Principles of Biology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts and processes that govern living organisms and biological systems. This course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on understanding the scientific method, core biological principles, and how these concepts relate to current issues and advancements in biology. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain both theoretical knowledge and practical experience, preparing them for further study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the main goal of systems biology?
A)Analyze genomes from different species.
B)Simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
C)Understand the behaviour of entire biological systems.
D)Build high-throughput machines for the rapid acquisition of biological data.
E)Speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge.
Answer: C
Q2) Why is the theme of evolution considered to be the core theme of biology by biologists?
A)It provides a framework within which all biological investigation makes sense.
B)It is recognized as the core theme of biology by organizations such as the National Science Foundation.
C)Controversy about this theory provides a basis for a great deal of experimental research.
D)Since it cannot be proven, biologists will be able to study evolutionary possibilities for many years.
E)Biologists do not subscribe to alternative models.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) In the figure above,how many unpaired electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
A)15
B)2
C)3
D)7
E)5
Answer: C
Q2) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrogen bonding in water is a result of
A)the electronegativity of hydrogen atoms.
B)the electronegativity of oxygen creating partially positive hydrogen atoms.
C)the single electron in hydrogen, allowing for covalent bonds with other molecules.
D)the linear shape of the water molecule.
E)the ionic charge of water.
Answer: B
Q2) How many molecules of glycerol would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution?
A)1 × 10
B)14 × 6.02 × 10²³
C)92 × 6.02 × 10²³
D)6)02 × 10²
E)6)02 × 10²³
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The figure above shows the structures of glucose and fructose.These two molecules differ in the
A)number of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
B)types of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
C)arrangement of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
D)number of oxygen atoms joined to carbon atoms by double covalent bonds.
E)number of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms; the types of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms; and the arrangement of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes cis-trans isomers?
A)They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
B)They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
C)They have the same chemical properties.
D)They have different molecular formulas.
E)Their atoms and bonds are arranged in different sequences.
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?
A)cytosine and guanine
B)guanine and adenine
C)adenine and thymine
D)thymine and uracil
E)uracil and cytosine
Q2) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide,back to its component amino acid?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to A)transmit genetic information to offspring.
B)function in the synthesis of proteins.
C)make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.
D)act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.
E)form the genes of higher organisms.
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that
A)at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope.
B)the nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system.
C)the nuclear envelope is physically separated from the endoplasmic reticulum.
D)small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope.
E)nuclear pore complexes contain proteins.
Q2) What is the function of the structure labelled A?
A)respiration
B)photosynthesis
C)maintain cell pressure
D)contain DNA
E)synthesize lipids
Q3) Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures?
A)microtubules and motor proteins
B)actin filaments and microtubules
C)actin filaments and ribosomes
D)centrioles and motor proteins
E)actin filaments and motor proteins
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?
A)It is a peripheral membrane protein.
B)It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule.
C)It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function.
D)It works against diffusion.
E)It has few, if any, hydrophobic amino acids.
Q2) In which of the following would there be the greatest need for osmoregulation?
A)an animal connective tissue cell bathed in isotonic body fluid
B)cells of a tidepool animal such as an anemone
C)a red blood cell surrounded by plasma
D)a lymphocyte before it has been taken back into lymph fluid
E)a plant being grown hydroponically (in a watery mixture of designated nutrients)
Q3) Which of the following processes includes all others?
A)osmosis
B)diffusion of a solute across a membrane
C)facilitated diffusion
D)passive transport
E)transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?
A)anabolic reactions
B)hydrolysis
C)respiration
D)digestion
E)catabolic reactions
Q2) Protein kinases are enzymes that catalyze phosphorylation of target proteins at specific sites,whereas protein phosphatases catalyze removal of phosphate(s)from phosphorylated proteins.Phosphorylation and dephosphorylation can function as an on-off switch for a protein's activity,most likely through
A)the change in a protein's charge leading to a conformational change.
