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Political Science Research Methods introduces students to the essential tools and techniques used in the systematic study of political phenomena. The course covers both qualitative and quantitative approaches, emphasizing research design, hypothesis formulation, data collection, and data analysis. Students will learn how to critically evaluate scholarly work, conduct literature reviews, and utilize various methodologies such as surveys, experiments, case studies, and content analysis. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to design and execute their own research projects, interpret empirical findings, and communicate results effectively in the field of political science.
Recommended Textbook
Politics in America 2014 Elections and Updates Edition 10th Edition by Thomas R. Dye
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Q1) Only __________ decisions can extend to the whole society. Answer: government
Q2) Which perspective-elitist or pluralist-should apply to America's defense policy? What about the country's education policy? Explain your answers.
Answer: An ideal response will:
1.Briefly explain/define the pluralist and elitist perspectives.
2.Argue which perspective might apply to defense.Defense is an arena that likely does not have a diversity of interests vying for power and access to decision makers.Defense policy is likely influenced by a few elite interests such as defense contractors and well-informed military related interests,thus an elitist perspective is appropriate.
3.Argue which perspective might apply to education policy.Education policy is likely influenced by a variety of interests.Most adults either have children in schools,had them at one time,or will have them in the future.Accordingly,it is a policy arena that directly affects many people.Thus,many people and interests likely weigh in in this policy arena.Therefore pluralism may be the appropriate perspective here.
Q3) The underlying value of democracy is the __________ of the individual. Answer: dignity
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Q1) A tax deduction for home mortgage interest promotes which value?
A)employment
B)basic education
C)political equality
D)home ownership
Answer: D
Q2) How does the text define subcultures?
A)Subcultures are created when political conflict arises.
B)Subcultures are groups that form outside of the public limelight.
C)Subcultures are expressions of the American Dream.
D)Subcultures are variations on the prevailing values and beliefs in a society.
Answer: D
Q3) Income equality is one way to measure __________.
A)the ability of the uneducated to earn a living
B)the distribution of well-being in a society
C)the gross domestic product per capita
D)the political equality in a society
Answer: B
Q4) Secular politics would not allow __________ in public life.
Answer: religion
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Q1) Which of the following philosophers greatly influenced the colonists' views on the role of government?
A)John Dewey
B)John Locke
C)Martin Heidegger
D)Michael Foucault
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a reason for the separation of powers?
A)to ensure the power of the executive
B)to promote justice
C)to prevent tyranny by any one branch
D)to create gridlock in government
Answer: C
Q3) In what year was the U.S.Constitution ratified?
A)1776
B)1788
C)1791
D)1797
Answer: B
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Q1) Under Dillon's Rule,local governments are creatures of the state,which means that they have no __________.
A)guarantees of power
B)local laws
C)local militia
D)separate finances
Q2) In the United States today,direct democracy is practiced __________.
A)only in local governments
B)only in state and local governments
C)only in the national government
D)in all levels of government
Q3) The Supreme Court's 1819 ruling in __________ firmly established the principle that the Necessary and Proper Clause gives Congress the right to choose its means for carrying out the enumerated powers.
Q4) Discuss how the devolution revolution impacted social service policy and legislation in the 1990s.
Q5) Many Americans believe that we live exclusively in a direct democracy.Critically evaluate that belief.How is it true,and how is it untrue?
Q6) ________ democracy can be found today only in state and local governments.
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Q1) Of the following,which is an intrinsic reward of voting?
A)time taken away from work and family
B)knowing one's vote will likely have only a small impact
C)benefits gained from having one's candidate win
D)fulfilling one's sense of duty
Q2) You have been appointed to a committee tasked with making recommendations that will increase the likelihood that people will vote.A fellow committee member has made a recommendation that you think will have a negative,not a positive,effect on turnout.Which of the following recommendations have you identified as a problem?
A)To increase voter turnout,same-day registration should be permitted.
B)To increase voter turnout,early voting should be permitted.
C)To increase voter turnout,better voter education programs are needed.
D)To increase voter turnout,and reduce voter fraud at the same time,new voters should be required to prove their citizenship to register.
Q3) Which constitutional amendment gave 18-year-olds the right to vote?
A)23rd Amendment
B)24th Amendment
C)25th Amendment
D)26th Amendment

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Q1) One role of the __________ is to determine whether broadcaster behavior on the airwaves constitutes indecency and obscenity.
Q2) What was the original goal of the First Amendment?
