Physics for Scientists and Engineers Study Guide Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of physics with a strong emphasis on problem-solving and analytical reasoning, tailored for science and engineering majors. Topics include classical mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, optics, and modern physics, with a focus on mathematical modeling and real-world applications. Through lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiments, students develop a deep understanding of physical laws and their relevance to scientific and technological advancements, preparing them for further study and professional work in technical fields.

Recommended Textbook Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 8.0 m2?

A)8.0 × 10-4 cm2

B)8.0 × 102 cm2

C)8.0 × 10-2 cm2

D)8.0 × 104 cm2

E)8.0 × 103 cm2

Answer: D

Q2) A bug crawls 2.25 m along the base of a wall. Upon reaching a corner, the bug's direction of travel changes from south to west. The bug then crawls 3.15 m before stopping. What is the magnitude of the bug's displacement?

A)5.40 m

B)2.72 m

C)3.87 m

D)4.11 m

E)3.29 m

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Q1) At which time or times does the object reverse its direction of motion?

A)1 s and 2 s

B)2 s and 5 s

C)1 s

D)2 s

E)5 s

Answer: E

Q2) A ball is dropped from rest from a tower and strikes the ground 110 m below. Approximately how many seconds does it take the ball to strike the ground after being dropped? Neglect air resistance.

A)2.50 s

B)3.50 s

C)4,74 s

D)12.5 s

E)16.0 s

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Q1) At time t = 0 s, a puck is sliding on a horizontal table with a velocity 3.60 m/s, 35.0° above the +x axis. As the puck slides, a constant acceleration acts on it that has the following components: ax = -0.360 m/s2 and ay = -0.980 m/s2. What is the velocity of the puck at time t = 1.50 s?

A)1.83 m/s, 12.0° above the +x axis

B)2.04 m/s, 21.2° above the +x axis

C)1.06 m/s, 11.7° above the +x axis

D)2.48 m/s, 13.9° above the +x axis

E)1.38 m/s, 15.2° above the +x axis

Answer: D

Q2) What was the magnitude of the acceleration of the spaceship during the 25 seconds?

A)1.5 m/s2

B)7.3 m/s2

C)28 m/s2

D)48 m/s2

E)57 m/s2

Answer: E

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) Suppose that the block now moves across the surface with constant speed under the action of a horizontal 3.0-N force. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false?

A)The block is not accelerated.

B)The net force on the block is zero newtons.

C)The frictional force on the block has magnitude 3.0 N.

D)The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is 0.30.

E)The direction of the total force that the surface exerts on the block is vertically upward.

Q2) What is the minimum coefficient of static friction necessary to keep the top block from slipping on the bottom block?

A)0.05

B)0.10

C)0.20

D)0.30

E)0.40

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Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Q1) The record for the highest speed achieved in a laboratory for a uniformly rotating object was 2.01 × 103 m/s for a 0.15-m long carbon rod. What was the period of rotation of the rod?

A)7.4 × 10-5 s

B)3.1 × 10-4 s

C)4.7 × 10-4 s

D)5.2 × 10-3 s

E)1.3 × 10-3 s

Q2) The second hand on a watch has a length of 4.50 mm and makes one revolution in 60.00 s. What is the speed of the end of the second hand as it moves in uniform circular motion?

A)9.42 × 10-4 m/s

B)2.67 × 10-3 m/s

C)5.34 × 10-3 m/s

D)4.71 × 10-4 m/s

E)2.36 × 10-5 m/s

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) A rock is thrown straight up from the surface of the Earth. Which one of the following statements describes the energy transformation of the rock as it rises? Neglect air resistance.

A)The total energy of the rock increases.

B)The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy decreases.

C)Both the potential energy and the total energy of the rock increase.

D)The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy increases.

E)Both the kinetic energy and the potential energy of the rock remain the same.

Q2) Mike is cutting the grass using a human-powered lawn mower. He pushes the mower with a force of 45 N directed at an angle of 41° below the horizontal direction. Calculate the work that Mike does on the mower each time he pushes it 9.1 m across the yard.

