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Course Introduction
Physiology for Allied Health provides an in-depth overview of the fundamental principles of human physiology with an emphasis on systems relevant to allied health professions. The course covers key topics such as cellular physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, renal, and endocrine systems, linking structure to function and explaining mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Through interactive lectures and applied laboratory exercises, students gain a practical understanding of physiological processes and their relevance to health, disease prevention, and patient care, preparing them to interpret clinical data and support positive health outcomes in a variety of allied health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Q1) Homeostasis is maintained by ____________________ mechanisms. Answer: negative feedback
Q2) sweating
A)controlled variable
B)integrator
C)sensor
D)effector
E)effect to bring about change
Answer: E
Q3) Most body cells are not in direct contact with the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Secretion refers to the release from a cell, in response to appropriate stimulation, of specific products that have in large part been synthesized by the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) ____________________ cells are specialized to send electrical signals.
Answer: nerve
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Q1) The function of the microtrabecular lattice is
A) to maintain asymmetrical cell shapes.
B) to suspend and functionally link the largest cytoskeletal elements and organelles.
C) to provide for cellular contractile systems.
D) to serve as mechanical stiffeners.
E) serve as the chief structural units of cilia.
Answer: B
Q2) The lysosomes contain oxidative enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Secretory vesicles are released to the exterior of the cell by means of the process of phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Foreign material to be attacked by lysosomal enzymes is brought into the cell by the process of ____________________.
Answer: endocytosis
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Q1) Because a solution of lower solute concentration has a higher concentration of water, it exerts a lower osmotic pressure than does a solution with a higher solute concentration.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) By active transport a substance moves from an area of ____________________ concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
Answer: lower, higher
Q3) Active transport is a kind of ____________________ transport.
Answer: carrier-mediated
Q4) cation to which the membrane is most permeable under resting conditions
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)K<sup>+</sup>
C)A<sup>-</sup>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
Answer: B

Page 5
Q5) ____________________ are connecting tunnels in gaps between adjacent cells.
Answer: connexons
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Q1) The nerve fiber is another name for the nucleus of a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A. concentration of Na<sup>+</sup> in the extracellular fluid
B. concentration of Na<sup>+</sup> in the intracellular fluid of a nerve cell immediately following an action potential (assume that the Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump has not yet acted)
A)A is greater than B.
B)B is greater than A.
C)A and B are equal.
Q3) Releases factors such as CRF.
A)applies to the endocrine system
B)applies to the nervous system
C)applies to both the endocrine and nervous systems
Q4) cAMP acts with the target cell's DNA to carry out the chemical messenger's action.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Axon terminal possess ____________________ voltage-gated channels that when operational induce neurotransmitter release.
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Q1) Similar EEG to an alert person
A)Slow-wave
B)Paradoxical
Q2) involves transient modifications in function of preexisting synapses
A)short-term memory
B)long-term memory
Q3) An electroencephalogram
A) is a record of action potential activity in the cerebral cortex.
B) represents the momentary collective postsynaptic activity in the cerebral cortex.
C) displays larger brain waves when the eyes are open than when the eyes are closed.
D) both (a) and (c) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q4) Majority of sleep spent in this phase
A)Slow-wave
B)Paradoxical
Q5) Afferent division
Q6) About 90% of the cells in the CNS are ____________________ cells.
Q7) Describe the organization of the nervous system.
8
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Q1) corrected by cylindrical lens
A)color blindness
B)night blindness
C)glaucoma
D)hyperopia
E)diplopia
F)presbyopia
G)myopia lens
H)cataract
I)astigmatism
Q2) The smaller the receptive fields in a region, the
A) greater the density of receptors in the region.
B) greater the acuity in the region.
C) more cortical space allotted for sensory reception from the region.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) The senses of taste, hearing and smell rely on chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Myopia is another name for ____________________.
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Q1) Have equal affinity for epinephrine and norepinephrine.
A)nicotinic receptors
B)muscarinic receptors
C)alpha receptors
D)Beta 1 receptors
E)Beta 2 receptors
Q2) Binds with ACH receptor sites.
A)myasthenia gravis
B)black widow spider venom
C)curare
D)Clostridium botulinum toxin
E)organophosphates
Q3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic activity at the salivary glands is antagonistic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Originates in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the CNS.
A)sympathetic nervous system
B)parasympathetic nervous system
C)both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
D)somatic system
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Q1) Displays pacemaker potentials and slow-wave potentials.
A)skeletal muscle only
B)single-unit smooth muscle only
C)cardiac muscle only
D)skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
E)skeletal muscle and single-unit smooth muscle
F)single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
G)skeletal, single-unit smooth, and cardiac muscles
Q2) The origin of a muscle is its
A) main, thick part of this structure.
B) middle, thin part of this structure.
C) movable end of attachment.
D) source of development in the fetus.
E) stationary end of attachment.
Q3) ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as contractile proteins, whereas ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as regulatory proteins.
Q4) Tendons attach muscles to bones.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The heart valves open and close due to
A) attachment to the heart muscle.
B) a pressure difference on the two sides of the valve.
C) Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization.
D) turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) Valve does not open completely.
A)valvular stenosis
B)valvular insufficiency
Q3) The membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells at rest is about ____ mV.
A) -110
B) -90
C) -70
D) -50
E) -30
Q4) ____________________ is the insufficient circulation of oxygenated blood to cardiac muscle to maintain its aerobic metabolism.
Q5) An increase in the length of the cardiac muscle fibers prior to contraction ____________________ the stroke volume.
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Q1) The major resistance vessels of the body are the A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) lymphatics.
E) veins.