B)the change in a protein's charge leading to cleavage.
C)a change in the optimal pH at which a reaction will occur.
D)a change in the optimal temperature at which a reaction will occur.
E)the excision of one or more peptides.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) In a mitochondrion,if the matrix ATP concentration is high,and the intermembrane space proton concentration is too low to generate sufficient proton-motive force,then
A)ATP synthase will increase the rate of ATP synthesis.
B)ATP synthase will stop working.
C)ATP synthase will hydrolyze ATP and pump protons into the intermembrane space.
D)ATP synthase will hydrolyze ATP and pump protons into the matrix.
E)ATP synthase will continue to function at a typical rate for that cell type.
Q2) What happens at the end of the chain in the figure above?
A)2 electrons combine with a proton and a molecule of NAD .
B)2 electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and two hydrogen atoms.
C)4 electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and 4 protons.
D)4 electrons combine with four hydrogen and two oxygen atoms.
E)1 electron combines with a molecule of oxygen and a hydrogen atom.
Q3) Why does glucose oxidation occur in a series of steps?
A)One step wouldn't allow the energy released to be harnessed efficiently.
B)It doesn't have to; it just happens to be that way.
C)Glycolysis evolved first and steps were just added over time.
D)Glucose cannot pass into the mitochondria and oxygen cannot enter the cytosol.
E)Glucose is reduced, not oxidized.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria share all but one of the following conditions.
A)Iron-rich cytochrome is used for electron transport.
B)Electrons are passed through carriers that are progressively more electronegative.
C)Protons are pumped across a membrane into a reservoir.
D)An ATP synthase complex is embedded within the membrane.
E)Electrons are donated from organic compounds.
Q2) In any ecosystem,terrestrial or aquatic,what group(s)is (are)always necessary?
A)autotrophs and heterotrophs
B)producers and primary consumers
C)photosynthesizers
D)autotrophs
E)green plants
Q3) According to the endosymbiotic theory,the original chloroplast was a A)chemisynthetic archaea.
B)green algae.
C)purple sulphur bacteria.
D)mitochondria.
E)photosynthetic prokaryote.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following is characterized by hydrophobic molecules passing through the plasma membrane and interacting with cytosolic receptors?
A)hormonal signalling
B)autocrine signalling
C)paracrine signalling
D)endocrine signalling
E)synaptic signalling
Q2) An inhibitor of phosphodiesterase activity would have which of the following effects?
A)block the response of epinephrine
B)decrease the amount of cAMP in the cytoplasm
C)block the activation of G proteins in response to epinephrine binding to its receptor
D)prolong the effect of epinephrine by maintaining elevated cAMP levels in the cytoplasm
E)block the activation of protein kinase A
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls,organelle density,picograms of DNA,cell wall components,and enzymatic activity.Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G ?
A)organelle density and enzymatic activity
B)cell wall components and DNA
C)chlorophyll and cell walls
D)organelle density and cell walls
E)chlorophyll and DNA
Q2) Which of the following eukaryotic proteins appear to have related proteins involved in binary fission?
A)cyclins
B)Cdks
C)MPF
D)actin and tubulin
E)cohesins
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A)by allowing crossing over
B)by allowing fertilization
C)by increasing gene stability
D)by conserving chromosomal gene order
E)by decreasing mutation frequency
Q2) After telophase I of meiosis,the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A)diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B)diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C)haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D)haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E)tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
Q3) The generation-to-generation sequence of stages in an organism's life history is called (its)
A)alternation of generations.
B)pedigree.
C)F2 generation.
D)cell cycle.
E)life cycle.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)8
E)16
Q2) A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene.This and only this allele,if homozygous,produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth.Of the following,which is the best use of this discovery?
A)Screen all newborns of an at-risk population.
B)Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.
C)Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns.
D)Follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis.
E)Test school-age children for the disorder.
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport.Therefore,in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited?
