Physiology for Physical Therapy
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human physiology with a focus on concepts relevant to physical therapy practice. Students will study the fundamental mechanisms underlying the function of major organ systems including musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, and endocrine and understand how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Emphasis will be placed on physiological responses to exercise, injury, and rehabilitation, linking theory to clinical applications. Through lectures, case studies, and practical demonstrations, students will gain the knowledge necessary to apply physiological principles to patient assessment and evidence-based therapeutic interventions in physical therapy settings.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin
T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which of the abdominopelvic regions must be included?
A)Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac
B)Right hypochondriac, right lumbar, and right iliac
C)Right iliac, hypogastric, and left iliac
D)Right lumbar, umbilical, and left lumbar
Answer: A
Q2) An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is called a(n):
A)tissue.
B)organism.
C)system.
D)organ.
Answer: A
Q3) The reproductive system includes all of the following except the: A)testes.
B)ovaries.
C)ureter.
D)penis.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body. Answer: Answers will vary.
Q2) Homeostasis can best be described as:
A)a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms.
B)a state of relative constancy.
C)adaptation to the external environment.
D)changes in body temperature.
Answer: B
Q3) Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q4) Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis?
A)Circulatory
B)Endocrine
C)Lymphatic
D)Reproductive
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acids are electrolytes that produce OH ions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A few inorganic compounds contain both C-C bonds but no inorganic compound has a C-H bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The octet rule refers to the:
A)stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight.
B)stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level.
C)stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than protons.
D)principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms.
Answer: B
Q4) Explain the types of chemical reactions discussed in this chapter, and give the formula for each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Q2) A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of RNA?
A)It contains ribose sugar.
B)It contains adenine.
C)It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.
D)All of the above are true of RNA.
Q4) Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
Q5) The quaternary structure of a protein contains more than one polypeptide chain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G, what would the bases be on the other side of the molecule? On what do you base your answer?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell connections that form tunnels between cells and are found in heart muscles
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign material is the:
A)lysosome.
B)Golgi apparatus.
C)ribosome.
D)centriole.
Q3) What are molecular motors, and what is their function in the cell?
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be:
A)isotonic.
B)hypotonic.
C)hypertonic.
D)hydrostatic.
Q2) The process of glycolysis does not occur in a specific organelle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of:
A)endocytosis.
B)the sodium and potassium pump.
C)channel-mediated transport.
D)carrier-mediated transport.
Q4) An enzyme eliminates the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
Q2) The terms cytokinesis and mitosis mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
Q2) Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her doctor advised her that she is over-fat. What might be the explanation for this assessment?
Q3) Which of the following is not a primary germ layer in the embryo?
A)Hypoderm
B)Ectoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)Endoderm
Q4) Name and differentiate the two types of stem cells. What are some possible uses for stem cells?
Q5) Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the different types of tissues can accomplish this task.
Q6) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A)Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body
B)Is important in communication and control
C)Covers and protects body surfaces
D)Lines the interior of body cavities
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?
Q2) Oligodendrocytes help destroy damaged tissue and pathogens in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the:
A)heart.
B)lungs.
C)bones.
D)intestines.
Q4) Apocrine gland cells die as a result of their functioning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body
A)Neuron
B)Neuroglia
C)Axon
D)Soma
E)Dendrite
Q6) Describe the structure of bone and cartilage tissue. Explain how the difference in structure affects the healing ability of both types of tissue.
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypodermis is the deepest layer of skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Normally about 10% to 12% of all cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin?
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin K
D)All of the above
Q4) Layer that is absent in thin skin; cells are filled with a gel-like substance called eleidin
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
E)Stratum basale
Q5) Explain the two ways in which body surface area can be estimated.
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoclasts are large, multinucleate cells that erode bone minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by forming wider osteons to help better distribute the stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The growth of intramembranous bone begins with the formation of a cluster of osteoblasts called ossification centers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The compact bone that is superficial to the diploë in the skull is called the external table.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Transverse canals are located in the center of the osteon.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones does not contain paranasal sinuses?
