Principles of Anatomy and Physiology Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body, providing students with a foundational understanding of how anatomical components and physiological processes interact to maintain health and life. The course covers major body systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems emphasizing their roles, interconnections, and regulatory mechanisms. Students will investigate the relationship between form and function at molecular, cellular, and systemic levels, integrating concepts such as homeostasis, feedback mechanisms, and adaptation. This course equips learners with essential knowledge for advanced studies in health, medicine, and biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which abdominopelvic quadrant and region is the stomach predominantly found? (Figure 1-4)
A) right upper quadrant and epigastric region
B) left lower quadrant and umbilical region
C) left upper quadrant and epigastric region
D) right lower quadrant and umbilical region
E) left lower quadrant and hypochondriac region
Answer: C
Q2) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney.
B) lung.
C) heart.
D) spleen.
E) leg.
Answer: C
Q3) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance?
Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids that are produced by nearly every tissue in the body and act as local regulators are the
A) prostaglandins.
B) steroids.
C) monoglycerides.
D) phospholipids.
E) glycolipids.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group?
A) -COOH
B) -PO3
C) -NH2
D) -AMO
E) -OH
Answer: C
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase
A) are stem cells.
B) do not exhibit cytokinesis.
C) have brief life spans.
D) are reproductive cells.
E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer: A
Q2) Which structure organizes the mitotic spindle during cell division?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: B
Q3) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity).
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the A) lamina densa.
B) basal lamina.
C) areolar lamina.
D) lamina propria.
E) mucina lamina.
Q2) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction.
A) Bindins
B) Adhesions
C) Connexins
D) Attachons
E) Tieons
Q3) The four types of tissue membrane consist of an epithelium supported by connective tissue. What do the qualities of each of these two tissues contribute to the function of the membrane? Use one type of tissue membrane as an example.
Q4) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
Q5) Abiology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a slide ofanintestine, the other of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How would you decide which slide is which?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two components of the integumentary system are the
A) epidermis and dermis.
B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
D) integument and hypodermis.
E) epidermis and superficial fascia.
Q2) The sensory cells associated with the deep layers of the epidermis are
A) Pacinian corpuscles.
B) Merkel cells.
C) melanocytes.
D) Meissner's corpuscles.
E) keratinocytes.
Q3) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce A) melanin.
B) keratin.
C) carotene.
D) perspiration.
E) eleidin.
Q4) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Q5) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Achamber within a bone normally filled with air is a A) foramen.
B) sinus.
C) fossa.
D) canal.
E) meatus.
Q2) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called A) osteocytes.
B) osteoprogenitor cells.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteoclasts.
E) osteoid cells.
Q3) Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Q4) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitaminD3deficiency? Explain.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
Q2) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) palatine process.
D) coronoid process.
E) zygomatic process.
Q3) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) palatine process.
D) coronoid process.
E) zygomatic process.
Q4) The clavicles articulate with which portion of the sternum?
A) manubrium
B) body
C) xiphoid process
D) sternal angle
E) jugular notch
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hand has ________ bones in the wrist and ________ bones in the palm.
A) 5; 5
B) 10; 5
C) 8; 4
D) 8; 5
E) 4; 5
Q2) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the
A) anterior iliac spine.
B) acetabulum.
C) posterior superior iliac spine.
D) iliac crest.
E) iliac notch.
Q3) Which of the following surface features is found on the radius?
A) olecranon
B) coronoid process
C) trochlear notch
D) radial notch
E) ulnar notch
Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure at label "1."
A) meniscus
B) bursa
C) articular cartilage
D) synovial membrane
E) joint cavity
Q2) Identify the type of joint at label "1."
A) hinge
B) condylar
C) gliding
D) saddle
E) pivot
Q3) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm.
B) extension of the forearm.
C) abduction of the forearm.
D) adduction of the forearm.
E) rotation of the shoulder.
Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q5) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of sarcomere where thin and thick filaments are located is called the A) I band.
B) A band.
C) Z line.
D) M line.
E) zone of overlap.
Q2) Many visceral smooth muscle cells lack motor neuron innervation. How are their contractions coordinated andcontrolled?