A)the immune system and the blood
B)the excretory and respiratory systems
C)the skin and senses
D)the nervous and muscular systems
E)the circulation system
Q2) In humans,male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms.Allele Hn determines nonbaldness,and allele Hb determines pattern baldness.In males,because of the presence of testosterone,allele Hb is dominant over Hn.If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son,what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
A)0%
B)25%
C)33%
D)50%
E)75%
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) These calculations follow what rule?
A)the rule of diminishing returns
B)Chargaff's rule
C)Mendel's law
D)the 5' - 3' rule
E)the rule of linkage
Q2) The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine,an uncommon base,opposite thymine.What combination of proteins could repair such damage?
A)nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
B)telomerase, primase, DNA polymerase
C)telomerase, helicase, single-strand binding protein
D)DNA ligase, replication fork proteins, adenylyl cyclase
E)nuclease, telomerase, primase
Q3) Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?
A)a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B)production of Okazaki fragments
C)inability to repair thymine dimers
D)a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
E)high sensitivity to sunlight
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) A transcription unit that is 8000 nucleotides long may use 1200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids.This is best explained by the fact that
A)many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B)there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C)many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
D)nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E)there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
Q2) Which of the following types of mutation,resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation,is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A)a deletion of a codon
B)a deletion of two nucleotides
C)a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D)a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
E)an insertion of a codon
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) In eukaryotes,general transcription factors
A)are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B)bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C)inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D)usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E)bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.
Q2) What is chemically different between A and B in the above image?
A)A is acetylated.
B)A is methylated.
C)B is acetylated.
D)B is methylated.
E)A has histones.
Q3) What defines a proto-oncogene?
A)a gene that is destined to cause cancer
B)a gene that, if mutated, could cause cancer
C)a cancer gene that hasn't been expressed yet
D)the evolutionary precursor to tumour suppression genes in modern humans
E)a gene involved in muscle formation
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Based on the above table,which virus meets the Baltimore requirements for a retrovirus?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?
A)RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B)Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading.
C)RNA viruses replicate faster.
D)RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
E)RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.
Q3) H1N1 was declared ________ in June 2009.
A)an epidemic
B)a pandemic
C)cured
D)under control
E)non-life-threatening
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins,such as vaccines.Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?
A)prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients
B)prevention of vaccine-containing plants being consumed by insects
C)use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
D)inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein
E)the need to cook all such plants before consuming them
Q2) For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip),cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumour biopsies.The researchers will be looking for
A)a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples.
B)a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating.
C)a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
D)a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid.
E)a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the same population.
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22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome,what has occurred?
A)pseudogene creation
B)creation of a gene cluster
C)creation of a polyploid
D)creation of a diploid
E)a very large transposition
Q2) Approximately how many bacterial genomes are in the process of being sequenced?
A)10
B)100
C)2 000
D)5 000
E)15 000
Q3) What is metagenomics?
A)genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of its genus
B)the sequence of one or two representative genes from several species
C)the sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage
D)sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same ecosystem
E)genomics as applied to an entire phylum
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) The rise of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)can be considered to be an example of artificial selection because
A)humans purposefully raise MRSA in large fermenters in an attempt to make the bacteria ever-more resistant.
B)S) aureus is cultivated by humans to replenish the soil with nutrients.
C)humans synthesize methicillin and create environments in which bacteria frequently come into contact with methicillin.
D)humans are becoming resistant to bacteria by taking methicillin.
Q2) The role that humans play in artificial selection is to
A)determine who lives and who dies.
B)create the genetic variants, which nature then selects.
C)choose which organisms breed, and which do not.
D)train organisms to breed more successfully.
E)perform artificial insemination.
Q3) What is true of pseudogenes?
A)They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA.
B)They are the same things as introns.
C)They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product.
D)They are vestigial genes.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0)25
B)0)50
C)0)75
Q2) Captive breeding programs have the potential to save species from extinction.Which factor(s)do biologists working with captive cheetahs have to pay particular attention to and why?