A)Frontal
B)Maxilla
C)Zygomatic
D)Sphenoid
Q2) Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)Scapula
B)Vertebra
C)Parietal
D)Mandible
Q3) In a newborn, the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following bones is not a part of the face?
A)Frontal
B)Zygomatic
C)Lacrimal
D)Maxilla
Q5) Describe the bones of the skull.
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medial malleolus
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q2) Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the:
A)elbow.
B)shoulder.
C)wrist.
D)thumb.
Q4) What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks?
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Closed, pillowlike structures formed from synovial membrane
A)Articular cartilage
B)Synovial membrane
C)Joint cavity
D)Menisci
E)Joint capsule
F)Ligaments
G)Bursae
Q2) The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with the acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Saddle joints in the body can be found between the:
A)tibia and the femur.
B)thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist.
C)humerus and the glenoid fossa.
D)atlas and the occipital bone.
Q4) Describe the anatomical structure of bursae.
Q5) Differentiate among uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints.
Q6) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The covering of individual muscle fibers is the:
A)epimysium.
B)endomysium.
C)periosteum.
D)perimysium.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect?
A)They are paired muscles.
B)They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract.
C)The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow.
D)All of the above statements are correct.
Q3) The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance or weight to be moved is a _____-class lever.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q4) Differentiate among the endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium.
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: A)deltoid.
B)infraspinatus.
C)supraspinatus.
D)teres minor.
Q2) The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the:
A)biceps brachii.
B)brachialis.
C)brachioradialis.
D)triceps brachii.
Q3) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh?
A)Adductor longus
B)Gracilis
C)Iliopsoas
D)Sacrospinalis
Q5) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an isotonic contraction, the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Single-unit smooth muscle is another term for visceral muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Excitability and irritability are interchangeable terms in regard to muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For continued, efficient nutrient catabolism by muscle fibers, both glucose and oxygen are required.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction?
A)T-tubules
B)Motor neuron
C)Motor end plate
D)All of the structures are part of the neuromuscular junction.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathways from the autonomic nervous system that leave the CNS from the brain would be sympathetic pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Astrocytes attach to: A)neurons.
B)oligodendrocytes.
C)blood vessels.
D)both A and C.
Q3) What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia?
Q4) The myelin sheath is formed by:
A)Nissl bodies.
B)nodes of Ranvier.
C)Schwann cells.
D)neuron cell bodies.
Q5) The microglia engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What two systems perform the vital functions of communication and integration of body processes?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The neuron is able to maintain an internal negative charge by pumping out sodium (Na ) and pumping in chloride (Cl-).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synapses between axons are the most common synapses in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is a time when a neuron will not send a nerve impulse no matter how strong the stimulus is.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The influx of sodium ions causes the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic knob.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ascending tracts carry only sensory information, whereas descending pathways carry only motor information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the structure and major functions of the brainstem.
Q3) Explain how the cerebrum and cerebellum are similar to a negative-feedback mechanism in terms of controlling the movement of skeletal muscles.
Q4) Under normal brain functioning, activation of the reticular activating system (RAS) produces consciousness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the major functions of the thalamus is its influence on the activity of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
Q2) Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root?
A)It is also called the posterior root.
B)It includes the spinal ganglion.
C)It includes sensory fibers.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Sympathetic chain and sympathetic rami refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vagus nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium. Which of the following cranial nerves may be causing this condition?
A)Accessory
B)Glossopharyngeal
C)Hypoglossal
D)Vestibulocochlear
Q6) List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves.
Q7) What is a dermatome? What is a myotome?
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time.
B)Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers.
C)The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an "emergency" system.
D)Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin.
Q2) Nicotinic receptors are located on the dendrites of all preganglionic neurons of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except:
A)sweat glands.
B)skin blood vessels.
C)the liver.
D)the urinary bladder.
