Physics for Non-Physics Majors Chapter Exam Questions - 3839 Verified Questions

Page 1


Physics for Non-Physics Majors

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of physics, tailored for students without a technical background. It explores key topics such as motion, energy, forces, electricity, magnetism, waves, and the structure of matter, emphasizing real-world applications and the role of physics in everyday life. Through engaging lectures, hands-on demonstrations, and simple problem-solving exercises, students will develop an appreciation for the scientific method and the physical principles that shape the universe, enabling them to make informed decisions as scientifically literate citizens.

Recommended Textbook College Physics 10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) Each edge of a cube has a length of 38.1 cm.What is the length of a diagonal of the cube going through the center of the cube?

A) 28.0 in

B) 26.0 in

C) 29.5 in

D) 24.5 in

E) 66.0 in

Answer: B

Q2) A physics class in a large lecture hall has 150 students.The total mass of the students is about ____ kg.

A) 10<sup>4 </sup>

B) 10<sup>5</sup>

C) 10<sup>6</sup>

D) 10<sup>7</sup>

E) 10<sup>8</sup>

Answer: C

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Part A

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Q1) If point A is located at coordinates (2, 3)and point B is located at coordinates ( 3,9),what is the distance from A to B if the units of the coordinated system are meters?

A) 17 m

B) 10 m

C) 13 m

D) 20 m

Answer: C

Q2) The current standard definition for the second has been based on which of the following?

A) characteristic frequency of the light from cesium atoms

B) average solar day

C) sidereal day

D) Greenwich Civil Time

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Q1) A ball of relatively low density is thrown upwards.Because of air resistance the acceleration while traveling upwards is 10.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>.On its trip downward the resistance is in the opposite direction,and the resulting acceleration is 8.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>.When the ball reaches the level from which it was thrown,how does its speed compare to that with which it was thrown?

A) It is greater than the original speed upward.

B) It is the same as the original speed upward.

C) It is less than the original speed upward.

D) Without knowing the original speed,this problem cannot be solved.

Answer: C

Q2) In the case of constant acceleration,the average velocity equals the instantaneous velocity:

A) at the beginning of the time interval.

B) at the end of the time interval.

C) half-way through the time interval.

D) three-fourths of the way through the time interval.

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension: Part A

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Q1) A bird,accelerating from rest at a constant rate,experiences a displacement of 37 m in 11 s.What is the average velocity?

A) 1.7 m/s

B) 2.5 m/s

C) 3.4 m/s

D) zero

Q2) Two forces act on a 6.00-kg object.One of the forces is 11.0 N.If the object accelerates at 2.00 m/s<sup>2</sup>,what is the greatest possible magnitude of the other force?

A) 33.0 N

B) 23.0 N

C) 3.0 N

D) 1.0 N

Q3) A truck moves 70 m west,then moves 120 m east,and finally moves west again a distance of 90 m.If east is chosen as the positive direction,what is the truck's resultant displacement?

A) 40 m

B) 40 m

C) 280 m

D) 280 m

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Page 6

Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion

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Q1) A baseball is thrown by the center fielder (from shoulder level)to home plate where it is caught (on the fly at shoulder level)by the catcher.At what point is the magnitude of the acceleration at a minimum? (air resistance is negligible)

A) just after leaving the center fielder's hand

B) just before arriving at the catcher's mitt

C) at the top of the trajectory

D) acceleration is constant during entire trajectory

Q2) A stone is thrown with an initial speed of 14.8 m/s at an angle of 51° above the horizontal from the top of a 35 m building.If g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup> and air resistance is negligible,then what is the magnitude of the vertical velocity component of the rock as it hits the ground?

A) 24 m/s

B) 28 m/s

C) 32 m/s

D) 29 m/s

E) 12 m/s

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Page 7

Chapter

3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion: Part A

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Q1) Doug hits a hockey puck,giving it an initial velocity of 7.0 m/s.If the coefficient of kinetic friction between ice and puck is 0.050,how far will the puck slide before stopping?

A) 19 m

B) 25 m

C) 37 m

D) 50 m

Q2) A European sports car dealer claims that his product will accelerate at a constant rate from rest to a speed of 100 km/hr in 9.00 s.What distance will the sports car travel during the 9.00 s acceleration period? (Hint: First convert speed to m/s. )

A) 55.5 m

B) 125 m

C) 111 m

D) 250 m

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion

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Q1) A boxcar of mass 300 tons at rest becomes uncoupled on a 2.0° grade.If the track is considered to be frictionless,what speed does the boxcar have after 8 seconds?