A)gene flow, because it is necessary to interbreed the different populations with one another
B)gene flow, because it will lead to stabilizing selection
C)genetic drift, because small populations are very susceptible to loss of genetic variation and fixation of deleterious alleles
D)genetic drift, because it may lead to allele frequencies changing randomly and may lead to an increase in heterozygosity
E)Two of the above statements are correct.
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which of the following statements about species,as defined by the biological species concept,is (are)correct?
I.Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II.Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life.
III.The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful interbreeding is possible.
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals.These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females.What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?
A)habitat isolation
B)temporal isolation
C)behavioural isolation
D)gametic isolation
E)postzygotic barriers
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which event is nearest in time to the end of the period known as snowball Earth?
A)oxygenation of Earth's seas and atmosphere
B)evolution of mitochondria
C)Cambrian explosion
D)evolution of true multicellularity
E)Permian extinction
Q2) If an increase in dicynodont species diversity (in other words,number of species)occurred soon after the Permian extinction,and if it occurred for the same general reason usually given for the increase in mammalian diversity following the Cretaceous extinction,then it should be attributed to
A)an innovation among the dicynodonts that allowed them to fill brand-new niches.
B)the availability of previously occupied niches.
C)the extinction of the dinosaurs (except the birds).
D)their outcompetition of many other terrestrial organisms.
Q3) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A)3)5 million years
B)5)0 million years
C)3)5 billion years
D)5)0 billion years
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Paralogous genes that have lost the function of coding for any functional gene product are known as "pseudogenes." Which of these is a valid prediction regarding the fate of pseudogenes over evolutionary time?
A)They will be preserved by natural selection.
B)They will be highly conserved.
C)They will ultimately regain their original function.
D)They will be transformed into orthologous genes.
E)They will have relatively high mutation rates.
Q2) Which of these can be properly inferred from the phylogeny in the above figure?
A)Chimps and humans evolved from gorillas.
B)The lesser apes are genetically more distinct from each other than the members of the great apes are from each other.
C)Orangutans have existed for about 14 million years.
D)Chimps and humans should share more homoplasies than should chimps and gorillas.
E)Together, the lesser apes and great apes form a clade.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which species should be able to respond most readily to taxes (plural of taxis)?
A)species A
B)species B
C)species C
D)species D
E)species E
Q2) The thermoacidophile Sulfolobus acidocaldarius lacks peptidoglycan,but still possesses a cell wall.What is likely to be true of this species?
1)It is a bacterium.
2)It is an archaean.
3)The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie above pH 7.
4)The optimal pH of its enzymes will lie below pH 7.
5)It could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs.
6)It could inhabit alkaline hot springs.
A)1, 3, and 6
B)2, 4, and 6
C)2, 4, and 5
D)1, 3, and 5
E)1, 4, and 5
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?
1)Plasmodium
2)Trichomonas
3)Paramecium
4)Trypanosoma
5)Entamoeba
A)1 and 2
B)1 and 4
C)2 and 3
D)2 and 4
E)4 and 5
Q2) Apicomplexans
A)are mostly free-living.
B)are photosynthetic.
C)have life cycles with sexual and asexual stages.
D)include Plasmodium, which requires two hosts.
E)C and D
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering that the mature sporophytes of true mosses get their nutrition from the gametophytes on which they grow,and considering these generations as individual plants,what is true of the relationship between true moss sporophytes and gametophytes?
A)Sporophytes are endosymbionts of gametophytes.
B)Sporophytes are mutualists of gametophytes.
C)Sporophytes are commensalists of gametophytes.
D)Sporophytes are parasites of gametophytes.
Q2) Some green algae exhibit alternation of generations.All land plants exhibit alternation of generations.No charophytes exhibit alternation of generations.Keeping in mind the recent evidence from molecular systematics,the correct interpretation of these observations is that
A)charophytes are not related to either green algae or land plants.
