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Police Operations examines the fundamental principles, techniques, and strategies employed by modern law enforcement agencies in their day-to-day activities. This course covers topics such as patrol procedures, criminal investigation processes, community policing, crisis intervention, and the use of technology in policing. Emphasis is placed on understanding the roles and responsibilities of police officers, effective communication with the public, ethical considerations, and the challenges faced by officers in diverse and dynamic environments. Through real-world case studies and scenario-based exercises, students develop practical problem-solving skills and gain insights into contemporary policing practices.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Investigation 1st Edition by Michael
D. Lyman
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generalizing,investigators are specialists while patrol officers routinely spend their time with order maintenance and general services.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following refers to the use of rational skills,worldviews,and values to get as close as possible to the truth?
A)Abduction
B)Critical thinking
C)Abstract thinking
D)Knowledge
Answer: B
Q3) Discuss the solvability factors in a criminal investigation and provide examples.
Answer: Solvability factors are identification leads that have proven to be valuable and are most likely to result in case solution.Examples include availability of witnesses,information about the suspect,significant physical evidence,and judgment by the patrol officer that there is enough information to continue an investigation.
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Q1) New information that is gathered during an investigation should be included in the supplemental report.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Supplemental information by officers should include:
A)Time of arrival at crime scene
B)Lighting and weather conditions
C)Names of officers contacted
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The increased use of photography at crime scenes has made sketching crime scenes unnecessary and obsolete.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The _____ _____ process should begin as soon as an officer gets a call to the scene of a crime.
Answer: note-taking

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Q1) Being able to account for an item of evidence from the time of its finding to its presentation in court is known as:
A)contingency processing.
B)chain of custody.
C)possession accountability.
D)chain of accountability.
Answer: B
Q2) What are the two most common sources of DNA evidence?
A)Blood and saliva
B)Fingerprints and saliva
C)Blood and hair
D)Blood and semen
Answer: D
Q3) A search for persons who are unaware that they may be a witness to a crime or its circumstances is known as a _____ canvass.
Answer: neighborhood
Q4) The CYMBL rule consists of information needed regarding the suspect vehicle to include ______,_______,_______,______,and _________.
Answer: color,year,make/model,body style,and license number
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Q1) What is being analyzed when RFLP or mtDNA processes are being used?
A)Ballistics
B)DNA
C)Toxicology
D)Serology
Q2) 8 During simultaneous lineups,witnesses use _______ ________.
Q3) In a sequential lineup,people or photographs are presented to the witness one person at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a simultaneous lineup,eyewitnesses view all the people or photos at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Criminal investigative analysis is accomplished by identifying psychological and social characteristics surrounding the crime as well as the manner it was committed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define and fully explain the purpose and function of CODIS.
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Q1) A person can voluntarily _____ to the police to search their person,home,and property.
Q2) Which of the following is the best interpretation of the 1991 California v.Acevedo case?
A)Items that fall in the plain view of a lawfully present police officer may be seized and used as evidence in court.
B)An officer may search a vehicle without a search warrant provided that she has probable cause to think the vehicle contains contraband and that the vehicle is mobile. C)Officers may not move any item to get a better view of evidence otherwise hidden from view.
D) An officer who has probable cause to believe that a container in a vehicle holds contraband may open the container and seize the contraband.
Q3) Officers responding to an emergency situation,such as a shooting within a residence,may seize items of evidence in the residence that are in plain view.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss reasonable deadly force.
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Q1) Most people will move their eyes to the left when they are recalling something that they actually experienced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding police interviews?
A)Friendly conversation should be held to a minimum during a police interview or avoided all together.
B)The most successful interviews are conducted at the scene where the crime occurred.
C)When a husband and wife are both subjects of the interview,they should be interviewed together.
D)The tone of a police interview should be formal but somewhat relaxed.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an indicator of deceptive behavior?
A)Vocal changes
B)Stalling before answering
C)Restating a question or asking to have it repeated
D) Tucking one foot beneath the other
Q4) An interrogation is nonaccusatory.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which illegal activities are the LEAST to be the targets of an intelligence operation?
A)Drug trafficking
B)Sexual Assault,vandalism,and theft
C)Pornography,prostitution,and gambling
D)Fraud and extortion
Q2) What is the final stage of the intelligence process?
A)Analysis
B)Flowcharting
C)Dissemination of information
D)Data collection
Q3) The role of the intelligence analyst can be critical in the investigative process.Discuss the four main roles which the analyst has that can influence the success of an investigation.
Q4) Intelligence operations should not be used to gather information about people solely because of their political views.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ demonstrates a chain of events or activities over a period of time.
Q6) Intelligence files are ______ files.
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Q1) The 1990 case of Alabama v.White held that an anonymous tip,absent of other corroborating information about a suspect,could not form the basis for an investigatory stop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The elements of an undercover operation include:
A)Background history
B)Family history
C)Introduction
D)Induction
Q3) This is recognized when an undercover officer convinces a criminal suspect to commit a crime they were not predisposed to commit:
A)Entrapment
B)Lock up
C)Frame
D)Trickery
Q4) There is no reason why most police organizations should not utilize undercover agents.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A man locked his child in the car on a hot day with the windows rolled up while he went shopping.When he returned two hours later,he found that the child had died.With which crime will he most probably be charged?
