Pre-Medical Physiology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Physiology is an essential course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the normal physiological processes that govern the human body. This course covers topics such as the function and regulation of major organ systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, nervous, endocrine, and digestive systems. Emphasis is placed on mechanisms that maintain homeostasis, cellular communication, and the integration of body systems in health. Students will also learn to apply physiological principles to real-world scenarios, setting a strong groundwork for future studies in medicine and healthcare professions.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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26 Chapters
3071 Verified Questions
3071 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the prefix homeo- is used in the term homeostasis.Why do some physiologists prefer the term homeodynamics over homeostasis?
Answer: The prefix homeo-, meaning like or similar, is used to indicate that the body's internal environment is maintained within a range of acceptable values rather than a fixed state.Some physiologists argue that the term homeodynamics better reflects the small but constant changes that continuously take place in the internal environment, as opposed to homeostasis, which erroneously implies lack of change.
Q2) A physician basing clinical decisions on primary research published in biomedical literature is doing ________ medicine.
A) evidence-based
B) traditional C) alternative D) whimsical
E) holistic
Answer: A
Q3) List the key concepts or themes in physiology.
Answer: See Table 1.1 in the chapter.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term polar is used to describe molecules because A) polar covalent molecules are found in colder climates.
B) polar covalent molecules were first discovered in polar bears.
C) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding electron position and the resulting charge.
D) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding hydrogen placement.
E) such molecules are always linear in shape.
Answer: C
Q2) If in an acid-base reaction H SO ² donates two H , one mole of H SO ² would equal how many equivalents?
A) 0.75
B) 1
C) 4
D) 0.5
E) 2
Answer: E
Q3) Solutions are formed with water and ________ solutes which dissolve in them.
Answer: hydrophilic
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4
Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term meaning "a mitotic population of cells that persists into adulthood" applies to
A) stem cells.
B) totipotent cells.
C) apoptosis.
D) nurse cells.
E) gametocytes.
Answer: A
Q2) Each of the following is a primary tissue type except one.Identify the exception.
A) muscle tissue
B) neural tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) connective tissue
E) epithelial tissue
Answer: C
Q3) Design a concept map for the types of cell junctions and the proteins that compose them.
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissues of the Body"section of the chapter and shown in Figure 3.8a.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)binds to the enzyme glycogen synthase (GS), increasing the probability of enzyme-substrate binding.G6P is an example of a(n)________.Based on its name, what do you think is the role of GS?
Q2) A competitive inhibitor binds to A) a region of the enzyme other than the active site. B) the active site.
C) the substrate.
D) the product.
E) the surrounding tissue.
Q3) Once the promoter region of a gene is activated, ________ unwinds the DNA of the downstream gene and begins the process of ________.What is the molecule generated by this process? How does the cell control the amount of this molecule released from the nucleus?
Q4) The tRNA molecule contains the three-base sequence called the A) codon.
B) anticodon.
C) semicodon.
D) aminocodon.
Q5) Glucose is phosphorylated to ________ with a phosphate from ________.
Page 6
Q6) Ribosomes are composed of protein and ________.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Passive transport refers to a process that requires
A) no energy at all.
B) no cellular energy.
C) no pressure gradient.
D) no concentration gradient.
E) no electrical gradient.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the Na /K pump is False?
A) It transports Na out of the cell and K into the cell.
B) It is present in neurons.
C) Its activity requires the expenditure of metabolic (cellular) energy.
D) It transports Na and K in a 1:1 ratio.
Q3) Explain the term dynamic steady state.
Q4) a form of mediated transport
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)both
D)Neither
Q5) Channel proteins that allow water to pass are called ________.
Q6) Distinguish between the following terms: cotransport; antiport; symport.
Q7) Briefly explain the difference between open channels and gated channels.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood glucose levels are kept fairly steady in healthy people through the action of the hormones insulin and glucagon.Insulin decreases blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake by cells, whereas glucagon increases blood glucose by promoting release of glucose from cells.Describe these hormone actions as simple reflex pathways, identifying the stimulus, integrating center, efferent pathway, and response.
Q2) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n)________ that is sensitive to a particular stimulus (variable)and a(n)________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
Q3) ________ can be caused by alterations in receptors or by problems with G protein or second messenger pathways.
Q4) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response
A)threshold
B)effector
C)integrating center
D)setpoint
E)sensory receptor
Q5) Define tonic control and give a physiological example.
Q6) Peripheral cells sensitive to the presence of hormones are called ________.
