description applies to the alleles for A and B because they're both expressed?

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10

Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene

Expression, Mutation,

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66 Verified Questions

66 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19886

Sample Questions

Q1) Which structure could be incorporated into a protein?

A) alanine

B) ribonucleic acid

C) thymine

D) uracil

Q2) Which structure is found in the nucleotides of DNA but not in RNA?

A) a sugar

B) a phosphate group

C) deoxyribose

D) a nitrogen-containing base

Q3) Imagine that a mutation in a DNA molecule results in the codon CCU being changed to CCC. Both of these codons code for proline. What characteristic accounts for the fact that more than one codon can code for the same amino acid?

A) the ambiguity of the genetic code

B) the redundancy of the genetic code

C) the universality of the genetic code

D) mutations in the genetic code

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution

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72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of trait includes the tailbone found in humans and other primates without tails?

Q2) Which species is most likely to share the greatest percentage of DNA with humans?

A) blue jay

B) beaver

C) leopard frog

D) dragonfly

Q3) Why is the separate types hypothesis considered so unlikely by most biologists?

A) If different types of life evolved independently, it would be obvious in the fossil record.

B) There are multiple similarities in all life at the cellular level that strongly suggest a common origin for all living things.

C) The separate types model hypothesizes many changes in living things over time, while the fossil record suggests that few of these changes have occurred.

D) The similarity in appearance in many living things suggests that there must have been only one common ancestor.

Q4) What is the main mechanism that results in evolution?

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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of selection is shown in this figure?

A) stabilizing selection

B) directional selection

C) diversifying selection

D) disruptive selection

Q2) True or false: Natural selection is only one of several possible causes of evolution.

A)True

B)False

Q3) You notice in the fall that the oak trees on campus change color at slightly different times, even though the environment is the same for all the trees. What is the most likely explanation?

A) Natural selection is causing some trees to change.

B) There are different alleles of the gene responsible for color change.

C) The weather changes the genes of the oak trees each year.

D) All the trees have the same genes, but each tree makes different proteins from the genes.

Q4) What is the raw material for evolution?

Q5) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?

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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19889

Sample Questions

Q1) In order to support the hypothesis that two groups are different races, how often would unique alleles appear in one of the groups?

A) in one individual in the population

B) in one family line of the population

C) in a significant number of members in the population

D) in all the members on the population

Q2) What sort of fossil data would support the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium?

A) fossils that look alike through many layers of sediment

B) fossils that look very different through many layers of sediment

C) fossils that look alike through layers of sediment, then a layer with many new fossils

D) a few layers of sediment with different fossils between layers of sediment without fossils

Q3) You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. How would these populations compare?

A) They could produce fertile offspring together.

B) One group would be much larger than the other group.

C) Their mating behavior would be quite different.

D) They would have different diets.

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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19890

Sample Questions

Q1) How have classification systems for living things changed over the years?

A) Scientists have always recognized five kingdoms of living things, but the placement of species within those kingdoms has changed.

B) Until the last 20 years, organisms had been classified first as animal or plant. Recently, a five-kingdom system became the preferred classification system.

C) The three-domain system has been introduced within the last 30 years, to supplement the five-kingdom system.

D) The exact organization proposed in the eighteenth century by Carl Linnaeus has recently been reinstituted by scientists.

Q2) What organisms form mats of long, thin chains of cells and are important in decomposition?

Q3) Which statement describes viruses?

A) Viruses are living cells that can invade other organisms.

B) Viruses use energy to perform life functions.

C) Viruses use host cells to make more viruses.

D) Viruses will die unless they are inside an organism.

Q4) What process is performed by both algae and plants?

Q5) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?

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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population

Ecology

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69 Verified Questions

69 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19891

Sample Questions

Q1) What characteristics apply to developed countries?

A) industrial economies and low individual incomes

B) agricultural economies and high individual incomes

C) agricultural economies and low individual incomes

D) industrial economies and high individual incomes

Q2) How does exponential growth appear on a graph?

A) as a straight line

B) as an "S" curve

C) as a "J" curve

D) as a wavy line that goes up and down regularly

Q3) What problem is associated with using NPP to calculate the carrying capacity for humans?

A) It fails to take into account our need for other resources, such as water, clean air, and fuel.

B) NPP isn't important when considering the human population.

C) Humans grow their own food, which isn't a part of the NPP.

D) It overestimates the effects of humans on the ecosystem.

Q4) True or false: A population can be clumped at one scale and uniform at another.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology

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72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What process recycles molecules from inorganic areas to living parts of an ecosystem?

A) commensalism

B) introducing new species

C) nutrient cycling

D) competitive exclusion

Q2) Why is a woman more susceptible to vaginal yeast infections when taking antibiotics?

A) The antibiotic serves as nutrition for the infectious yeast.

B) All vaginal bacteria are killed by the antibiotic and can't competitively exclude the yeast.

C) Her immune system is already not functioning well due to previous infections.

D) Antibiotics are lethal to most types of yeast.

Q3) What topics are the basis of the U.S. Endangered Species Act that mandates decisions about the management of endangered species?

A) political concerns only

B) economic concerns only

C) biological concerns only

D) political, economic, and biological concerns

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes

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72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regions that have ________ levels of solar irradiance have ________ average temperatures.

A) low; varying

B) high; low

C) low; low

D) high; varying

Q2) Which description applies to broadleaf deciduous trees of temperate forests?

A) They drop their leaves as they freeze solid.

B) They reabsorb chlorophyll, resulting in the colorful autumn pigments becoming visible.

C) They grow slower than narrow-leaved trees during summer months.

D) They are the only type of plant life found in this biome.