B)plants evolved alternation of generations independently of green algae.
C)alternation of generations cannot be beneficial to charophytes.
D)land plants evolved directly from the green algae that perform alternation of generations.
E)scientists have no evidence to indicate whether or not land plants evolved from any kind of alga.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over human history,which process has been most important in improving the features of plants that have long been used by humans as staple foods?
A)genetic engineering
B)artificial selection
C)natural selection
D)sexual selection
E)pesticide and herbicide application
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia.Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colours,and some retained the same darker colour all season.Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?
A)those that changed their colour to a lighter shade
B)those that stayed darker
C)the same numbers of fruit on both
Q3) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
A)ovule
B)ovary
C)fruit
D)stamen
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the importance of a high surface area to volume ratio of mycelia?
A)allows for efficient absorption of nutrients
B)protection from freezing
C)new hyphae are constantly replacing dead hyphae
D)hyphae need to be long to reach different plant roots that are far apart
E)mycelia cannot survive in confined spaces
Q2) The following statements about mycorrizhae are true,with the exception of
A)almost all vascular plants have mycorrhizae.
B)nutrients are transferred between different trees by mycorrhizae.
C)in reforestation, seedlings are innoculated with mycorrhizae to enhance their growth.
D)arbuscular mycorrhizae is parasitic on some species of plants.
Q3) Apart from direct amphibian-to-amphibian contact,what is the most likely means by which the zoospores spread from one free-living amphibian to another?
A)by wind-blown spores
B)by flagella
C)by cilia
D)by pseudopods
E)by hyphae
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolution of animal species has been prolific (the estimates go into the millions and tens of millions).Much of this diversity is a result of the evolution of novel ways to
A)reproduce
B)arrange cells into tissues
C)sense, feed, and move
D)form an embryo and establish a basic body plan
Q2) Which of these is the basal group of the Eumetazoa?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q3) The blastopore denotes the presence of an endoderm-lined cavity in the developing embryo,a cavity that is known as the A)archenteron.
B)blastula.
C)coelom.
D)germ layer.
E)blastocoel.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the graph,during which season(s)of the year is the relationship between the sea slug and its dinoflagellates closest to being commensal?
A)winter
B)spring
C)summer
D)fall
E)spring and fall
Q2) If nudibranch rhinophores are located at the anteriors of these sea slugs,then they contribute to the sea slugs'
A)segmentation.
B)lack of torsion.
C)cephalization.
D)identity as lophotrochozoans.
E)ability to successfully carry out a sessile lifestyle.
Q3) Healthy corals are brightly coloured because they
A)secrete colourful pigments to attract mates.
B)host symbionts with colourful photosynthetic pigments.
C)build their skeletons from colourful minerals.
D)secrete colourful pigments to protect themselves from ultraviolet light.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) The Gd mat on the fur of the bats should be expected to consist of A)hyphae.
B)haustoria.
C)arbuscules.
D)yeasts.
E)basidia.
Q2) In order for the four-chambered hearts of birds and mammals to be homologous,which other organisms would have to have had four-chambered hearts?
A)dinosaurs
B)thecodonts
C)plesiosaurs
D)synapsids
E)stem reptiles
Q3) Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism?
A)fingerprints
B)enhanced depth perception
C)shortened hind limbs
D)opposable big toe
E)repositioning of foramen magnum
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?
A)parenchyma cells
B)collenchyma cells
C)sclerenchyma cells
D)tracheids and vessel elements
E)sieve-tube elements
Q2) What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?
A)primary xylem
B)secondary xylem
C)secondary phloem
D)mesophyll cells
E)vascular cambium
Q3) Which structure is incorrectly paired with its tissue system?
A)root hair-dermal tissue
B)palisade parenchyma-ground tissue
C)guard cell-dermal tissue
D)companion cell-ground tissue
E)tracheid-vascular tissue
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active transport of amino acids in plants at the cellular level requires
A)NADP and channel proteins.