A)510 J

B)260 J

C)410 J

D)360 J

E)310 J

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Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning center of mass is true?

A)All of an object's mass is located at its center of mass.

B)The center of mass of an object must be located within the object.

C)The center of mass of a system of objects cannot change even if there are forces acting on the objects.

D)The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is greatly affected by a collision of objects within the system.

E)The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is constant when the sum of the external forces acting on the system is zero.

Q2) A 0.050-kg lump of clay moving horizontally at 12 m/s strikes and sticks to a stationary 0.15-kg cart that can move on a frictionless air track. Determine the speed of the cart and clay after the collision.

A)zero m/s

B)3 m/s

C)6 m/s

D)9 m/s

E)12 m/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the ratio of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the end of the rod to that of a point a distance L/2 from the end of the rod?

A)1:1

B)1:2

C)2:1

D)4:1

E)1:4

Q2) A circular hula hoop rolls upright without slipping on a flat horizontal surface. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

A)All points on the rim of the hoop have the same speed.

B)All points on the rim of the hoop have the same velocity.

C)Every point on the rim of the wheel has a different velocity.

D)All points on the rim of the hoop have acceleration vectors that are tangent to the hoop.

E)All points on the rim of the hoop have acceleration vectors that point toward the center of the hoop.

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 1.0-kg wheel in the form of a solid disk rolls along a horizontal surface with a speed of 6.0 m/s. What is the total kinetic energy of the wheel?

A)9.0 J

B)18 J

C)27 J

D)36 J

E)54 J

Q2) What is the total kinetic energy of the hoop?

A)36 J

B)54 J

C)72 J

D)96 J

E)140 J

Q3) What is the angular speed of the skaters after they have linked together?

A)4 rad/s

B)5 rad/s

C)10 rad/s

D)20 rad/s

E)40 rad/s

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complete the following statement: In order to calculate the "stress" on the box, in addition to the information given, one must also know

A)the mass of the box.

B)the bulk modulus of the material from which the box is made.

C)the shear modulus of the material from which the box is made.

D)the Young's modulus of the material from which the box is made.

E)the bulk modulus of the liquid.

Q2) A simple harmonic oscillator with a period of 2.0 s is subject to damping so that it loses one percent of its amplitude per cycle. About how much energy does this oscillator lose per cycle?

A)0.5 %

B)1.0 %

C)2.0 %

D)3.0 %

E)4.0 %

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Chapter 11: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pirate's treasure chest lies 20.0 m below the surface of the ocean. What is the magnitude of the force that acts on the rectangular top that is 0.750 m × 0.425 m?

A)980 N

B)2.39 × 103 N

C)9.48 × 104 N

D)4.71 × 105 N

E)2.00 × 106 N

Q2) The two dams are identical with the exception that the water reservoir behind dam A extends twice the horizontal distance behind it as that of dam B. Which one of the following statements regarding these dams is correct?

A)The force exerted by the water on dam A is greater than that on dam B.

B)The force exerted by the water on dam B is greater than that on dam A.

C)Dam A is more likely to collapse than dam B if the water level rises.

D)Dam B is more likely to collapse than dam A if the water level rises.

E)The horizontal distance of the water behind the two dams does not determine the force on them.

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) The digital sign outside a local bank reports that the temperature is 41 °C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

A)79 °F

B)99 °F

C)106 °F

D)111 °F

E)120 °F

Q2) Complete the following statement: The term heat most accurately describes

A)the internal energy of an object.

B)a measure of how hot an object is.

C)the absolute temperature of an object.

D)the molecular motion inside of an object.

E)the flow of energy due to a temperature difference.

Q3) Complete the following statement: When solid NH3 passes directly to the gaseous state it is said to A)melt.

B)sublime.

C)condense.

D)evaporate. E)fuse.

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Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) Which one of the following statements best explains why convection does not occur in solids?