Q3) The terminal cisternae that form a triad along with a T tubule are part of what organelle? (Figure 10-3)
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) myofibril
E) sarcolemma
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Q5) Which skeletal muscle fiber type-slow or fast-contains more mitochondria? (Figure 10-21)
A) slow
B) fast
12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the muscle labeled "17."
A) anconeus
B) extensor carpi ulnaris
C) extensor digitorum
D) pronator teres
E) brachioradialis
Q2) The iliac crest is the origin of the
A) quadratus lumborum.
B) iliocostalis cervicis.
C) longissimus cervicis.
D) semispinalis capitis.
E) splenius.
Q3) Identify the muscle labeled "1."
A) trapezius
B) deltoid
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) temporalis
E) pectoralis major
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson's-like symptoms?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins
Q2) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Q3) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of life. How canthis developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and toddlers?
Q4) Rabies is caused by a virus that attacks the central nervous system. The virus is normally introduced byananimal bite that breaks the surface of the skin. Since the virus is not motile, how does it travel to the central nervous system?
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the A) central canal.
B) posterior gray horns.
C) gray commissures.
D) white columns.
E) anterior gray horns.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) spinal nerve
B) gray ramus
C) white ramus
D) posterior ramus
E) anterior ramus
Q3) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body.Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed?
A) the anterior gray horns
B) the anterior gray commissures
C) ascending tracts
D) descending tracts
E) the anterior white commissures
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus produces which two hormones?
A) ADH and epinephrine
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) ADH and oxytocin
D) growth hormone and melatonin
E) oxytocin and melatonin
Q2) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the A) subarachnoid space.
B) superior sagittal sinus.
C) carotid canal.
D) inferior sagittal sinus.
E) jugular foramen.
Q3) The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum.
B) diencephalon.
C) cerebellum.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) corpus callosum.
Q4) Apatient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a
A) tactile (Merkel) disc.
B) root hair plexus.
C) free nerve ending.
D) Bulbous corpuscle.
E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
Q2) ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.
A) Chemoreceptors
B) Nociceptors
C) Baroreceptors
D) Proprioceptors
E) Hair cells
Q3) Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors.
A) phasic
B) tonic
C) intracellular
D) chemical-channel
E) opioid
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include all of the following except
A) reduction in brain size and weight.
B) decrease in the number of neurons.
C) decreased blood flow to the brain.
D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain.
E) increased memory storage.
Q2) Explain what dual innervation means with regard to the autonomic nervous system. Using the cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive systems as examples, explain how dual innervation regulates the function of each system.
Q3) Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation?
A) occipital lobe
B) basal nuclei
C) hippocampus
D) insula
E) prefrontal lobe
Q4) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensationsarecalled
A) gustatory hairs.
B) chemically-gated ion channels.
C) voltage-regulated ion channels.
D) G proteins.
E) papillae.
Q2) Which of the following is not true about the resting state of rods?
A) It is during darkness.
B) Retinal is in 11-cis form.
C) Gated sodium channels are open.
D) Bleaching occurs.
E) Membrane potential is around -40mV.
Q3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to
A) contact a basal cell.
B) bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites.
C) open ion channels.
D) respond to applied pressure.
E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones.
A) inhibition
B) synthesis
C) release
D) inhibition and secretion
E) synthesis and release
Q2) All of the following are known effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues except
A) increased oxygen consumption.
B) increased heart rate.
C) increased sensitivity to autonomic stimulation.
D) increased body temperature.
E) decreased cellular metabolism.
Q3) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) tropic hormones.
B) androgens.
C) somatotropins.
D) immunogens.
E) gonadotropins.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mature cell has no nucleus, no mitochondria and no ribosomes?
A) erythrocyte
B) leukocyte
C) platelet
D) thrombocyte
E) neutrophil
Q2) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.
B) viscosity about the same as water.
C) pH of 7.4.
D) built-in system for clotting.
E) red color from hemoglobin.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?
A) RBCs
B) platelets
C) antibodies
D) lymphocytes
E) basophils
Q4) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is considered a "normal" cardiac output when resting? Please provide units. (Figure 20-24)
A) 1-2 L/min
B) 2-5 L/min
C) 5-7.5 L/min
D) 10-12.5 L/min
E) 20-25 L/min
Q2) The ________ is a remnant of an important fetal blood vessel that once linked the pulmonary and systemiccircuits.