Q3) Why is the biodiversity of a tropical rainforest very high?

A) due to high temperatures found year-round

B) due to the low amount of solar irradiance

C) due to the high amount of solar irradiance

D) due to the high levels of nutrients in the soil

Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.

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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs

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54 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which organ isn't able to be transplanted from a donor to a recipient?

A) a kidney

B) a heart

C) a liver

D) a brain

Q2) What type of tissues can be transplanted from one person to another to reconstruct damaged joints?

A) cartilage

B) epithelium

C) bone

D) blood

Q3) What organ is stimulated by insulin, released by the pancreas, to convert glucose into glycogen?

A) stomach

B) gallbladder

C) liver

D) brain

Q4) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?

Q5) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?

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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) By which process is the majority of water that's filtered reabsorbed in the nephrons during urine formation?

A) active transport

B) exocytosis

C) osmosis

D) pinocytosis

Q2) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus called?

A) emulsification

B) elimination

C) peristalsis

D) detoxification

Q4) What are the functional units of the kidneys?

Q5) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)

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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19896

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the respiratory surface where gas exchange occurs?

A) trachea

B) bronchioles

C) pharynx

D) alveoli

Q2) Some athletes use "blood doping," adding additional red blood cells to the blood, to achieve a competitive edge. What will the extra red blood cells do in the body?

A) make the heart beat faster

B) increase O delivery to muscles

C) decrease blood pressure

D) change the blood type

Q3) True or false: Of the 170,000 new cases of lung cancer diagnosed in the United States each year, greater than 90% of these patients are current smokers or former smokers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the human cardiovascular system, what's the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit?

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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril

Immune System,

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68 Verified Questions

68 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19897

Sample Questions

Q1) What does the HPV vaccine provide protection against?

A) cervical cancer

B) hepatitis B

C) pertussis

D) tetanus

Q2) An individual contracts Lyme disease. In this case, how did transmission occur?

A) inhalation

B) exposure to infected body fluids

C) an intermediate host

D) ingestion

Q3) Which immune system protects the body from its own cancerous cells?

A) cell-mediated immune system

B) antibody-mediated immune system

C) enzyme immune system

D) inflammatory immune system

Q4) True or false: Infectious diseases differ from genetic diseases in that infectious diseases are usually contagious.

A)True

B)False

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19898

Sample Questions

Q1) If healthy men have a range of body fat from 3 to 29% and healthy women have a range of body fat from 12 to 32%, what would you predict for the sex of an individual having 20% body fat?

A) The individual is male.

B) The individual is female.

C) The individual's sex can't be predicted from body fat percentage.

D) No one has 20% body fat.

Q2) When working out with his wife, Ed has noticed he has to drink much more Gatorade than his wife does following their workouts. What fact could explain this difference in their workout requirements?

A) Females utilize glucose more efficiently than males.

B) Females utilize more fat to produce energy than males.

C) Females effectively increase their glucose metabolism during exercise compared to males.

D) Females store more body sugars than males.

Q3) Which is an important function of the skeletal system?

A) providing support for the body

B) allowing communication between organs

C) excreting waste substances

D) utilizing energy from food

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology

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67 Verified Questions

67 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19899

Sample Questions

Q1) The presence or absence of which hormone(s) is critical in determining the development of either male or female reproductive structures in an embryo?

A) androgens

B) estrogen

C) gonadotropin-releasing hormone

D) progesterone

Q2) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?

Q3) Which method of birth control prevents follicle development?

A) diaphragm

B) birth control pill

C) female condom

D) intrauterine device

Q4) Where does sperm production takes place?

A) seminiferous tubules

B) Leydig cells

C) epididymis

D) vas deferens

Page 24

Q5) What body system allows the survival of different species?

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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain

Structure and Function

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68 Verified Questions

68 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19900

Sample Questions

Q1) Which neurotransmitter is a target for therapeutic treatment in Alzheimer's disease?

A) dopamine

B) serotonin

C) acetylcholine

D) glutamate

Q2) The expression "knee-jerk reaction" refers to someone doing something automatically without thinking. What does this expression mean in biological terms?

A) In the nervous system, this expression implies the involvement of higher brain regions before executing a spinal reflex.

B) In the nervous system, this expression implies the lack of brain input when executing a spinal reflex.

C) This expression implies that the knee-jerk reaction will be shortened in duration following input from higher brain regions.

D) This expression implies that only children exhibit this type of unthinking behavior.

Q3) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?

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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth

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71 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19901

Sample Questions

Q1) For how many years did the human race rely upon hunting and gathering, with no agriculture?

A) 1,500,000 years

B) 1,000,000 years

C) 500,000 years

D) 250,000 years

Q2) What are the tiny, absorptive structures on the root cells near the root tip?

A) taproots

B) rhizomes

C) root hairs

D) root buds

Q3) As shown here, what is a bean/bean pod actually?

A) stem

B) fruit

C) axillary bud

D) petiole

Q4) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?

Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?

Q6) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?

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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology

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66 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which hormone plays an "anti-abscission role" in plants?

A) auxin

B) ethylene

C) gibberellin

D) cytokinin

Q2) Which plant is best adapted to prevent an embolism in their xylem tubes?

A) a banana plant in a very warm climate

B) a spruce tree with narrow, tapering tracheids

C) a maple tree with wide, perforated vessel elements

D) a cattail in a marsh

Q3) Why do florists and horticulturists often cut stems while they're holding a plant underwater?

A) to avoid transpiration

B) to prevent dormancy

C) to disrupt apical dominance

D) to avoid formation of an embolism

Q4) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?

Q5) Photoperiodic plants react to a certain amount of darkness, referred to as ________ (three words).

Page 27

Q6) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?

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