Q7) Explain the two forms of down-regulation.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that describes the need for one hormone to be present for a second hormone to produce a full effect is called ________.
Q2) pancreas
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)aldosterone
D)melatonin
E)calcitonin
F)Epinephrine
Q3) Dexamethasone is a drug used to suppress the secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland.Two patients with hypersecretion of cortisol are given dexamethasone.Anika's cortisol secretion level falls to normal after the medication, but Bonnie's cortisol secretion remains elevated.Which patient has primary hypercortisolism, also known as Cushing's syndrome? Explain your reasoning.
Q4) The term for two hormones that have additive effects is ________.
Q5) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q6) The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
Q7) The ________ of a hormone is an indicator of how long a hormone is active in the body.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rearrangement of connections at synapses, which occurs throughout life, is termed
A) elasticity.
B) intelligence.
C) plasticity.
D) senility.
E) synchronicity.
Q2) The afferent and efferent axons together form the
A) central nervous system.
B) autonomic division system.
C) somatic motor division of the nervous system.
D) peripheral nervous system.
E) visceral nervous system.
Q3) may be hyperpolarizing
A)graded potential
B)action potential
C)both
Q4) The gaps between Schwann cells are called synapses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) composed of many small nuclei, an area that integrates as well as relays sensory information that passes through it
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)thalamus
D)cerebrum
Q2) The inability to remember newly acquired information is called
A) discombobulation.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) short-term amnesia.
D) implicit amnesia.
E) retrograde amnesia.
Q3) Caffeine and related stimulants exert their effects by
A) mimicking a specific neurotransmitter.
B) inhibiting a specific neurotransmitter.
C) mimicking a specific neuromodulator.
D) inhibiting a specific neuromodulator.
Q4) Define implicit and explicit memory.
Q5) Explain neural plasticity in the brain, in the context of recovery from injury.
Q6) Do the terms vertebral column and spinal cord mean the same thing? Explain.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a somatosensory modality?
A) proprioception
B) touch
C) vision
D) nociception
E) temperature
Q2) Light only shines on the center of an on-center visual field.
A)fully excited
B)fully inhibited
C)weak response
Q3) The initial response to sweet and umami involves the bind to a receptor, which activates the protein ________ whereas salty and sour stimulate ________.
Q4) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements (vibrations)by the A) malleus.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
Q5) ________ is the fluid within the vestibular and tympanic duct of the cochlea.
Page 12
Q6) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) decreased activity in digestive tract
A)sympathetic agonist
B)parasympathetic agonist
Q2) Which area is NOT normally considered to be an autonomic control center?
A) pons
B) medulla
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus
Q3) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________.
Q4) Describe the general rules for the identity of neurotransmitters secreted by pre- and postganglionic neurons in the autonomic division.Be sure to specify the types of receptors, where relevant, and describe the exceptions.
Q5) At the molecular level, what are the effects of nicotine on the nervous system? How are these effects exerted? How are these effects similar to or different from those of curare? How do these effects explain some of the physiological consequences of smoking?
Q6) ________ are swellings that contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter.
Page 13
Q7) Cholinergic receptors respond to the neurotransmitter ________.
Q8) The two types of cholinergic receptors are ________ and ________.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The origin is the end of the skeletal muscle that attaches to the A) more stationary bone.
B) more mobile bone.
C) tendon.
D) ligament.
Q2) In comparison to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle cells function over a ________ range of muscle lengths and exhibit a speed of contraction that is ________ than skeletal muscle.
Q3) The force generated by a single muscle fiber can be increased by
A) increasing frequency of action potentials only.
B) increasing muscle length beyond optimal only.
C) increasing the asynchrony of recruitment only.
D) increasing frequency of action potentials and increasing muscle length beyond optimal only.
Q4) Myasthenia gravis is a disease characterized by reduction in the number of acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscles.Which physiological process would be affected? What would someone afflicted by this disease experience? How may this disease be treated?
Q5) Define and explain the differences between slow wave potentials and pacemaker potentials in smooth muscle cells.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relaxation of skeletal muscle results from ________ input by the somatic motor neuron.
Q2) A polysynaptic reflex has at least ________ in the reflex pathway.
A) one synapse
B) two synapses
C) two neurons
D) three neurons
E) two synapses and three neurons
Q3) Muscle spindles are ________ receptors and cause reflex ________, whereas Golgi tendon organs respond primarily to ________ and cause a ________ reflex.
Q4) integrated in the brain
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Page 16
Q5) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
Q6) In a ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) At an intercalated disc,
A) the cell membranes of two cardiac muscle fibers are completely separated by a synapse.