A) fossa ovalis
B) ductus arteriosus
C) foramen ovale
D) ductus venosus
E) ligamentum arteriosum
Q3) What occurs at the circle labeled "5" on the graph?
A) peak systolic pressure
B) isovolumetric systole
C) isovolumetric contraction
D) ventricular refilling
E) increased heart rate
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following, except
A) hypertension.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) varicose veins.
E) arteriosclerosis.
Q2) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the A) length of a blood vessel.
B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids.
C) turbulence.
D) blood viscosity.
E) blood vessel diameter.
Q3) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________ artery.
A) axillary
B) subclavian
C) brachial
D) acromial
E) brachiocephalic
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Q1) What feature do lymphatic vessels share with veins that allows lymph to flow in only one direction? (Figure22-3)
A) incomplete basement membrane
B) blunt end tubes
C) thick muscular walls
D) valves
E) endothelial cell inner lining
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?
A) secrete strong acid
B) secrete organic solvent
C) secrete free radicals
D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis
E) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA
Q3) Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways except by
A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release.
B) depressing the inflammatory response.
C) reducing the number of phagocytes.
D) inhibiting interleukin secretion.
E) increasing the level of cortisol.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) primary muscle of expiration
E) an accessory muscle for both expiration and inspiration
Q2) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.
A) MRSA
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Parkinson's disease
Q3) The most common unit of measurement for measuring pulmonary pressures is A) mm Hg.
B) torr.
C) cm H2O.
D) psi.
E) centigrade.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 32
E) 34
Q2) Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger.
A) Gastrin
B) Pepsin
C) Ghrelin
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
Q3) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called
A) peritoneal sheets.
B) mesenteries.
C) ascites.
D) the diaphragm.
E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums.
Q4) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats).
Q5) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Q1) The major anion in body fluids is A) chloride.
B) bicarbonate.
C) sulfate.
D) iodide.
E) phosphate.
Q2) The vitamin that prevents breakdown of vitamin A and fatty acids is vitamin
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q3) All of the following are true of beta-oxidation except that A) it occurs in the mitochondria.
B) fatty acids break down into two-carbon fragments.
C) lipids are converted into glycogen molecules.
D) it requires coenzyme A, NAD, and FAD.
E) it yields large amounts of ATP.
Q4) Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The renal sinus is
A) the innermost layer of kidney tissue.
B) part of a renal pyramid.
C) an internal cavity lined by the fibrous capsule.
D) a large branch of the renal pelvis.
E) a renal corpuscle.
Q2) The excretory functions of the urinary system are performed by the A) urethra.
B) ureters.
C) glomerulus.
D) urinary bladder.
E) kidneys.
Q3) Which of the following activities is not related to kidney function?
A) control of hydrogen ion and pH in the blood
B) control of wastes in the blood
C) lipid digestion
D) regulation of blood pressure
E) maintenance of various blood ion concentrations
Q4) What is the creatinine clearance test? How can it be used to estimate GFR? How accurate is it?
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The typical value of water losses and gains each day is
A) 500 mL.
B) 1000 mL.
C) 1500 mL.
D) 2000 mL.
E) 2500 mL.
Q2) Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone
A) calcitonin.
B) parathyroid hormone.
C) aldosterone.
D) cortisol.
E) ADH.
Q3) In response to respiratory alkalosis, the A) respiratory rate increases.
B) tidal volume increases.
C) kidneys conserve bicarbonate.
D) kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions.
E) kidneys retain more hydrogen ions.
Q4) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have?
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Q1) A typical ejaculation releases approximately ________ sperm.
A) 1 million
B) 250 million
C) 100,000
D) 20 million
E) 800 million
Q2) Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum?
A) ampulla
B) anterior segment
C) infundibulum
D) posterior segment
E) isthmus
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) prostatic urethra
B) ejaculatory duct
C) ductus deferens
D) vas deferens
E) membranous urethra
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
Q5) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) In ________, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed and the fetal cells it contains are analyzed.
A) chorionic villus sampling
B) amniocentesis
C) paracentesis
D) amniosis
E) thoracentesis
Q2) The processes that occur in the pre-embryonic period are
A) cleavage and implantation.
B) cleavage and placentation.
C) implantation and placentation.
D) implantation and embryogenesis.
E) placentation and embryogenesis.
Q3) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
Q4) The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third
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