Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology introduces foundational concepts in human anatomy and physiology tailored for students entering nursing programs. The course covers essential topics such as the structure and function of major body systems, cellular processes, tissues, and organ systems including the cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding normal physiological mechanisms and their relevance to clinical practice. This course prepares students for the rigorous study of health sciences by building a strong base in anatomical terminology, basic physiological principles, and the relationship between form and function within the human body.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temperature is a form of energy, whereas heat is a measurement of the intensity of the temperature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Dissection of human bodies became part of formal medical school coursework in the ______ century. or
Answer: twentieth 20th
Q3) Aging begins in the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Which of the following illustrates a positive feedback mechanism?
A) Maintaining blood pressure
B) Uterine contractions during childbirth
C) Body temperature control
D) Control of blood sugar
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acids are composed of building blocks called amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is(are) ionizing radiation?
A) Cosmic radiation only
B) Gamma radiation only
C) Both cosmic radiation and gamma radiation
D) Neither cosmic nor gamma radiation
Answer: C
Q3) The formula H<sub>2</sub>O refers to
A) Two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen molecule.
B) One hydrogen molecule and two oxygen molecules.
C) A molecule that contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
D) A molecule that contains one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
Answer: C
Q4) The symbol Na<sup>+</sup> represents a sodium atom that has lost an electron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) All cell types can divide a limitless number of times.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) Certain white blood cells take in bacterial cells by phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Energy is stored in ATP molecules in ribosomes.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) Krabbe disease results from an abnormality that affects the _______ of nerve cells in the brain.
Answer: lysosomes
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason protein synthesis is important is that
A) enzymes are proteins and enzymes are essential to metabolism.
B) proteins release energy for metabolic reactions.
C) proteins encode DNA sequences.
D) the diet does not provide the building blocks of protein.
Q2) A cofactor is ______ and examples are _____.
A) an inorganic molecule that all enzymes require; cholesterol and calcium
B) an inorganic molecule that some enzymes require; vitamin B<sub>12</sub> and B<sub>6</sub>
C) a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc
D) a molecule that destabilizes substrates; carbonic acid
Q3) A DNA sequence AACGGTGCACCACGG encodes a portion of a protein of sequence
A) ile-gly-ala-pro-arg.
B) leu-pro-arg-gly-ala.
C) ala-gly-arg-pro-leu.
D) arg-pro-ala-gly-ile.
Q4) The correspondence between a unit of DNA information and an amino acid is the genetic ______.
Q5) Building up large molecules is called _______.
Q6) A sequence of DNA is CTGATGTCTA. Its complements is ____________.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is
A) stratified squamous epithelium.
B) simple squamous epithelium.
C) simple cuboidal epithelium.
D) simple columnar epithelium.
Q2) Extracellular matrix consists of
A) ground substance and protein fibers.
B) fixed cells and wandering cells.
C) heparin and keratin.
D) lacunae and lamellae.
Q3) Neurons can send messages to
A) only other neurons.
B) only other neurons and neuroglia.
C) other neurons, glands, and muscles.
D) other neurons and skeletal muscle only.
Q4) Intercellular junctions include gap junctions, tight junctions, and desmosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The tissue that covers all body surfaces is _____.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arrector pili muscle is composed of striated muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nail plate is produced by
A) bone cells.
B) fibroblasts.
C) melanocytes.
D) specialized epithelial cells.
Q3) After a severe burn, new skin may grow outwards from the hair follicles. New growth begins here because
A) the hair follicles are very resistant to fire and heat.
B) a person has many hair follicles.
C) a hair follicle contains stem cells in the bulb region.
D) the hair follicles are located in the subcutaneous layer.
Q4) Which person is at highest risk of developing a cutaneous carcinoma?
A) A light-complexioned man age 52 who goes to the beach on summer weekends and does not use sunblock because he likes to be tan
B) An eighty-year-old who spends most of her time indoors
C) A twenty-two-year-old college student who is outdoors often and uses sunblock
D) A black woman who spends most of her time in her office
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "bone" can refer to
A) a tissue, an organ, or a type of cell.
B) a tissue or an organ only.
C) a tissue only
D) an organ only.
Q2) Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Articular cartilage is
A) fibrocartilage.
B) found only in the knees and elbows.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) hyaline cartilage.
Q4) The axial skeleton includes
A) the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B) the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C) the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D) the femur, tibia, and fibula.
Q5) The bones of the wrist collectively form the ______.
Q6) The xiphoid process is part of the ______.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saddle joint forms between bones whose articulating surfaces have both convex and concave regions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The elbow joint includes a hinge joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Activity and exercise
A) make joints more vulnerable to injury.
B) hasten osteoarthritis.
C) keep joints functional longer.
D) increase joint stiffness.
Q4) Fluid-filled sacs containing synovial fluid are called A) bursae.
B) menisci.
C) ligaments.
D) tendons.
