Pre-Medical Studies
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Studies is an interdisciplinary program designed to provide students with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary for admission to medical school and related healthcare professions. The course integrates core subjects such as biology, chemistry, physics, and mathematics, while also emphasizing critical thinking, problem-solving, and ethical reasoning as applied to medical practice. Students gain a thorough understanding of human anatomy, physiology, genetics, and microbiology, alongside an introduction to healthcare systems, medical terminology, and patient care. Additionally, the program often includes opportunities for laboratory work, research, and clinical experience, preparing students for the academic rigor and practical demands of medical education.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by David Shier
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24 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maintenance of a steady body temperature in the face of fluctuating environmental conditions illustrates homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Kidneys are part of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Macromolecules are built of atoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the A) visceral pleura.
B) parietal pleura.
C) visceral pericardium.
D) parietal pericardium.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of subatomic particle that does not have an electrical charge is a(n)
Answer: neutron
Q2) Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of
A) cations.
B) uncharged particles.
C) anions.
D) salts.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following groups of compounds is hydrophobic?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Lipids
C) Proteins
D) Nucleic Acids
Answer: B
Q4) The opposite of a decomposition reaction is a _____ reaction.
Answer: synthesis
Q5) Two or more atoms bonding form a ________.
Answer: molecule
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,
A) the cell will shrink.
B) only permeable substances will leave; but concentrations in the cell do not change.
C) the cell will remain the same size and shape.
D) the cell will swell and may eventually burst.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following does not influence the rate of diffusion?
A) Distance
B) The concentration of the substance
C) The amount of energy available for transport molecules
D) The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules
Answer: C
Q3) The two types of genes that, when abnormal, cause cancer are A) kinases and cyclins.
B) oncosuppressors and tumor activators.
C) metastatic activators and apoptosis stimulators.
D) tumor suppressors and oncogenes.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaerobic and aerobic respiration begin with _______, in which glucose is broken down.
Q2) A mutation may occur spontaneously or by exposure to a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvic acid molecules in A) glycolysis.
B) the citric acid cycle.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) the electron transport system.
Q4) A cell may contain hundreds of different types of enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) DNA replication occurs
A) when a cell requires energy.
B) outside of the nucleus.
C) during interphase of the cell cycle.
D) during mitosis.
Q6) Building up large molecules is called _______.
Q7) The complete set of genetic instructions in an individual is the ______.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A (An) ______ gland does not branch before reaching the glandular cells or secretory part.
A) simple
B) compound
C) tubular
D) alveolar
Q2) Areolar tissue contains
A) many adipocytes filled with fat.
B) collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and gel-like ground substance.
C) chondrocytes and lacunae.
D) osteocytes, osteoblasts, and canaliculi.
Q3) The basis of using proteomics to describe tissues is that
A) different cell types produce different sets of tRNAs.
B) different cell types produce different sets of mRNAs.
C) all cells produce the same amounts of the same proteins.
D) the genetic code is universal.
Q4) Bone cells (osteocytes) are in concentric circles around osteonic canals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Striations but not intercalated discs are seen in _____________ muscle tissue.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?
A) The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis.
B) The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium.
C) The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis.
D) The dermis contains smooth muscle and nervous tissue.
Q2) Melanocytes synthesize melanin, which protects underlying cells from the effects of ultraviolet light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Localized redness, swelling, warmth, and pain are indicators of _________________, the normal response to injury.
Q4) After a severe burn, new skin may grow outwards from the hair follicles. New growth begins here because
A) the hair follicles are very resistant to fire and heat.
B) a person has many hair follicles.
C) a hair follicle contains stem cells in the bulb region.
D) the hair follicles are located in the subcutaneous layer.
Q5) The ______________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
Q6) ____________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes.
Q7) The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ____________.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clavicles
A) provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.
B) are the strongest bones in the body.
C) provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
D) are part of the axial skeleton.
Q2) Kyphosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood cell formation is called _____________.
Q5) Fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most people have 24 ribs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ is a joint formed where a bony socket meets a cone-shaped bony process.
Q2) Limited movement occurs when forces compress the cartilaginous pad between bones at a _______________ .
Q3) The type of synovial joint in which only rotation may occur is a pivot joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ossification typically completes after age 40.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a synovial joint?
A) Condylar
B) Ball-and-socket
C) Hinge
D) Symphysis
Q6) A gomphosis is a ______ joint.
A) fibrous
B) cartilagenous
C) synovial
D) synchondrosis
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transverse tubules
A) store sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface.
B) transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior.
C) store calcium ions.
D) connect actin and myosin.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A) Red fibers contract more slowly than white.
B) Red fibers contain more myoglobin than white.
C) Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white.
D) Red fibers fatigue more slowly than white.
Q3) The triangle of auscultation, commonly used to hear sounds of respiratory organs, is located near the border of the
A) pectoralis major and pectoralis minor.
B) trapezius and latissimus dorsi.
C) latissimus dorsi and serratus anterior.
D) pectoralis major and serratus anterior.
Q4) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ______.
Q5) A broad sheet of dense connective tissue that attaches the coverings of adjacent muscles is called an ______.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reuptake
A) an action potential reverses direction.
B) a neuropeptide breaks down into amino acids, which act as neurotransmitters.
C) a neurotransmitter that has already been released into the synaptic cleft is taken back into the synaptic knob of the presynaptic neuron or into nearby neuroglia or neurons.
D) an enzyme breaks down a neurotransmitter and then another enzyme builds it back up.
Q2) The brain and spinal cord comprise the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Viagra is a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction by dilating arteries in the penis. The neurotransmitter that Viagra affects is
A) acetylcholine.
B) nitric oxide.
C) serotonin.
D) histamine.
Q4) Sensory receptors are part of the CNS.
A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Division of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced difficulty speaking coherently, clumsiness, muscle fasciculations, and increasing weakness in his limbs. These symptoms are most consistent with those of
A) Parkinson disease.
B) Hodgkin's disease.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q2) The subarachnoid space within the meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Symptoms of concussion include all except A) disturbed sleep.
B) decreased sensitivity to light and sound.
C) memory lapse.
D) balance problems.
Q4) A traumatic brain injury (TBI) results from A) an open head wound.
B) mechanical force.
C) an infection.
D) poisoning.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Otosclerosis affects the A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) auditory nerve.
Q2) The ________ _________ muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.
Q3) The transparent, anterior portion of the eye's outer tunic is called the _________ .
Q4) In astigmatism the cornea or the lens is elliptically rather than spherically curved.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A pole vaulter keeps track of his position in mid-air through A) lamellated corpuscles.
B) pain receptors.
C) proprioceptors.
D) baroreceptors.
Q6) The process by which the brain causes a sensation to seem to come from the stimulated receptors is called _____________ .
Q7) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ____________ .
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Growth hormone signals the release of IGF-1 from the A) pancreas.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) pituitary gland.
Q2) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone, which regulates the formation of melanin, is produced by the
A) intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland.
B) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C) pineal gland.
D) the hypothalamus.
Q3) A person under stress may have a lowered resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oxytocin stimulates the kidneys to conserve water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An autocrine secretion affects cells far away.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biliverdin and bilirubin are pigments that result from the breakdown of red blood cells. Biliverdin is ______ in color and bilirubin is ______ in color.
A) greenish; purple
B) greenish; orange
C) black; red
D) brownish; orange
Q2) What is the substance in tea that binds iron, reducing the amount absorbed?
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Caffeine
C) Folic acid
D) Tannic acid
Q3) Marianne has small, bruise-like spots on her skin and a low platelet count. These blemishes are most likely
A) pinpricks.
B) blood blisters.
C) petechiae.
D) hematomas.
Q4) When hemoglobin molecules are decomposed, a greenish pigment called _____________ is formed.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulse pressure is calculated by
A) adding systolic and diastolic pressures.
B) multiplying systolic and diastolic pressures.
C) subtracting systolic pressure from diastolic pressure.
D) subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure.
Q2) Tim runs 5 to 8 miles a day. He has an enlarged heart and low heart rate and blood pressure. He most likely has A) coronary artery disease.
B) an arrhythmia.
C) a very healthy cardiovascular system.
D) atherosclerosis.
Q3) Blood flow to the right side of the heart muscle decreases due to constriction of the _____, and decreased blood flow to the heart tissue can result in _____.
A) left coronary artery; mitral valve prolapse
B) right pulmonary artery; endocarditis
C) right coronary artery; ischemia
D) left coronary vein; myocardial infarction
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ are masses of partially encapsulated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx.
Q2) Older red blood cells may be destroyed in the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Newborns can acquire __________ immunity through breast milk.
A) specific
B) passive
C) active
D) innate
Q4) An immunoglobulin molecule is an antigen secreted by T lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph mainly from the
A) scalp and face.
B) upper limb and mammary gland.
C) thoracic viscera.
D) abdominal viscera.
Q6) Widely distributed phagocytic cells that remain fixed in position are part of the ________ ________ _______.
Q7) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ______.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An X-rays series of the bile ducts is called a A) cholangiogram.
B) cholecystogram.
C) cholecystectomy.
D) cholelithiasis.
Q2) The _________ reflex regulates the rate at which chyme leaves the stomach.