A)to protect the press from government attempts to silence criticism
B)to ensure the press would provide fair and unbiased reporting
C)to allow the government to censor only classified information
D)to align early U.S.newspapers with political parties
Q3) The impact of the media on public opinion is limited largely by selective perception.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Internet was deliberately designed to __________.
A)rigidly control which computers could connect to it
B)require computer expertise to communicate
C)be controlled by a handful of media elites
D)operate without any central authority or organization
Q5) Media influence over values and opinions is reduced by selective perception,mentally screening out __________ with which we disagree.
Q6) Public awareness of a candidate is often referred to as __________ recognition.
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Q1) The vote in the 2000 presidential election showed that __________.
A)The Democratic Party had successfully rebuilt support in the south.
B)Americans were more evenly divided that perhaps at any other time in history
C)Most Americans had adopted left-liberal views on most issues.
D)African Americans were leaving the Democratic Party in droves.
Q2) Which of the following is LEAST likely to make a financial contribution to a Republican candidate?
A)a small business owner
B)a teacher's union
C)a real estate company
D)an insurance company
Q3) Assess whether dealignment in the American party system has actually occurred.
Q4) Today,a supporter of a third party is likely to be a(n)__________.
A)nominal Democrat
B)committed Republican
C)independent voter
D)extreme liberal
Q5) A(n)__________ is a delegate to the Democratic Party national convention selected because of his/her position in the government or party and not pledged to any specific candidate.
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Q1) According to the box,"The Game,the Rules,the Players," in the 2008 campaign,Barack Obama's "just folks" photo opportunity involved __________.
A)operating a chain saw
B)playing in a pickup basketball game
C)windsurfing
D)doing construction work
Q2) Considering the media attention focused on the New Hampshire primary and the Iowa caucuses,why do you think states have moved their primary dates earlier in the election year?
Q3) Retrospective voting differs from prospective voting in that the incumbent party is seen as having the best platform and policies for the future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the 2004 campaign,a series of attack ads __________.
A)challenged the legitimacy of John Kerry's service in Vietnam
B)suggested George Bush had never graduated from Yale
C)reported that Barack Obama was a Muslim
D)denied that Al Gore had anything to do with creating the Internet
Q5) What kinds of campaign finance receive little or no scrutiny?
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Q1) To retain their tax-free status,nonprofit organizations must refrain from direct lobbying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This libertarian think tank advocates policies based on market principles and limited government.
A)the Center for American Progress
B)the Cato Institute
C)the Brookings Institution
D)the Council on Foreign Relations
Q3) How do interest groups lobby the executive branch?
A)by appearing at administrative hearings to offer information
B)by offering PAC contributions to agency heads
C)by filing amicus curiae briefs
D)by drafting and introducing bills
Q4) How do interest groups lobby the courts?
A)through letter-writing campaigns addressed to particular judges
B)by publishing editorials in major newspapers stating their views on cases
C)by bringing lawsuits to the courts on behalf of classes of citizens
D)by testifying before congressional committees
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Q1) Which example best demonstrates a legislator acting as a delegate of his or her constituency?
A)considering public opinion,then using his or her own best judgment about what is good for the nation as a whole
B)doing whatever is best for reelection
C)following the public opinion of the constituency,regardless of his or her personal viewpoint
D)heeding public opinion in every case,except in matters of personal conscience
Q2) Logrolling,or vote trading,was deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court following the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Congressional approval ratings have never been lower than they are now.Public confidence in the ability of Congress to solve important problems has waned.Discuss the reasons why politicians appear at loggerheads with one another,why solutions to substantive issues are either not addressed or given short-term solutions,and what some potential remedies might be.
Q4) Congress may override a presidential veto with a(n)__________ vote in each chamber.
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Q1) What do presidential box scores show?
A)the number of votes needed to override a veto
B)the number of bills vetoed during a presidency
C)the percentage of the popular votes received during an election
D)the percentages of presidential victories on congressional votes on which the president took a clear-cut position
Q2) What is the role of the National Security Council?
A)to advise the president on national security
B)to keep the president and first family secure
C)to manage and advise the president on the armed forces
D)to provide intelligence on national security to the president and Congress
Q3) Throughout most of its history,which was considered an insignificant office?
A)attorney general
B)chief of staff
C)secretary of state
D)vice president
Q4) The Framers included a two-term limit to the presidency in the Constitution.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following agencies is most removed from presidential and congressional control?