A) 8.5 m/s

B) 0 m/s

C) 35.1 m/s

D) 2.7 m/s

E) 0.3 m/s

Q2) It is late and Carlos is sliding down a rope from his third floor window to meet his friend Juan.As he slides down the rope faster and faster,he becomes frightened and grabs harder on the rope,increasing the tension in the rope.As soon as the upward tension in the rope becomes equal to his weight:

A) Carlos will stop.

B) Carlos will slow down.

C) Carlos will continue down at a constant velocity.

D) the rope must break.

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9

Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion: Part A

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Q1) A plane is moving due north,directly towards its destination.Its airspeed is 200 mph.A constant breeze is blowing from west to east at 60 mph.At what rate is the plane moving north?

A) 198 mph

B) 196 mph

C) 191 mph

D) 180 mph

Q2) A rifle is aimed horizontally toward the center of a target 71 m away.If the bullet strikes 10 cm below the center,what was the velocity of the bullet? Note: Ignore air friction.

A) 300 m/s

B) 330 m/s

C) 500 m/s

D) 700 m/s

Q3) A baseball is moving in the air along the customary parabola.Ignoring air drag,where is the force on the baseball zero?

A) at the top of the parabola

B) just when it has started upward

C) where it is about to impact

D) nowhere

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Chapter 5: Energy

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Q1) A Hooke's law spring is compressed 12.0 cm from equilibrium and the potential energy stored is 72.0 J.What is the spring constant in this case?

A) 10000 N/m

B) 5000 N/m

C) 100 N/m

D) 1 N/m

E) No answer is correct.

Q2) As an object is lowered into a deep hole in the surface of the earth,which of the following must be assumed in regard to its potential energy?

A) increase

B) decrease

C) remain constant

D) cannot tell from the information given

Q3) The work done by static friction can be:

A) positive.

B) negative.

C) zero.

D) Any of the above.

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Chapter 5: Energy: Part A

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Q1) A 0.40-kg mass,attached to the end of a 0.75-m string,is whirled around in a circular horizontal path.If the maximum tension that the string can withstand is 400 N,then what maximum speed can the mass have if the string is not to break?

A) 370 m/s

B) 27 m/s

C) 19 m/s

D) 29 m/s

Q2) An observation satellite for mapping purposes is placed in a low Earth orbit.In order to see the whole surface of the Earth,which would be the preferred orbit?

A) an equatorial orbit

B) a polar orbit

C) an orbit inclined 45° to the equator

D) It doesn't matter since the Earth turns completely every 24 hours.

Q3) At an altitude of 3 times the radius of the Earth,the acceleration due to gravity is

A) g/3.

B) g/9.

C) g/27.

D) not given.

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions

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Q1) A 7.5-kg bowling ball strikes a 2.0-kg pin.The pin flies forward with a velocity of 4.5 m/s;the ball continues forward at 5.5 m/s.What was the original velocity of the ball?

A) 22.4 m/s

B) 6.0 m/s

C) 0.2 m/s

D) 1.0 m/s

E) 4.7 m/s

Q2) Jerome pitches a baseball of mass 0.15 kg.The ball arrives at home plate with a speed of 40 m/s and is batted straight back to Jerome with a return speed of 60 m/s.What is the magnitude of change in the ball's momentum?

A) 3 kg m/s

B) 6 kg m/s

C) 9 kg m/s

D) 15 kg m/s

E) 20 kg m/s

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions: Part A

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Q1) Which of the following is not true about potential energy?

A) Potential energy is stored energy.

B) Potential energy is related to position.

C) Potential energy is a scalar quantity.

D) Potential energy has direction.

Q2) A baseball catcher puts on an exhibition by catching a 0.150-kg ball dropped from a helicopter at a height of 100 m above the catcher.If the catcher "gives" with the ball for a distance of 0.500 m while catching it,what average force is exerted on the mitt by the ball? (g = 9.80 m/s<sup>2</sup>)

A) 78 N

B) 119 N

C) 197 N

D) 295 N

Q3) What is the kinetic energy of a 0.160-kg ball thrown at 40.0 m/s (90.0 mph)?

A) 54.0 J

B) 64.0 J

C) 108 J

D) 128 J

E) newton-meter.

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Page 14

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity

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Q1) Two satellites are monitored as they orbit the Earth;satellite X is eight times as far from the Earth's center as is satellite Y.From Kepler's third law one may conclude that the period or revolution of X is what factor times that of Y?

A) 1/2

B) 2.0

C) 4.0

D) 22.6

Q2) A grindstone spinning at the rate of 8.3 rev/s has what approximate angular speed?

A) 3.2 rad/s

B) 26 rad/s

C) 52 rad/s

D) 81 rad/s

Q3) For a point on a spinning disc in uniform circular motion,which of the following is not constant?