Q5) Arthritis is a circulatory problem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bones and muscles function as mechanical devices called A) lifts.
B) levers.
C) syncytia.
D) ladders.
Q2) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ______.
Q3) The muscle that causes an action is the A) synergist.
B) antagonist.
C) agonist.
D) mediator.
Q4) Tawanda finishes a sprint and suffers great pain in her calf muscles. Her muscle cramps are most likely due to a temporary deficit of A) actin.
B) myosin.
C) ATP.
D) ADP.
Q5) Muscles that assist an agonist are called ______.
Q6) The ______ ______ at the ends of cardiac muscle cells help to join cells.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the absolute refractory period, a stimulus of high intensity may trigger a nerve impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Saltatory conduction
A) occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous.
B) occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking.
C) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber.
D) is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber.
Q3) _________ support the axon from within.
A) Dendrites.
B) Nodes of Ranvier.
C) Neurofibrils.
D) Collaterals.
Q4) A reason that the axons in the CNS and PNS differ in their ability to regenerate after injury is that
A) axons of the CNS lack myelin.
B) axons of the CNS lack neurilemmae.
C) peripheral nerves lack Schwann cells.
D) peripheral nerves lack endoneurium.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Division of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the cerebral association areas is
A) to analyze sensory experiences.
B) reasoning and judgment.
C) to interpret sensations.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced difficulty speaking coherently, clumsiness, muscle fasciculations, and increasing weakness in his limbs. These symptoms are most consistent with those of
A) Parkinson disease.
B) Hodgkin's disease.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q3) Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?
A) Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector
B) Effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron
C) Effector, sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron
D) Receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
Q4) The gray commissure of the spinal cord surrounds the central canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stereoscopic vision results when the A) images in both eyes are identical.
B) images in the eyes are different.
C) rods of one eye are stimulated and the cones of the other eye are stimulated.
D) brain interprets the images in two dimensions.
Q2) Tears contain an enzyme that reduces the risk of eye infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lorelei thinks of the days of the week and months of the year as particular colors. She has
A) synesthesia.
B) neuropathy.
C) a deficiency of neurons in her visual cortex.
D) too few synapses in her hypothalamus.
Q4) The ability to ignore your socks around your ankles demonstrates A) general adaptation.
B) receptor integration.
C) interpretive assimilation.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q5) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ____________ .
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maxwell has a very high metabolic rate, is skinny, and has protruding eyes. These are symptoms of
A) hypothyroidism.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypoparathyroidism.
D) hyperparathyroidism.
Q2) Cortisol
A) increases the permeability of capillary walls.
B) increases the permeability of lysosomal membranes.
C) stimulates the production of glucose from noncarbohydrates.
D) promotes the storage of amino acids in the form of proteins.
Q3) The ______ gland is located deep between the cerebral hemispheres attached to the roof of the third ventricle.
Q4) Nonsteroid hormones include peptides, proteins, glycoproteins, and amines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Paracrine substances called ______ have powerful, regulating effects on cellular responses to hormones.
Q6) The central region of the adrenal gland is the adrenal ______.
Q7) _______ secretions affect the cell that secretes them.
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heme released from hemoglobin in aged red blood cells is decomposed in the liver into
A) iron and the bile pigment biliverdin, which is eventually converted to bilirubin.
B) iron and the bile pigment bilirubin, which is eventually converted to biliverdin.
C) iron and interleukins.
D) serum and plasma proteins.
Q2) Two substances that are useful for dissolving blood clots are
A) thrombus and embolus.
B) urokinase and streptokinase.
C) factor IV and factor XII.
D) calcium ions and prothrombin activator.
Q3) Marianne has small, bruise-like spots on her skin and a low platelet count. These blemishes are most likely
A) pinpricks.
B) blood blisters.
C) petechiae.
D) hematomas.
Q4) An abnormally low white blood cell count is called ____________ .
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The great saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person warming up after being cold feels a warm rush as blood flows quickly to the peripheral appendages. Nitric oxide is important in this situation because it
A) raises blood pressure.
B) raises blood temperature.
C) relaxes the smooth muscle in the blood vessel wall.
D) enhances gas exchange.
Q3) The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A) Purkinje fibers.
B) AV bundle.
C) sinoatrial node.
D) atrioventricular node.
Q4) The systemic circuit
A) sends oxygen-poor blood to the heart.
B) brings oxygen-rich blood from the tissues.
C) brings oxygen-poor blood from the lungs.
D) sends oxygen-rich blood to the tissues.
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is part of the adaptive immune response?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Inflammation
C) Production of antibodies
D) Synthesis of defensins
Q2) Newborns can acquire __________ immunity through breast milk.
A) specific
B) passive
C) active
D) innate
Q3) Interferon is a group of hormonelike peptides that cells produce in response to A) chemical irritants.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) fungi.
Q4) During the primary immune response, B lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A substance that can stimulate a primary immune response but is unable to produce the symptoms of a disease is a(n) ______.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by means of A) sexual activity.