A)Molecules in a solid are more closely spaced than in a gas.

B)The molecules in a solid are not free to move throughout the volume of the solid.

C)Molecules in a solid vibrate at a lower frequency than those in a liquid.

D)Solids are more compressible than liquids.

E)Solids are less compressible than gases.

Q2) A blue supergiant star has a radius of 7.4 × 1010 m. The spherical surface behaves as a blackbody radiator. If the surface temperature is 2.4 × 104 K, what is the rate at which energy is radiated from the star?

A)1.2 × 103 J/s

B)9.4 × 1019 J/s

C)2.0 × 1023 J/s

D)8.2 × 1032 J/s

E)1.3 × 1033 J/s

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Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Helium gas at 20 °C is confined within a rigid vessel. The gas is then heated until its pressure is doubled. What is the final temperature of the gas?

A)10 °C

B)20 °C

C)40 °C

D)313 °C

E)586 °C

Q2) Calculate the rms speed of the carbon dioxide molecules in the air if the temperature is 15.0 °C. Note: The mass of the carbon dioxide molecule is 44.01 u.

A)316 m/s

B)469 m/s

C)378 m/s

D)404 m/s

E)511 m/s

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) An engine is used to lift a 2700-kg truck to a height of 3.0 m at constant speed. In the lifting process, the engine received 4.18 × 105 J of heat from the fuel burned in its interior. What is the efficiency of the engine?

A)0.19

B)0.24

C)0.29

D)0.34

E)0.39

Q2) How much heat, in calories, was exchanged during this process?

A)-110 cal

B)-12 cal

C)zero calories

D)+121 cal

E)+231 cal

Q3) How much work is done by this closed system during this isothermal process?

A)8.37 J

B)4.20 × 103 J

C)1.21 × 104 J

D)8.58 × 105 J

E)1.94 × 106 J

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) The decibel level of a jackhammer is 125 dB relative to the threshold of hearing. Determine the sound intensity produced by the jackhammer.

A)1.0 W/m2

B)3.2 W/m2

C)4.8 W/m2

D)12 W/m2

E)88 W/m2

Q2) What is the frequency heard by a stationary observer standing in front of the car?

A)9.7 Hz

B)176 Hz

C)200 Hz

D)219 Hz

E)245 Hz

Q3) What is the amplitude of the wave?

A)2 mm

B)4 mm

C)8 mm

D)12 mm

E)16 mm

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Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sound waves are emitted from two speakers. Which one of the following statements about sound wave interference is false?

A)In a region where both destructive and constructive interference occur, energy is not conserved.

B)Destructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly out of phase when they meet.

C)Interference redistributes the energy carried by the individual waves.

D)Constructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly in phase when they meet.

E)Sound waves undergo diffraction as they exit each speaker.

Q2) A guitar string produces 4 beats/s when sounded with a 250 Hz tuning fork and 9 beats per second when sounded with a 255 Hz tuning fork. What is the vibrational frequency of the string?

A)240 Hz

B)246 Hz

C)254 Hz

D)259 Hz

E)263 Hz

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Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Two positive point charges Q and 2Q are separated by a distance R. If the charge Q experiences a force of magnitude F when the separation is R, what is the magnitude of the force on the charge 2Q when the separation is 2R ?

A)F/4

B)F/2

C)F

D)2F

E)4F

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the electrostatic charge on a conductor?

A)The charge is uniformly distributed throughout the volume.

B)The charge is confined to the surface and is uniformly distributed.

C)Most of the charge is on the outer surface, but it is not uniformly distributed.

D)The charge is entirely on the surface and it is distributed according to the shape of the object.

E)The charge is dispersed throughout the volume of the object and distributed according to the object's shape.

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) What is the electric potential energy of a +3.0 \(\mu\)C charge placed at corner A?

A)0.10 J

B)0.18 J

C)2.3 J

D)3.6 J

E)zero joules

Q2) Determine the electric potential at the point P.