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activated by heat or cold
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Mechanoreceptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Photoreceptors
E)Thermoreceptors
Q2) Tonic proprioceptors allow us to know the location of our body parts without having to look.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Ruffini corpuscle is an example of a bulboid corpuscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Olfactory receptors and taste buds are chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Walking would stimulate tonic proprioceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) The number of pure, or "primary," tastes is about:
A)5.
B)15.
C)30.
D)100.
Q2) The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The semicircular canals are in _____ planes of the body.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q4) Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the cochlear membrane can stimulate nerve impulse conduction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? Where are the sense organs for each located?
26
Q6) In a generalized manner, describe the dual sensory functions of the ear.
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Hormone that targets another endocrine gland
A)Synergism
B)Steroid hormone
C)Second messenger
D)Target cell
E)Upregulation
F)Antagonism
G)Prostaglandin
H)Tropic hormone
I)Nonsteroid hormone
J)Permissiveness
Q2) Steroid hormones tend to generate a rapid response in their target cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The endocrine system can regulate most cells in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aspirin and ibuprofen produce some of their effects by inhibiting PGA synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure referred to historically as the master gland is the:
A)pituitary.
B)adrenals.
C)hypothalamus.
D)thyroid.
Q2) The release of ADH and oxytocin is controlled by nervous stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glucocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal glands?
A)Zona glomerulosa
B)Zona fasciculata
C)Zona reticularis
D)Both B and C
Q4) The function of prolactin is to stimulate the secretion of milk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hypercalcemia may be a cause of muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure.
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) Antithrombins are important in clot formation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hematocrit and serum are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot
A)Tissue factor
B)Calcium
C)Fibrinogen
D)Prothrombin activator
E)Fibrin
F)Prothrombin
G)Vitamin K
H)Thrombin
I)Plasmin
Q4) People who live and work in high altitudes often have elevated red blood cell numbers.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Q1) Structure through which conduction moves most slowly
A)Interatrial bundles
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Sinoatrial node
D)Purkinje fibers
E)Bundles of His
F)Internodal bundles
Q2) The period between the filling of the ventricles and the opening of the semilunar valves is called:
A)atrial systole.
B)isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C)isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D)passive ventricular filling.
Q3) Depolarization of the ventricles is:
A)clearly depicted by the QRS complex.
B)masked by the massive ventricular depolarization.
C)masked by the massive ventricular repolarization.
D)none of the above.
Q4) Define cardiac tamponade and explain how it can affect the heart.
Q5) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Regarding fetal circulation, the small vessel connecting the pulmonary artery with the descending thoracic aorta is called the:
A)ductus arteriosus.
B)foramen ovale.
C)ductus venosus.
D)umbilical artery.
Q2) Adrenal gland
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
Q3) Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls. Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels.
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) ANH and ADH work synergistically to increase total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two important baroreceptors are located in the aorta and the carotid artery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The velocity of blood flow slows in the capillaries in association with an increase in total cross-sectional area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the:
A)arteries.
B)arterioles.
C)venules.
D)capillaries.
Q5) Because of their small diameter, capillaries account for almost all the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and explain the reflexes that affect heart rate.
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph enters a node via:
A)afferent lymph vessels.
B)efferent lymph vessels. C)sinuses.
D)trabeculae.
Q2) After puberty, the thymus decreases in size; this process is called involution.
A)True B)False
Q3) Lymph nodes provide both biological and mechanical filtration.
A)True B)False
Q4) Lymph nodes may range from 1 mm to more than 20 mm in diameter. A)True B)False
Q5) The cisterna chyli is in the thoracic cavity just inferior to the left subclavian vein. A)True B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
Q7) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toll-like receptors on the cell membrane can be seen as a midpoint between specific and nonspecific immunity.
A)True B)False
Q2) One reason for species resistance is the difference in molecules on the cell membrane of different species.
A)True B)False
Q3) Phagocytosis is the "first line of defense" in nonspecific immunity. A)True B)False
Q4) Phagocytosis is a nonspecific defense mechanism. A)True B)False
Q5) Interferon inhibits the spread of: A)viruses.