B) the myofibrils are loosely attached to the membrane of the disc.
C) two cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
D) t-tubules unite the membranes of the adjoining cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Compare and contrast cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.
Q3) During the isovolumic phase of ventricular systole,
A) the atria contract.
B) the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.
C) blood is ejected into the great vessels.
D) the ventricles are relaxing.
E) the ventricles are filling with blood.
Q4) During ventricular systole,
A) the atria are contracting.
B) blood is entering the ventricles.
C) the AV valves are closed.
D) the pressure in the ventricles declines.
E) the ventricles are relaxed.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several blood-borne chemicals affect the lumen size of arterioles.Which are NOT paired correctly?
A) kinins - vasodilation
B) histamine - vasodilation
C) serotonin - vasodilation
D) sumatriptan - vasoconstriction
E) epinephrine - vasoconstriction with alpha receptors
Q2) One of the most common signs of polycystic kidney disease is hypertension in an otherwise seemingly healthy individual.Why would cysts on the kidney lead to higher blood pressure?
Q3) Blood pressure is highest in the ________ and decreases continuously as blood flows through the circulatory system, due to ________.
Q4) Norepinephrine binding to alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle causes ________ and epinephrine binding to alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle causes ________.
Q5) Loss of pericytes around retinal capillaries is a hallmark of the disease ________.
Q6) Capillary exchange involving movement through the cells is called ________ transport.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasminogen is activated by an enzyme called ________.
Q2) bind(s)with iron in the blood
A)albumins
B)globulins
C)fibrinogen
D)transferrin
E)antibodies
Q3) Red blood cells in the circulation live for about ________.The short life span is due to ________.
Q4) Mike has classical hemophilia, a clotting disorder, but his case is considered "mild." Contrary to popular belief, Mike doesn't usually have problematic bleeding episodes related to cutting himself; a more severe problem for him would be brought on by a sprained ankle or by having a full body impact, like falling off a horse and landing hard on the ground, injuries considered "closed." With what you have learned about blood coagulation, can you explain how this could be so? Assuming Mike is lacking factor VIII, which pathways does he depend on?
Q5) Make a map using the following terms: bile, bilirubin, ferritin, heme, hemoglobin, intestine, iron in diet, kidney, plasma, spleen, transferrin.You may also add additional terms.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure.
Q2) Surfactant
A) protects the surface of the lungs.
B) phagocytizes small particulate matter.
C) replaces mucus in the alveoli.
D) helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing.
E) is not found in healthy lung tissue.
Q3) Explain how the upper airways and bronchi condition the air, and why this conditioning is important.
Q4) Distinguish between cellular and external respiration.
Q5) the minimum amount of air always present in the respiratory system, after blowing out all you can
A)tidal volume
B)inspiratory reserve volume
C)expiratory reserve volume
D)residual volume
Q6) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of ________.
Q7) The ability of a lung to recoil, or recover from stretch, is called ________.
Page 21
Q8) A powerful bronchoconstrictor released by mast cells is ________.
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) What force(s)move(s)carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli?
Q2) Fear and excitement may affect the pace and depth of respiration by stimulation of portions of the ________.
Q3) In the medulla oblongata, the nucleus tractus solitarius contains the ________ of neurons.
A) pontine respiratory group
B) ventral respiratory group
C) dorsal respiratory group
D) pre-Botzinger complex
Q4) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to a plasma protein.
E) carried by white blood cells.
Q5) Define hyperventilation and explain what may cause it.Is the increased ventilation that occurs while exercising an example of hyperventilation? Explain your answer.How are PO and PCO affected by hyperventilation? Can breathing into a paper bag remedy hyperventilation or is this just unfounded folk medicine? Explain.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with cirrhosis of the liver has lower than normal levels of plasma proteins and a higher than normal GFR.Explain why a decrease in plasma protein concentration would cause an increase in GFR.
Q2) Which statement is NOT True?
A) The blood supply to the kidneys comes through the renal arteries.
B) As much as one fourth of the cardiac output may flow to the kidneys at any given moment.
C) The kidneys do not reabsorb filtered waste products.
D) The urinary bladder is filled by two ducts, called ureters, and emptied by the single urethra.
E) Women are more likely to develop urinary tract infections than men.
Q3) The plasma concentration at which all of the renal carriers for a given substance are saturated is the ________.
Q4) movement from the nephron lumen to the blood
A)excretion
B)filtration
C)reabsorption
D)secretion
Q5) Describe GFR autoregulation, and explain why it is important.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of H O and CO to H CO is called
A) carbonic anhydrase.