B)xylem membranes and channel proteins.
C)sodium/potassium pumps and xylem membranes.
D)ATP, transport proteins, and a proton gradient.
Q2) Active transport would be least important in the normal functioning of which of the following plant tissue types?
A)leaf transfer cells
B)stem tracheary elements
C)root endodermal cells
D)leaf mesophyll cells
E)root sieve-tube elements
Q3) Which of the following statements is false about bulk flow?
A)It is driven primarily by pressure potential.
B)It is more effective than diffusion over distances greater than 100 m.
C)It depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink.
D)It depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.
E)It may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a primary difference between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae?
A)Endomycorrhizae have thicker, shorter hyphae than ectomycorrhizae.
B)Endomycorrhizae, but not ectomycorrhizae, form a dense sheath over the surface of the root.
C)Ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate root cells, whereas endomycorrhizae grow into invaginations of the root cell membranes.
D)Ectomycorrhizae are found in woody plant species; about 85% of plant families form ectomycorrhizae.
E)There are no significant differences between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae.
Q2) There are several properties that are characteristic of a soil in which typical plants would grow well.Of the following,which would be the least conducive to plant growth?
A)abundant humus
B)numerous soil organisms
C)compacted soil
D)high porosity
E)high cation exchange capacity
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of a mature functional fruit always includes A)one or more seeds.
B)extensive vascular connections to the parent plant.
C)fleshy cells rich in sugars.
D)brightly coloured pigments to attract animal dispersers.
E)subtending bracts to protect against predators.
Q2) The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include
A)increasing the amount of land suitable for agriculture.
B)overcoming genetic incompatibility.
C)increasing the frequency of self-pollination.
D)increasing crop yield.
E)decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes.
Q3) A fruit is
A)a mature ovary.
B)a mature ovule.
C)a seed plus its integuments.
D)a fused carpel.
E)an enlarged embryo sac.
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which plant hormones would likely be found in high amounts in a sprouting vegetative stem?
A)auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins
B)gibberellins, brassinosteroids, cytokinins
C)auxins, abscisic acid, ethylene
D)auxins, phytochrome, brassinosteroids
E)gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid
Q2) The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A)auxins.
B)cytokinins.
C)indole acetic acid.
D)ethylene.
E)carbon dioxide concentration (in air).
Q3) What is the probable role of salicylic acid in the defence responses of plants?
A)to destroy pathogens directly
B)to activate systemic acquired resistance of plants
C)to close stomata, thus preventing the entry of pathogens
D)to activate heat-shock proteins
E)to sacrifice infected tissues by hydrolyzing cells
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A matrix of connective tissue is apparent in
A)chondroitin sulphate of cartilage.
B)actin and myosin of muscle.
C)the axon of a neuron.
D)nervous tissues.
E)spindle-shaped smooth muscle cells.
Q2) Breathing is accomplished via the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of
A)smooth muscle.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)cardiac muscle.
D)smooth muscle and cardiac muscle.
E)smooth muscle and skeletal muscle.
Q3) Coordinating body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by A)the respiratory system.
B)the endocrine system.
C)the immune and lymphatic systems.
D)the integumentary system.
E)the excretory system.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adaptations suited to a carnivorous diet include
A)broad, flat molars.
B)a rumen.
C)ingestion of feces.
D)bile salts.
E)amylase.
Q2) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol,whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes
A)are catalyzed by the same enzyme.
B)are excludible intracellular processes in most organisms.
C)add a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis).
D)require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH.
E)require ATP as an energy source.
Q3) If you place a small piece of a cracker on your tongue,what would you expect to happen?
A)The vitamins in the cracker are immediately absorbed.
B)Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
C)The proteins in the cracker begin to be digested.
D)The flavor becomes less noticeable because the sugars are digested.