A)First-degree murder
B)Voluntary manslaughter
C)Second-degree murder
D)Involuntary manslaughter
Q2) The fourth stage of the decomposition process where the body dries out is considered the ________ ________ stage.
Q3) Rigor mortis usually sets in about nine hours after death occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Officer Simmons notices that a murder victim's wounds indicate severe bleeding,but she also detects very little blood near the body.Which of the following is her best conclusion based on these facts?
A)The wound was caused by a very thin,sharp knife.
B)The perpetrator cleaned the body to remove evidence.
C)The victim died very quickly,thus reducing blood flow.
D)The body was moved from the place of death.
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Q1) An MO focuses on the behavior of the criminal during the commission of a crime.For example,the location of the robbery,such as a bank or convenience store,may identify certain groups of suspects.Other factors include:
A)the physical description of the suspect.
B)the color of the get-away vehicle.
C)the type of weapon used.
D)All of the above.
Q2) A characteristic of the addict-robber is that robberies are not committed when the addict is high on drugs but rather when he or she needs money to purchase drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many victims of the crime of robbery also claim they have been:
A)Robbed
B)Victimized
C)Raped
D)Brutalized
Q4) The type of location robbed,the time and day of week,and the type of weapon used are all indications of the robber's _____ of _____.
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Q1) This is the number of states which have the ability to provide protective orders for people who are involved in stalking and/or domestic violence situations.
A)47
B)50
C)48
D)49
Q2) Assaults in which the victim suffers serious,permanent disfigurement are classified as aggravated assaults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement regarding the crime of assault?
A)It is necessary for the victim to wait until he or she has been physically assaulted before acting in self-defense.
B)Finding the perpetrator in cases of assault is generally an easy task for police to accomplish.
C)About seventy percent of assault victims are acquainted with their attackers.
D)The crime of assault has decreased in the last decade.
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Q1) The most common missing child case encountered by law enforcement is the family abduction case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You have just responded to a local grocery store in response to a child abduction.You are told that there is a dispute between a mother and the missing child's father,who does not have custody or visitation of the child.The mother states that the father is mad at her because he has no rights to the child,therefore taking her to an unknown location.The mother states that the father is a convicted child molester.At this point in your investigation you need to determine if you meet the criteria for a nationwide broadcast.Identify the checklist which meets this requirement.
Q3) An officer responding to a missing child complaint should avoid:
A)safeguarding evidence until interviews are completed.
B)making assumptions that might cause him or her to overlook crucial information and evidence.
C)interviewing parents as each may be a suspect in the disappearance of the child.
D)gathering factual information quickly.
Q4) The ______ child is the most common missing child case.
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Q1) Child physical abuse remains a serious national problem
A)True
B)False
Q2) The role of ______ is to determine whether maltreatment was involved in the child's death,identify the responsible party,and take appropriate action.
Q3) It is important for investigators to interview this person about the child's general health since birth.
A)Nurse
B)Attending aid
C)Pediatrician
D)Assistant
Q4) This type of maltreatment is recognized when the child's death is directly related to injuries suffered as a result of a specific incident of abuse or neglect.
A)Shaken
B)Acute
C)Direct
D)Chronic
Q5) The goal of a forensic interview is to obtain a _______.
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Q1) A fence is most vulnerable during the possession and storage of stolen property.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fences buy and sell stolen property on a regular basis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Evidence found at the burglary scene is likely to identify a burglar by name.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most burglars are convicted on the strength of circumstantial evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not one of the UCR's sub classifications for burglary?
A)Forcible entry
B)Unlawful entry
C)Unforcible entry
D)Attempted forcible entry
Q6) Identify and discuss the ways in which a house can be an attractive target for a burglar.
Q7) _____ _____ are untraceable goods such as tools,liquor and clothing
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be motivation for a hate fire?
A)An insurance payoff
B)An accident
C)A dispute
D)An obsession with fire
Q2) Evidence of separate and distinct fires in different areas,the odor of petroleum,and holes in walls to aid in the spread of the fire,are all indicators that the fire was of _____ origin.
Q3) The United States has one of the lowest fire death rates in the industrialized world.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the importance of identifying the point of origin during an arson investigation.
Q5) Which physical evidence in a fire indicates burning alcohol?
A)White smoke
B)Green-purple flames
C)Black smoke
D)Blue-orange flames
Q6) List and discuss the three types of evidence located at an arson crime scene.
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Q1) The federal foreign relations authorization act defines terrorism in terms of four primary elements.The act says that terrorism is premeditated,politically motivated,violent,and:
A)Islamic
B)militaristic in organization.
C)committed against noncombatant targets.
D)None of the above.
Q2) Recent research and investigations into terrorist operations have shown that terrorists look,dress,and behave like ________ people until they execute the assigned mission.
A)different
B)foreign
C)normal
D)extremist-looking
Q3) Terrorism is recognized as:
A)Violent
B)Peaceful
C)Friendly
D)Confusing
Q4) Something that many acts of terrorism have in common is a political _______.
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