Q3) Tanisha has abdominal pains. Medical tests reveal that she can digest nutrients, but the nutrients are not taken in by the intestinal blood supply. She likely has A) malnutrition.
B) malabsorption.
C) constipation.
D) food allergy.
Q4) The movement of chyme through the small intestine is increased by parasympathetic impulses and is inhibited by sympathetic impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ ions help to regulate the pH of saliva.
Q6) Pancreatic fluid contains a high concentration of ______ ______, which makes it alkaline.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities should lead to the loss of at least a pound of fat in one week?
A) slow walking or dressing and undressing for an hour each day.
B) sitting at rest for two hours each day.
C) swimming or running for an hour each day.
D) swimming for half an hour each day.
Q2) Kwashiorkor may develop in children who have dietary deficiencies of A) carbohydrates.
B) lipids.
C) proteins.
D) fiber.
Q3) Monica doesn't eat anything that was once in an animal. She is an ovo-vegetarian.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fat-soluble vitamins include
A) vitamin C.
B) the B-complex vitamins.
C) vitamins A, D, and K.
D) A, E, C and the B vitamins.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sudden contraction of the diaphragm while the glottis is closed produces a sneeze.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Arielle is an 8-year-old with cystic fibrosis. For 30 minutes each morning and evening, a parent holds her body in various positions and massages and kneads the areas over her lungs to dislodge the abundant, sticky mucus, which Arielle spits into a jar. She also takes medication - an enzyme - that thins the mucus. If she didn't take these measures, the mucus in her lungs would most likely increase her risk of
A) cancer.
B) emphysema.
C) infection.
D) asthma.
Q3) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its ______ ______.
Q4) Exposure to secondhand smoke can cause or increase risk of
A) high altitude sickness and sleep apnea.
B) heart disease, lung cancer, and low birth weight.
C) pneumonia and tuberculosis.
D) sarcoidosis, multiple sclerosis, and vasculitis
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Filtration rate in the glomerulus is increased by
A) vasodilation of the afferent arteriole only.
B) vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole only.
C) both vasodilation and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.
D) both vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.
Q2) Most hydrogen ions are secreted
A) passively into the proximal convoluted tubule.
B) passively from the distal convoluted tubule.
C) actively into the entire renal tubule.
D) actively from the distal convoluted tubule.
Q3) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called _____ _____.
Q4) A by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver is
A) uric acid.
B) urea.
C) ammonia.
D) water.
Q5) The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of the juxtaglomerular cells and the cells of the _____ _____.
Q6) Uric acid results from the metabolism of _____ _____.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Based Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume of urine produced is regulated mainly by the activity in the distal convoluted tubule and the _____ duct.
Q2) The greatest output of electrolytes normally is in urine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include
A) light headedness.
B) agitation.
C) tingling sensations.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Prolonged vomiting, in which only the stomach contents are lost, leads to
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q5) Hypernatremia
A) can be caused by high fever.
B) can be caused by low levels of ADH.
C) causes confusion, stupor, and coma.
D) is all of the above.
23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the A) urethra.
B) ovary.
C) cervix.
D) vagina.
Q2) The number of sperm cells that form from a primary spermatocyte is
A) 4.
B) 16.
C) 46.
D) 100.
Q3) The number of sperm cells in an ejaculate averages
A) about 20 million per milliliter.
B) about 20 million per millimeter.
C) about 20 million per liter.
D) about 120 million per milliliter.
Q4) Primary oocyte production begins before birth.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormones that maintain the uterine wall during the last 5 to 6 months of pregnancy are
A) FSH and LH.
B) human chorionic gonadotropin and synthetic estrogen.
C) placental lactogen and relaxin.
D) placental estrogen and progesterone.
Q2) Progesterone in semen stimulates the movement of sperm cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscle contractions of the uterine walls and ________ in the semen aid sperm cell movement through the uterus and uterine tubes.
A) estrogen
B) progestins
C) prostaglandins
D) epinephrine
Q4) The process of growing old is called _____.
Q5) Development is a continuous process and includes growth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The fertilized ovum is also called a _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An allele that is not expressed in the heterozygous condition is
A) recessive.
B) dominant.
C) autosomal.
D) codominant.
Q2) The two types of information needed to predict the inheritance pattern of a trait are
A) the way genes are distributed in meiosis and the way that they come together when sperm joins egg.
B) the health of the mother and the father.
C) the way mitosis distributes the alleles of a gene and whether those alleles are dominant or recessive.
D) the age at which the trait appears and how it affects males or females.
Q3) The expression of an inherited trait is the genotype and the DNA sequence is the phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetics is the study of the inheritance of traits and their variability.
A)True
B)False
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