E)The fats are quickly emulsified.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions prevails in red blood cells traveling through alveolar capillaries? (Hb = hemoglobin)
A)Hb + 4 O Hb(O )
B)Hb(O ) Hb + 4 O
C)CO + H O H CO
D)H CO H + HCO -
E)Hb + 4 CO Hb(CO )
Q2) Which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels has blood that is the least similar in its gas content?
A)the pulmonary vein and the jugular vein
B)the veins from the right and left legs
C)the pulmonary artery and the vena cava
D)the pulmonary vein and the aorta
E)the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava
Q3) Under identical atmospheric conditions,which of the following is true?
A)Freshwater has more oxygen than seawater
B)Freshwater has less oxygen than seawater
C)Freshwater can hold 10-40 times more carbon dioxide than air
D)Freshwater can hold 10-40 times more oxygen than air
E)Freshwater has higher density but lower viscosity than air.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A)memory cells.
B)macrophages.
C)stem cells.
D)B cells.
E)T cells.
Q2) This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is being fed by actively nursing on its mother and ends when nursing ends.
A)innate immunity
B)active immunity
C)passive immunity
D)cell-mediated immunity
E)adaptive immunity
Q3) The activation of helper T cells is likely
A)when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B)when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
C)when natural killer (NK)cells come in contact with a tumour cell.
D)in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test.
E)when B cells respond to T-independent antigens.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If ATP production in a human kidney were suddenly halted,urine production would A)come to a complete halt.
B)decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma.
C)increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
D)increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma.
E)decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
Q2) African lungfish,which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water,produce urea as a nitrogenous waste.What is the advantage of this adaptation?
A)Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B)Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C)The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D)Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.
E)Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.
Q3) Many marine and freshwater bony fish achieve osmoregulation via A)loss of water through the gills.
B)gain of salt through the gills.
C)loss of water in the urine.
D)no drinking of water.
E)gain of water through food.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in
A)a neuron in the spinal cord.
B)a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex.
C)a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus.
D)a brain cell in the cerebral cortex.
E)a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes.
Q2) Which category of signal exerts its effects on target cells by binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins?
A)neurohormones
B)estrogens
C)androgens
D)vitamin D
E)neurohormones, estrogens, androgens, and vitamin D
Q3) All of the following statements about diabetes mellitus are true except
A)type I is insulin-dependent.
B)type II can be managed with regular exercise and a healthy diet.
C)glucose is present in the urine.
D)insulin can be extracted from genetically engineered fungi.
E)type II is non-insulin-dependent.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone progesterone is produced
A)in the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
B)in the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
C)in the ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
D)in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.
E)in the uterus and acts directly on the ovary.
Q2) Like many other fishes,bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually.However,unlike most fishes,
A)they are simultaneous hermaphrodites.
B)they function without any signalling by steroid hormones.
C)they undergo a prolonged diapause during low tide.
D)their offspring can be either haploid or diploid.
E)large females morph into reproductively competent males.
Q3) The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH is
A)luteinizing hormone (LH).
B)estradiol.
C)progesterone.
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
E)gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open space within the gastrula is the A)ectoderm.
B)mesoderm.
C)archenteron.
D)endoderm.
E)neural crest cells.
Q2) In frog embryos,the blastopore becomes the A)anus.
B)ears.
C)eyes.
D)nose.
E)mouth.
Q3) The migratory neural crest cells
A)form most of the central nervous system.
B)serve as precursor cells for the notochord.
C)form the spinal cord in the frog.
D)form neural and non-neural structures in the periphery.
E)form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract.
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49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential,the first of these events that occurs is
A)the activation of the sodium-potassium "pump."
B)the inhibition of the sodium-potassium "pump."
C)the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D)the closing of voltage-gated potassium channels.
E)the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.
Q2) The major excitatory neurotransmitter of the human brain is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)glutamate.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q3) What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes?
A)There is a net diffusion of Na out of the cell.
B)The equilibrium potential for K (EK)becomes more positive.
C)The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive.