A) Its angular speed.

B) Its angular acceleration.

C) Its centripetal acceleration.

D) The magnitude of its total acceleration.

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity: Part A

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Q1) A car wash nozzle directs a steady stream of water at 1.5 kg/s,with a speed of 20 m/s,against a car window.What force does the water exert on the glass? Assume the water does not splash back.

A) 30 N

B) 45 N

C) 300 N

D) 440 N

Q2) A 20-g bullet moving at 1000 m/s is fired through a one-kg block of wood emerging at a speed of 200 m/s.What is the kinetic energy of the block that results from the collision if the block had not been moving prior to the collision and was free to move? A) 10 kJ

B) 9.8 kJ

C) 0.16 kJ

D) 0.13 kJ

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A ventilation fan has blades 0.20 m in radius rotating at 30 rpm.What is the tangential speed of each blade tip?

A) 0.31 m/s

B) 0.20 m/s

C) 0.63 m/s

D) 37.70 m/s

E) 6.00 m/s

Q2) A bowling ball has a mass of 9.0 kg,a moment of inertia of 3.6 × 10 <sup>2</sup> kg·m<sup>2</sup>,and a radius of 0.10 m.If it rolls down the lane without slipping at a linear speed of 3 m/s,what is its angular speed?

A) 90 rad/s

B) 30 rad/s

C) 27 rad/s

D) 0.030 rad/s

E) 0.090 rad/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics:

Part A

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Q1) A 100-N uniform ladder,8.0 m long,rests against a smooth vertical wall.The coefficient of static friction between ladder and floor is 0.30.What minimum angle can the ladder make with the floor before it slips?

A) 22°

B) 51°

C) 18°

D) 59°

Q2) A ventilation fan with a moment of inertia of 0.034 kg·m<sup>2</sup> has a net torque of 0.14 N·m applied to it.What angular acceleration does it experience?

A) 5.3 rad/s<sup>2</sup>

B) 4.1 rad/s<sup>2</sup>

C) 3.2 rad/s<sup>2</sup>

D) 0.31 rad/s<sup>2</sup>

Q3) If a nonzero torque is applied to an object,that object will experience:

A) a constant angular speed.

B) an angular acceleration.

C) a constant moment of inertia.

D) an increasing moment of inertia.

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids

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Q1) The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has area = 4.2 m<sup>2</sup> and mass = 60 kg.If two fishermen and their fishing gear with total mass of 315 kg are placed in the boat,how much lower will the boat ride in the water? (H<sub>2</sub>O density = 1.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>)

A) 0.014 m

B) 0.061 m

C) 0.075 m

D) 0.089 m

E) 1.323 m

Q2) A heavily loaded boat is floating in a pond.The boat sinks because of a leak.What happens to the surface level of the pond?

A) It stays the same.

B) It goes up.

C) It goes down.

D) More information is needed to reach a conclusion.

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids: Part A

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Q1) A hoop (I = MR<sup>2</sup>)is rolling along the ground at 10 m/s.It comes to a hill and starts going up.Assuming no losses to friction,how far does it travel vertically up the hill before it stops?

A) 10 m

B) 3.7 m

C) 5.1 m

D) 7.7 m

Q2) A solid sphere,a solid cylinder,and a hoop each have the same mass and radius.If they are spinning at the same angular velocity,which one has the greatest rotational kinetic energy?

A) the sphere

B) the cylinder

C) the hoop

D) They all have the same rotational kinetic energy.

Q3) Consider the use of the terms "rotation" and "revolution".In physics:

A) the words are used interchangeably.

B) the words are used interchangeably but "rotation" is the preferred word.

C) the words have different meaning.

D) "rotation" is the correct word,and "revolution" should not be used.

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Page 20

Chapter 10: Thermal Physics

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Q1) The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to which of the following properties,when taken as an average,of the molecules of that gas?

A) speed

B) momentum

C) mass

D) kinetic energy

Q2) The mass of a hot-air balloon and its cargo (not including the air inside)is 150 kg.The air outside is at a temperature of 10°C and a pressure of 1 atm = 10<sup>5</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>.The volume of the balloon is 600 m<sup>3</sup>.Which temperature below of the air in the balloon will allow the balloon to just lift off? (Air density at 10°C is 1.25 kg/m<sup>3</sup>. )

A) 3°C

B) 62°C

C) 354°C

D) 71°C

E) 318°C

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics: Part A

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Q1) How deep under the surface of a lake would the pressure be triple that at the surface? (1 atm = 1.01 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa)

A) 1.00 m

B) 9.80 m

C) 10.3 m

D) 20.6 m

Q2) The SI units for viscosity are N·s/m<sup>2</sup>.Another commonly used unit for viscosity is the poise,where 10 poise = 1 N·s/m<sup>2</sup>.The poise is a fairly large unit,and it is more common to use the centipoise.Which of the following is equal to the centipoise?