B) hypodermic needles.
C) saliva.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Gallstones may form if
A) bile is too concentrated.
B) hepatic cells secrete too much HCl.
C) the pH of the gallbladder becomes too alkaline.
D) the liver is lacerated.
Q3) The passageway through the digestive tube is called the _____.
Q4) Feces contain
A) electrolytes.
B) undigested food.
C) bacteria.
D) all of the above.
Q5) Large, fixed phagocytes in the lining of the hepatic sinusoids are _______ cells.
Q6) ______ ions help to regulate the pH of saliva.
Q7) Bile salts aid the absorption of _________ vitamins.
19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamins directly provide energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malnutrition due to diet alone is called secondary malnutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The B vitamins are
A) essential for normal cellular metabolism.
B) involved in the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.
C) grouped because they are in the same foods.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following minerals is important in synthesizing and using ATP?
A) Zinc
B) Chlorine
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
Q5) Fat-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, are very sensitive to the effects of heat, and are easily destroyed by cooking or food processing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume of air that enters the lungs during forced maximal inspiration is the
A) inspiratory reserve volume.
B) expiratory reserve volume.
C) vital capacity.
D) tidal volume.
Q2) The events of respiration are
A) inhaling and exhaling.
B) ventilation, external and internal respiration, and cellular respiration.
C) inflating and deflating alveoli.
D) delivering carbon dioxide to cells and removing oxygen from cells.
Q3) Carbon dioxide is sometimes added to the air that a patient breathes in order to
A) increase the rate and decrease the depth of breathing.
B) increase the rate and depth of breathing.
C) decrease the rate and increase the depth of breathing.
D) decrease the rate and depth of breathing.
Q4) Cellular respiration enables cells to harness the energy from oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cells of an alveolus that secrete surfactant are type __.
Q6) The bronchus and blood vessels enter a lung through the _______.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water channels in cell membranes formed by __________ are a result of ADH signaling in the kidneys.
A) podocytes
B) cytopores
C) aquaporins
D) pyrogens
Q2) The new parents are stunned at the state of their newborn's soiled diaper - it is blue! What might be the cause of the odd diaper stain?
A) ADH deficiency
B) A defect in transport of the amino acid tryptophan in the small intestine
C) A buildup of uric acid in the blood
D)E. coli poisoning
Q3) Uric acid results from the metabolism of _____ _____.
Q4) Autoregulation refers to
A) maintaining constant GFR.
B) secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide at a constant rate.
C) secretion of renin at a constant rate.
D) actions of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q5) The triangular area on the internal floor of the urinary bladder is the ____.
Q6) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called _____ _____.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Based Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus, in which fatty acids react to produce ketone bodies, leads to A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) Acid-base buffers are the first line of defense against shifts in pH because A) they occur closest to the skin.
B) they are slow and prolonged.
C) they occur in everyone.
D) they are fast.
Q3) The technical term for water intoxication is A) hypoglycemia.
B) hypocalcemia.
C) hyponatremia.
D) hypoxia.
Q4) A person in a moderate environment would lose the greatest volume of water in A) sweat.
B) mucus.
C) feces.
D) urine.
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the A) fundus.
B) cervix.
C) perimetrium.
D) endometrium.
Q2) The last fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the A) testes.
B) bulbourethral gland.
C) prostate gland.
D) seminal vesicles.
Q3) In the reproductive cycle, estrogen _____, whereas progesterone _____.
A) stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular
B) ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion
C) stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular
D) inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Embryonic stem cells are derived from the
A) outer cell mass of the morula.
B) inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
C) middle layer of the zygote.
D) trophoblast.
Q2) The process of growing old is called _____.
Q3) The hormone oxytocin aids the birth process by stimulating
A) fetal muscular movements.
B) uterine wall contractions.
C) an increase in progesterone secretion.
D) an increase in estrogen secretion.
Q4) The yolk sac
A) forms blood cells in early development.
B) provides nutrients to the fetus when the umbilical cord is disconnected.
C) stores metabolic wastes until the fetus is born.
D) gives rise to the primary germ layers.
Q5) The structure that surrounds the cell membrane of the secondary oocyte is the ___
Q6) The slender projections that grow out from the trophoblast into the uterine wall are called _____ _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "exome" refers to
A) the parts of the genome that determine sex.
B) the protein-encoding parts of the genome.
C) the parts of the genome that lie exteriorly along the chromosomes.
D) the set of RNAs made in a particular cell type under specific conditions.
Q2) Genes have multiple alleles that differ in DNA sequence because a gene consists of many nucleotides, each of which can be any of four types.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identical alleles are said to be
A) homozygous.
B) heterozygous.
C) recessive.
D) dominant.
Q4) A karyotype is
A) a diagram that represents family relationships.
B) a size-ordered chart of chromosomes.
C) a genome sequence.
D) a website that lists genes and the proteins they encode.
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