A)the Department of Defense
B)the Department of Justice
C)the Environmental Protection Agency
D)the Federal Reserve System
Q2) Regulations are usually created by Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Social Security Administration rendering a decision about whether an individual was wrongly denied disability payments illustrates the __________ function of the federal bureaucracy.
Q4) Which law designates the steps that federal agencies must follow in issuing rules and regulations?
A)the Administrative Procedures Act
B)the Freedom of Information Act
C)the Hatch Act
D)the Pendleton Act
Q5) The president appoints,but cannot dismiss,officials who serve on __________.
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Q1) What would be the most likely consequence if courts did not have the power of judicial review?
Q2) Justices who do not agree with the outcome of a case write __________ opinions.
Q3) A writ of __________ is a request submitted to the U.S.Supreme Court to review a lower court decision.
A)mandamus
B)prohibition
C)capias
D)certiorari
Q4) A(n)__________ brief is submitted by someone who is not a party to the case.
A)amicus curiae
B)appellate
C)habeas corpus
D)outsider
Q5) __________ have the power to review the decisions of __________.
A)State courts; the Supreme Court
B)Federal courts; state courts
C)Grand juries; federal courts
D)State courts; federal courts
Q6) Explain the significance of Marbury v.Madison.
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Q1) What did Abington School District v.Schempp find to be unconstitutional?
A)state-mandated Bible reading
B)forced sterilization
C)segregated education
D)discrimination against homosexuals
Q2) The Supreme Court briefly outlawed which of the following in the 1970s by asserting that it was being imposed in an arbitrary manner?
A)capital punishment
B)school prayer
C)access to court-appointed counsel
D)symbolic speech protection
Q3) In Abington School District v.Schempp,the Court ruled that state-mandated Bible readings were constitutional under the free exercise clause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Writs of habeas corpus are laws declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most successful feminist efforts of the 1800s centered on __________.
A)protection of women in families
B)the suffrage movement
C)rights for former slaves
D)ending the Civil War
Q2) In Windsor v.United States the Supreme Court reviewed DOMA.This case arose from a challenge to __________ that deny equal treatment to same-sex marriages.
A)federal estate tax laws
B)federal health care policies
C)federal payroll tax laws
D)state health care policies
Q3) When did women win the guaranteed right to vote?
A)when the Constitution was adopted
B)during the Civil War
C)immediately after the Civil War
D)decades after black males won the right to vote
Q4) Quotas are provisions of some affirmative action programs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Brown v.Board of Education overturned the __________ doctrine.
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Q1) The main goal of fiscal policy is to __________.
A)affect how much money is available to foreign governments for investment
B)affect how much money is available to state governments for capital projects
C)determine how much interest the government will pay on the federal debt
D)use taxes and government spending to help stimulate or slow down economic growth
Q2) According to the "Compared to What?" feature box in your text,the United States has one of the highest tax burdens among advanced democracies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a __________ system,both politics and markets function to transform popular demands into goods and service,to allocate costs,and to distribute goods and services.
A)collective
B)democratic
C)free-market
D)fiscal
Q4) Decisions regarding the supply of money in the economy,including private borrowing,interest rates,and banking activity,are part of a nation's __________.
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Q1) A senior citizen who is deemed to have a disability due to alcohol or drug addiction would qualify for monetary benefits through which federal program?
A)SSI
B)TANF
C)SNAP
D)EITC
Q2) People __________ has put a strain on the Social Security system.
A)tending to be underweight
B)working later in life
C)tending to be obese
D)living longer
Q3) The Republican-sponsored Welfare Reform Act that was passed by Congress in 1996 was initially ___________ by President Clinton.
A)sponsored
B)written
C)vetoed
D)fought for
Q4) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program issues coupons that are known as __________.
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Q1) The Cold War strategy of __________ was intended to prevent nuclear warfare by having a large enough nuclear arsenal that the Soviet Union would not dare challenge the United States.
Q2) During the Cold War,the term "Iron Curtain" was used to refer to the way the Soviets divided Europe into Eastern and Western portions,with Eastern Europe under communist rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The military phase of the war on terrorism began in 2001 with Operation Enduring Freedom,which was the name given to the invasion of which of the following countries?
A)Iraq
B)Afghanistan
C)Vietnam
D)Libya
Q4) How is terrorism different from traditional military force?
A)Terrorism usually involves military targets.
B)Terrorism is typically designed to instill fear in the general public.
C)Terrorism is typically better financed.
D)Only governments engage in terrorism.
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