B)bacteria. C)cancer. D)yeast.
Q6) Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppressor T cells help B cells differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells by secreting cytokines such as interleukin-2 and interleukin-4.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An activated B cell can give rise to both plasma cells and memory cells. A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how complement is activated and can produce cytolysis in the process of humoral immunity.
Q4) The antibody associated with allergic reaction is: A)IgE.
B)IgG.
C)IgM.
D)IgA.
Q5) Chris has very bad allergic reactions, especially in the springtime. He decided to seek medical help to overcome these reactions. A physician explained that Chris needed an antihistamine to limit the allergic symptoms. Explain why an antihistamine will help Chris be more comfortable while he is experiencing spring hay fever.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a result of applying various stressors to research animals, Selye was able to produce a triad of body changes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cerebral plasticity refers to the brain's ability to adapt and change its structure based on repeated behaviors, environmental stimuli, emotions, and thoughts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______refers to the cumulative effect of long-term exposure to stress.
A)Stress syndrome
B)Stress response
C)Allostatic load
D)Allostatic overload
Q4) Define stress.
Q5) Frequent stress from multiple sources can produce an allostatic load.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the research that led to the development of Selye's theory on stress.
Q7) How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result?
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vocal cords and epiglottis are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the respiratory membrane?
A)Ciliated respiratory mucosa
B)Alveolar epithelium
C)Capillary epithelium
D)All of the above are part of the respiratory membrane.
Q3) All of the paranasal sinuses drain into the nasal cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first part of the bronchial tree that does not contain cartilage as part of its structure is the alveolar ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased.
Q6) There are almost 30 million alveoli in the two lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q7) List the functions of the nose.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal, quiet breathing is known as:
A)orthopnea.
B)hyperpnea.
C)dyspnea.
D)eupnea.
Q2) Pulmonary ventilation is a technical term for what most people call breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A collapsed lung has no air in it and will sink if placed in water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Typical volume of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing
A)Tidal volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Inspiratory reserve volume
D)Expiratory reserve volume
E)Residual volume
F)Minimal air
Q5) Explain the diving reflex.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in carbon dioxide would have the opposite effect on oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation than would a drop in blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The symbol HbNCOOH- is used for:
A)carbonic anhydrase.
B)carbaminohemoglobin.
C)the heme group.
D)the bicarbonate ion.
Q3) The terms oxygen partial pressure and oxygen tension are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is one iron atom in one heme group.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the lung oxygen moves down its pressure gradient, whereas carbon dioxide moves up its pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to enamel, the outer shell of the tooth has two additional dental tissues: dentin and gingivae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following organs has a mucosa layer composed of stratified squamous epithelium that resists abrasion?
A)Esophagus
B)Stomach
C)Small intestine
D)Large intestine
Q3) central part of the stomach
A)Pharynx
B)Body of the stomach
C)Esophagus
D)Fundus of the stomach
E)Pylorus of the stomach
Q4) List the functions of the stomach.
Q5) The esophagus is anterior to the trachea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right angle between the transverse colon and the ascending colon is the:
A)costal angle.
B)hepatic flexure.
C)left colonic bend.
D)splenic flexure.
Q2) Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells.
A)chief
B)alpha
C)Kupffer
D)hepatic
Q3) The point at which the small intestine changes from the jejunum to the ileum is marked by a change in the diameter of the intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the gallbladder?
Q6) Name and give the location of the four parts of the colon.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enterokinase is converted to trypsinogen by trypsin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Segmentation is described as a wavelike muscle contraction in a hollow organ that moves food through the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a stage in deglutition?
A)Gastric
B)Oral
C)Pharyngeal
D)Esophageal
Q4) The parietal cells of the stomach do not produce which of the following?
A)Pepsinogen
B)Hydrochloric acid
C)Intrinsic factor
D)The parietal cell of the stomach produces all of the above.