B) bicarbonate ion.
C) carbonic acid.
D) renin.
Q2) ________ interstitial osmolarity allows urine to be concentrated.
A) High medullary
B) Low medullary
C) High cortex
D) Low cortex
Q3) "Water, water, everywhere, nor any drop to drink" is a phrase from the Rime of the Ancient Mariner by Samuel Taylor Coleridge.This poem describes an ocean ship unable to sail to land and running out of its supply of fresh water; sailors have long known that drinking seawater cannot prevent death from dehydration.What would result if the sailors attempted to alleviate their dehydration by drinking seawater? Justify your answer by describing kidney physiology.Why wouldn't reflexes, in response to dehydration, fully compensate? What does this illustrate about the force allowing kidneys to retain water under more normal conditions?
Q4) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
Q5) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the four basic processes of the digestive system, and describe each.
Q2) ________ are pacemakers for slow wave activity.
A) Interstitial cells of Cajal
B) Intrinsic neuron cells
C) Extrinsic neuron cells
D) G cells
E) Chief cells
Q3) Which of the following is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract?
A) serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis externa
B) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis externa
C) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa
D) submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa
E) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
Q4) Powerful contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called
A) segmentation.
B) tonic contractions.
C) phasic contractions.
D) peristalsis.
E) mass movements.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bomb calorimeter measures
A) the carbon dioxide produced when a food sample is completely combusted.
B) the oxygen consumed when a food sample is completely combusted.
C) only the food calories available to the human body.
D) the heat produced when a food sample is completely combusted.
E) both carbon dioxide produced and oxygen consumed when a food sample is completely combusted.
Q2) Prior to the discovery of the role of insulin in metabolism and the development of insulin therapy to treat diabetes mellitus, a diagnosis of this disease was always fatal.What do untreated diabetics die from?
Q3) During the fasting state, the energy stores of the ________ become the major source of glucose for the whole body.
A) brain
B) liver
C) muscles
D) pancreas
E) adipose tissues
Q4) Describe a ketogenic diet.What are the pros and cons of such a diet? How is ketosis related to diabetes mellitus?
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Which hormones of growth and metabolism have a permissive effect on other hormones of growth and metabolism?
Q2) Precocious puberty in girls can result from hypersecretion of nongonadal steroids.In such girls, there is early breast development, onset of menses, and ovulation of viable eggs.This can occur by age 7 or even earlier.Which hormone(s)and nongonadal endocrine gland(s)may be responsible? Can the responsible gland(s)be safely removed? Explain.How might this condition be treated without surgery? What permanent nonsexual consequences may result from not treating this condition?
Q3) Cortisol secretion shows a ________ pattern of secretion, normally peaking in the
Q4) The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway begins with secretion of ________ into the ________ and transported to the ________.
Q5) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in A) the disappearance of axillary and pubic hair.
B) increased volume of urine formation.
C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.
D) decreased ability to convert lipids to glucose.
E) increased water retention.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stem cells that will form B lymphocytes are found in the A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.
Q2) Draw and label a typical antibody molecule.Be sure to include the light chain, heavy chain, Fab, Fc, and the hinge region.Identify the antigen-binding site and disulfide bonds.
Q3) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond more quickly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.
Q4) Lymphocytes and plasma cells
A) mediate the acquired immune response. B) are found primarily in lymphoid tissue.
C) all function and behave the same way.
D) mediate the acquired immune response and are found primarily in lymphoid tissue.
E) mediate the acquired immune response, are found primarily in lymphoid tissue, and all function and behave the same way.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) peripheral vascular resistance during exercise
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q2) The adaption of the body to repeated exercise in hot environments occurs through a process called ________.
Q3) During exercise, blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation.Propose a mechanism based on the need for nutrients that would explain how the autoregulation might take place.
Q4) The role of phosphocreatine is to
A) store energy.
B) store oxygen.
C) release energy.
D) transfer energy.
E) provide a substrate for gluconeogenesis.
Q5) percent fat metabolized for ATP production as exercise intensity increases
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q6) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of glycolytic metabolism.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the False statement.
A) Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus.
B) Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus.
C) Females have one less active chromosome than males.
D) Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus.
E) Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes.
Q2) In order to produce spermatids, a primary spermatocyte undergoes ________ divisions.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q3) The enzyme responsible for converting androgens to estrogens is A) 5 -reductase.
B) TDF.
C) aromatase.
D) AMH.
Q4) Explain how modern birth control pills work as contraceptives.
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