A)1.1 × 109 V

B)2.2 × 109 V

C)4.5 × 109 V

D)9.0 × 109 V

E)zero volts

Q3) How much work is required to move a 1.0 C charge from infinity to the point P?

A)zero joules

B)2.2 × 109 J

C)4.5 × 109 J

D)9.0 × 109 J

E)infinity

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning superconductors is false?

A)Below its critical temperature, the resistivity of a superconductor is zero \(\varOmega\)-m.

B)Critical temperatures for some superconductors exceed 100 K.

C)All materials are superconducting at temperatures near absolute zero kelvin.

D)A constant current can be maintained in a superconducting ring for several years without an emf.

E)Superconductors are perfect conductors.

Q2) What is the current through the 1.8-\(\varOmega\) resistor?

A)2.8 A

B)3.3 A

C)5.6 A

D)6.9 A

E)14 A

Q3) Which one of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the ohm?

A)V/C

B)A/J

C)J/s

D)J.s/C2

E)W/A

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Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire?

A)0.12 N

B)0.24 N

C)0.48 N

D)67 N

E)zero newtons

Q2) An proton travels through a region of space with no acceleration. Which one of the following statements is the best conclusion?

A)Both E and B must be zero in that region.

B)E must be zero, but B might be non-zero in that region.

C)E and B might both be non-zero, but they must be mutually perpendicular.

D)B must be zero, but E might be non-zero in that region.

E)E and B might both be non-zero, but they must point in opposite directions.

Q3) What is the direction of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?

A)+x direction

B)-x direction

C)+y direction

D)-y direction

E)30° with respect to the +x direction

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the induced emf in the loop.

A)0.7 × 10-3 V

B)1.4 × 10-3 V

C)2.8 × 10-3 V

D)5.6 × 10-3 V

E)zero volts

Q2) What is the magnitude of v?

A)1.5 m/s

B)4.6 m/s

C)6.4 m/s

D)7.8 m/s

E)9.0 m/s

Q3) A 250-turn solenoid carries a current of 9.0 A. The radius of the solenoid is 0.075 m; and its length is 0.14 m. Determine the magnetic flux through the circular cross-sectional area at the center of the solenoid.

A)1.8 × 10-5 Wb

B)9.9 × 10-5 Wb

C)3.6 × 10-4 Wb

D)7.0 × 10-4 Wb

E)2.2 × 10-3 Wb

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) What is the average power dissipated in the circuit?

A)9.50 W

B)21.2 W

C)74.9 W

D)113 W

E)138 W

Q2) What is the phase angle for this circuit?

A)26°

B)-32°

C)38°

D)-40°

E)50°

Q3) What is the power factor for this circuit?

A)0.40

B)0.57

C)0.81

D)1.4

E)5.5

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Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) An FM radio station generates radio waves that have a frequency of 101.3 MHz. The frequency of the waves from a competing station have a frequency of 107.1 MHz. What is the difference in wavelength between the waves emitted from the two stations?

A)0.22 m

B)0.45 m

C)0.84 m

D)2.4 m

E)0.16 m

Q2) Suppose that A and B are interchanged so that the wave is first incident upon B. What is the average wave intensity after passing through both polarizing sheets?

A)0.19S0

B)0.34S0

C)0.43S0

D)0.50S0 E)zero

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Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) The radius of curvature of a spherical convex mirror is 52 cm. What is its focal length?

A)+26 cm

B)-26 cm

C)+52 cm

D)-52 cm

E)+104 cm

Q2) A concave mirror in an amusement park has a radius of curvature of 4.0 m. A child stands in front of the mirror so that she appears 3.0 times taller than her actual height. If the image is upright, how far is she standing from the mirror?

A)1.1 m

B)1.3 m

C)2.8 m

D)3.0 m

E)4.5 m

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) At which of the labeled points will the image be formed?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q2) Determine the location of the final image.