D)The neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.
E)The cell's inside is more negative than the outside.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic,or opposing,actions are
A)motor and sensory systems.
B)sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
C)presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.
D)forebrain and hindbrain.
E)central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
Q2) Which brain region would be involved in information retention if you were to take a nap after studying?
A)diencephalon
B)cerebrum
C)midbrain
D)cerebellum
E)medulla oblongata
Q3) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the A)thalamus.
B)hypothalamus.
C)epithalamus.
D)amygdala.
E)Broca's area.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A skeletal muscle with abnormally low levels of calcium ions would be impaired in A)ATP hydrolysis.
B)the initiation of an action potential.
C)maintaining its resting membrane potential.
D)initiating contraction.
E)its ability to sustain glycolysis.
Q2) Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction of
A)gustatory stimuli.
B)olfactory stimuli.
C)visual stimuli.
D)auditory stimuli.
E)stimuli related to the position of the head.
Q3) The olfactory bulbs are located
A)in the nasal cavity.
B)in the anterior pituitary gland.
C)in the posterior pituitary gland.
D)in the brain.
E)in the brainstem.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the fitness benefit of polygamy in birds that rear precocious young?
A)Females will copulate with many males to ensure that all of their eggs are fertilized.
B)Females don't have to decide on one mate, and can copulate with as many males as each female deems worthy to share her genes with in reproduction.
C)Fit males don't have to help feed and rear young and can spend this time seeking and mating with many females.
D)Females don't have to spend time rearing young and can mate and rear additional broods during a breeding season.
E)Both males and females spend little time with courtship and brood-rearing, and don't tax their own physiology so they can breed again in subsequent breeding seasons.
Q2) Feeding behaviour with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called
A)herbivory.
B)autotrophy.
C)heterotrophy.
D)search scavenging.
E)optimal foraging.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which climograph shows the climate for location 3?
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)E
E)F
Q2) In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods?
A)tropical forest
B)coral reef
C)savanna
D)temperate forest
E)abyssal
Q3) What is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra?
A)low precipitation
B)cold temperatures
C)insufficient minerals in bedrock
D)pH of soils
E)permafrost
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following life history traits is incorrectly matched?
A)r selection-density dependent selection
B)semelparity-a one-shot, large reproductive effort
C)iteroparity-relatively few but large offspring are produced at each reproduction
D)semelparity-recorded in Pacific salmon
E)life history traits-are trade-offs between conflicting demands
Q2) Uniform spacing patterns in birds,such as albatrosses,are often associated with
A)patterns of rock outcrops.
B)antagonistic social interactions between individuals of the population.
C)the uniform distribution of nesting material.
D)the concentration of prey within the population's range.
Q3) Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the 20th century?
A)famine
B)non-HIV disease
C)HIV
D)genocide
E)clean water
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?
A)Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
B)The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
C)Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
D)Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well-adapted of two competing species.
E)Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.
Q2) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about
A)character displacement in the colour of barnacles.
B)habitat preference in two different species of barnacles.
C)desiccation resistance and barnacle species.
D)how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution.
E)competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following locations is the reservoir for carbon for the carbon cycle?
A)atmosphere
B)sediments and sedimentary rocks
C)fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)
D)plant and animal biomass
E)all of the above
Q2) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem.Which species is most likely a decomposer on this food web?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle,which number represents nitrifying bacteria?
A)5
B)6
C)7
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) This causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds.
A)depletion of ozone layer
B)acid precipitation
C)biological magnification
D)greenhouse effect
E)eutrophication
Q2) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that
A)its habitat is fragmented.
B)it is a rare, top-level predator.
C)its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.
D)its genetic diversity is very low.
E)it is not well adapted to edge conditions.
Q3) Although extinction is a natural process,current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because
A)more animals than ever before are going extinct.
B)most current extinctions are caused by introduced species.
C)the rate of extinction is unusually high.
D)current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity.
E)None of the options are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58