Q2) These vessels allow blood to bypass capillary beds:
A) arterioles.
B) capillaries.
C) metarterioles.
D) arteries.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) Each of the following factors promotes the function of the capillaries except A) a blood pressure forcing fluid out of these vessels.
B) a small total surface area.
C) an osmotic pressure drawing fluid into these vessels.
D) pores in the endothelial wall.
E) thin walls.
Q4) The primary mechanism for exchange of individual solutes across the capillary wall is ____________________.
Page 13
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Q1) Vitamin B12 is not absorbed.
A)aplastic anemia
B)pernicious anemia
C)hemolytic anemia
D)hemorrhagic anemia
E)polycythemia
F)leukemia
G)neutrophilia
H)sickle cell anemia
Q2) Albumin belongs to the group of ____ in the blood plasma.
A) hormones.
B) electrolytes.
C) proteins.
D) gases (O<sub>2</sub>, CO<sub>2</sub>, N<sub>2</sub>).
E) red blood cells.
Q3) ____________________ ions switch on the contractile apparatus needed for the crawling-like motion of a leukocyte.
Q4) Consist of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat.
A)pertains to bacteria
B)pertains to viruses

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Q1) PO? in the blood
A) refers to the pressure exerted by the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood.
B) is the most important factor determining the percent saturation of hemoglobin.
C) is normal in carbon monoxide poisoning.
D) two of these answers.
E) all of these answers.
Q2) Describe the mechanics of ventilation.
Q3) tidal volume
Q4) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine release lead to an increase in airway resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The respiratory system provides a route for water and heat elimination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How are respiratory events regulated?
Q7) inspiratory reserve volume
Q8) Contraction of the external ____________________ muscles elevates the ribs.
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Q1) Glomerular filtration
A) occurs in the loop of Henle.
B) is the process by which plasma water, electrolytes, and small molecules, which enter Bowman's capsule, are separated from blood cells and protein, which remain in the glomerular capillaries.
C) is the process by which a substance is transported from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillaries.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) What mechanisms are responsible for producing concentrated urine?
A) the juxtamedullary nephrons become active.
B) the counter-current mechanism pulls out much water.
C) vasopressin causes facultative water reabsorption in distal tubule.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Increased vasopressin secretion _____ Na<sup>+</sup> reabsorption.
A)increases
B)decreases
C)has no effect on
Q4) ____________________ is the inability to prevent the discharge of urine.
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Q1) The amount of salt in sweat is the major, controlled excretion of salt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Normal blood pH
A) is slightly basic.
B) is slightly alkaline.
C) falls between 7.35 and 7.45.
D) varies greatly.
E) both (a) and (c) above.
Q3) When large amounts of pure water are consumed
A) the volume of the ICF will decrease.
B) the volume of the ECF will decrease.
C) the ECF becomes hypertonic to the ICF.
D) osmolarities of the ICF and ECF will drop.
E) vasopressin will be released
Q4) Describe how the body responds to a substantial drop in ECF pH.
Q5) Sodium is the primary ______cation, and potassium is primarily found in the
Q6) When total body input of a particular substance equals its total body output, a(n) ____________________ balance exists.
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Q1) What role do micelles and chylomicrons play in fat absorption?
Q2) The primary wave of peristalsis in the esophagus is initiated by the ____________________. If this primary wave fails to push the bolus to the stomach, a secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by the ____________________.
Q3) Mixing movements
A) promote digestion by mixing food with digestive juices.
B) facilitate absorption by exposing luminal contents to absorptive surfaces.
C) take place only in the stomach.
D) promote digestion by mixing food with digestive juices and facilitates absorption by exposing luminal contents to absorptive surfaces.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) The primary mixing and propulsive motility of the small intestine is
Q5) The rate of gastric emptying is influenced by factors both in the stomach and in the duodenum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________________ is a common passageway for both the digestive and respiratory systems.
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Q1) Cachetin is a ____ associated with a ____.
A) carbohydrate, high blood sugar.
B) carbohydrate, chronic wasting condition.
C) lipid, type of obesity.
D) protein, chronic wasting condition.
E) protein, type of obesity.
Q2) 5,300 calories is ____ kilocalories.
A) 00.53
B) 0.53
C) 5.3
D) 53
E) 5,300,000
Q3) About ____ kilocalories of energy is liberated by consumption of 3 liters of oxygen.
A) 4.8
B) 9.6
C) 14.4
D) 19.2
E) 24
Q4) Describe some of the mechanisms that increase or suppress appetite.
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Q1) Increased renin-angiotensin _____ aldosterone.
A)increases
B)decreases
C)has little or no effect on
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning adrenocortical hormones is incorrect?
A) the glucocorticoids are examples.
B) some are steroids.
C) they are all controlled primarily by TSH.
D) they are secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal gland.
E) aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of melatonin?
A) induces natural sleep
B) suppresses reproductive hormones
C) plays a role in breeding behavior
D) enhances immunity
E) all of the above are functions
Q4) The ____________________ is the principal site for metabolic interconversions of nutrient molecules.
Q5) TSH
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Q1) 2 of the 46 chromosomes in a human body cell are ____________________.
Q2) Describe the regulation of the ovarian and uterine cycles.
Q3) During pregnancy mammary gland development is stimulated by A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) prolactin.
D) human chorionic somatomammotropin.
E) all these answers.
Q4) Dominates follicular phase.
A)estrogen
B)progesterone
C)both estrogen and progesterone
Q5) Human cells have 23 pairs of sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Androgen-binding protein retains testosterone within the seminiferous tubules because the lipid soluble steroid would diffuse easily out of the lumen in its absence.
A)True
B)False
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