A)48 cm to the right of the lens

B)96 cm to the right of the lens

C)30 cm to the left of the mirror

D)0.225 cm to the left of the mirror

E)0.225 cm to the right of the mirror

Q3) When an object is placed 15 cm from a lens, a virtual image is formed. Which one of the following conclusions is incorrect?

A)The lens may be a convex or concave.

B)If the image is upright the lens must be a diverging lens.

C)If the image is reduced, the lens must be a diverging lens.

D)If the lens is a diverging lens, the image distance must be less than 15 cm.

E)If the lens is a converging lens, the focal length must be greater than 15 cm.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Light of wavelength 530 nm is incident on two slits that are spaced 1.0 mm apart. How far from the slits should the screen be placed so that the distance between the m = 0 and m = 1 bright fringes is 1.0 cm?

A)7.9 m

B)9.5 m

C)16 m

D)19 m

E)36 m

Q2) Light of wavelength 530 nm is incident on two slits that are spaced 1.0 mm apart. If each of the slits has a width of 0.10 mm, how many interference maxima lie within the central diffraction peak?

A)1

B)4

C)12

D)21

E)infinity

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Questions

Q1) Which one of the following is a consequence of the postulates of special relativity?

A)There is no such thing as an inertial reference frame.

B)Newton's laws of motion apply in every reference frame.

C)Coulomb's law of electrostatics applies in any reference frame.

D)The question of whether an object is at rest in the universe is meaningless.

E)The value of every physical quantity depends on the reference frame in which it is measured.

Q2) Observer O finds that the block takes 12 s to go from A to B. How long would this time interval appear to be to an observer riding on the block?

A)3 s

B)6 s

C)12 s

D)24 s

E)48 s

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Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Q1) A laser produces 3.0 W of light that has a wavelength of 600 nm. How many photons per second are produced?

A)7.3 × 1015

B)4.2 × 1017

C)1.0 × 1017

D)3.0 × 1018

E)9.1 × 1018

Q2) The x component of the velocity of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10-31 kg) is known to be between 100 m/s and 300 m/s. Which one of the following is a true statement concerning the uncertainty in the x coordinate of the electron?

A)The maximum uncertainty is about 106 m.

B)The minimum uncertainty is about 3 × 10-7 m.

C)The maximum uncertainty is about 6 × 10-7 m.

D)The minimum uncertainty is about 3 × 10-9 m.

E)The maximum uncertainty is about 6 × 10-9 m.

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following factors best explains why the six electrons of a carbon atom are not all in the 1s state?

A)electron spin

B)Coulomb's law

C)Pauli exclusion principle

D)Heisenberg uncertainty principle

E)Rutherford model of atomic structure

Q2) The kinetic energy of the ground state electron in hydrogen is +13.6 eV. What is its potential energy?

A)-13.6 eV

B)+27.2 eV

C)-27.2 eV

D)+56.2 eV

E)zero eV

Q3) To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?

A)I

B)II

C)III

D)VI

E)VII

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Q1) What is the SI unit for activity?

A)Ci

B)counts/min

C)Hz

D)Gy

E)Bq

Q2) Which process is involved in determining the age of a prehistoric object?

A)alpha decay

B)beta decay

C)gamma decay

D)X-ray absorption

E)proton absorption

Q3) The half-life of a particular isotope of iodine is 8.0 days. How much of a 10.0-g sample of this isotope will remain after 30 days?

A)0.37 g

B)0.45 g

C)0.60 g

D)0.74 g

E)1.25 g

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the function of the moderator in a fission reactor?

A)The moderator absorbs gamma rays.

B)The moderator absorbs slow neutrons.

C)The moderator decreases the speeds of fast neutrons.

D)The moderator prevents heat loss from the reactor core.

E)The moderator prevents the reactor from reaching a critical state.

Q2) What is the antiparticle of an electron?

A)\(\pi\)+

B)v+

C)electron (self)

D)photon

E)\(\beta\)+

Q3) Which one of the following particles is not a baryon?

A)proton

B)neutron

C)pion

D)sigma particle

E)lambda particle

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