Q5) Bile is involved in both secretion and excretion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyruvate has twice the number of carbon atoms as does glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The acetyl group is carried to the citric acid cycle by coenzyme A.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the usual function of vitamins? Name three vitamins and explain their function.
Q4) First process in carbohydrate metabolism; occurs in the cytoplasm
A)Citric acid cycle
B)Glycogenesis
C)LDL
D)Glycolysis
E)Leptin
F)Electron transport system
G)HDL
H)Incretins
I)Cori cycle
Q5) Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate.
Q6) Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any material such as water or glucose that enters the collecting duct will be lost to the body in the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What effect do aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on urine volume?
A)Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules doesn't require ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work separately from the ADH mechanism to maintain homeostasis of the fluid content in the body.
B)Both aldosterone and ADH decrease distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that drives the reabsorption of water from the tubule.
C)Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules requires ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work in concert with the ADH mechanism if homeostasis of the fluid content in the body is to be maintained.
D)Both aldosterone and ADH increase distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that stops the reabsorption of water from the tubule.
Q3) What structures make up the renal corpuscle?
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44
Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration?
A)Intravenous
B)Subcutaneous
C)Intramuscular
D)By mouth
Q2) Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: A)capillaries. B)cells. C)veins.
D)intercellular spaces.
Q3) Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the: A)kidney.
B)liver. C)lung.
D)intestine.
Q4) The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
A)True B)False
Q5) How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the body, which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong acid such as HCl?
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
B)Hemoglobin
C)NaHCO<sub>3</sub>
D)None of the above
Q2) The breakdown of ribonucleotides produces phosphoric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Toxic accumulation of acidic ketone bodies is a common complication of untreated: A)kidney disease.
B)diabetes mellitus.
C)respiratory distress syndrome.
D)deficiency of carbonic anhydrase in the blood.
Q4) Because intracellular fluid is in equilibrium with interstitial fluid and blood plasma, it also has a pH of 7.41.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH?
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paired glands that contribute a fluid rich in fructose to seminal fluid
A)Semen
B)Androgen
C)Testes
D)Prostate
E)Gamete
F)Testosterone
G)Gonads
H)Spermatogenesis
I)Bulbourethral
J)Spermatozoon
K)Vas deferens
L)Seminal vesicles
M)Sustentacular cells
N)Epididymis
O)Penis
P)Scrotum
Q)Genitalia
R)Corpus cavernosum
Q2) Describe the functions of the testes.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater vestibular glands in the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands in the male.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The final stage in the process of ovarian follicle development is the:
A)corpus hemorrhagicum.
B)corpus luteum.
C)corpus albicans.
D)mature follicle.
Q3) The perineum has great clinical importance because of the danger of it being torn during childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Going from medial to lateral, the parts of the uterine tubes are isthmus, ampulla, and infundibulum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Condition that results from clouding of the lens, which causes a loss of transparency that impairs vision
A)Atherosclerosis
B)Arteriosclerosis
C)Stroke
D)Osteoarthritis
E)"Barrel chest"
F)Lipping
G)Cataract
H)Hypertension
I)Glaucoma
J)Presbyopia
Q2) A nonfunctioning yolk sac could hinder the fetus in:
A)receiving proper nutrition.
B)producing blood cells.
C)receiving enough oxygen.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Describe (or diagram) the hormone levels during pregnancy.
Q4) Explain the process of fertilization. How does the female reproductive system assist the sperm in reaching the ovum?
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statistical evidence supports a link between time of insemination and the sex of the offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If "A" stands for the dominant gene that prevents albinism and "a" stands for the recessive albinism trait, then an individual with the genotype of "aa" will express:
A)albinism and will be a carrier.
B)albinism and will not be a carrier.
C)normal pigmentation and will be a carrier.
D)normal pigmentation and will not be a carrier.
Q3) The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called:
A)diploid.
B)haploid.
C)nucleosomes.
D)genome.
Q4) The ultimate goal behind gene augmentation is to change existing body cells.
A)True
B)False
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