A) 10 <sup>3</sup> N·s/m<sup>2</sup>

B) 10 <sup>2</sup> N·s/m<sup>2</sup>

C) 10 <sup>1</sup> N·s/m<sup>2</sup>

D) 10<sup>2</sup> N·s/m<sup>2</sup>

Q3) How much air must be pushed downward at 60.0 m/s to keep an 800-kg helicopter aloft?

A) 131 kg/s

B) 196 kg/s

C) 294 kg/s

D) 392 kg/s

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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal Energy

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Q1) A 10-kg piece of aluminum (which has a specific heat of 900 J/kg °C)is warmed so that its temperature increases by 5.0 C°.How much heat was transferred into it?

A) 4.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> J

B) 9.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> J

C) 9.0 × 10<sup>5</sup> J

D) 3.8 × 10<sup>5</sup> J

Q2) A windowpane is half a centimeter thick and has an area of 0.9 m<sup>2</sup>.The temperature difference between the inside and outside surfaces of the pane is 14 °C.What is the rate of heat flow through this window? (Thermal conductivity for glass is 0.84 J/s m °C. )

A) 4,200 J/s

B) 2,100 J/s

C) 2,500 J/s

D) 1,510 J/s

E) 1,800 J/s

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Page 23

Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal

Energy: Part A

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Q1) A car with bad shocks bounces up and down with a period of 1.50 s after hitting a bump.The car has a mass of 1250 kg and is supported by four springs of force constant k.What is k for each spring?

A) 6580 N/m

B) 5480 N/m

C) 4440 N/m

D) 3630 N/m

Q2) A simple pendulum has a period of 1.0 s.What is the pendulum length? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)

A) 0.25 m

B) 0.39 m

C) 0.99 m

D) 1.0 m

Q3) A simple pendulum of length 2.00 m has a mass of 100 g attached.It is drawn back 30.0° and then released.What is the maximum speed of the mass?

A) 1.14 m/s

B) 4.58 m/s

C) 2.29 m/s

D) 1.62 m/s

Page 24

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in

Thermodynamic Processes

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Q1) In an isovolumetric process by an ideal gas,the system's heat gain is equivalent to a change in:

A) temperature.

B) volume.

C) pressure.

D) internal energy.

Q2) An electrical generating plant operates at a boiler temperature of 229°C and exhausts the unused heat into a nearby river at 18°C.If the generating plant has a power output of 870 megawatts (MW)and if the actual efficiency is 3/4 the theoretical efficiency,how much heat per second must be delivered to the boiler? (0°C = 273 K)

A) 8,279 MW

B) 4,140 MW

C) 2,070 MW

D) 2,760 MW

E) 1,600 MW

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in

Thermodynamic Processes: Part A

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Q1) A traveling wave train has wavelength 1.0 m and speed 20 m/s.Find the wave frequency.

A) 0.025 Hz

B) 20 Hz

C) 40 Hz

D) 10 Hz

Q2) A musical tone,sounded on a piano,has a frequency of 820 Hz and a wavelength in air of 0.400 m.What is the wave speed?

A) 587 m/s

B) 328 m/s

C) 235 m/s

D) 170 m/s

Q3) Wave #1 has frequency f<sub>1</sub> and wavelength <sub>1</sub>.Wave #2 has frequency f<sub>2</sub> = 6 f<sub>1</sub> and wavelength <sub>2</sub> = 2 <sub>1</sub>.How does the speed v<sub>2</sub> of wave #2 compare with the speed v<sub>1</sub> of wave #1?

A) v<sub>2</sub> = 12v<sub>1</sub>

B) v<sub>2</sub> = 6v<sub>1</sub>

C) v<sub>2</sub> = 1.5v<sub>1</sub>

D) v<sub>2</sub> = v<sub>1</sub>/6

Page 26

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves

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Q1) The SI base units for spring constant are which of the following?

A) kg s<sup>2</sup>

B) kg/m<sup>2</sup>

C) kg/s<sup>2</sup>

D) kg m<sup>2</sup>

Q2) Suppose a 0.7-kg mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.1 m has elastic potential energy of 1.5 J.How much further must the spring be compressed to triple the elastic potential energy?

A) 0.17 m

B) 0.27 m

C) 0.3 m

D) 0.07 m

E) 0.2 m

Q3) The wavelength of a traveling wave can be calculated if one knows the:

A) frequency.

B) speed and amplitude.

C) amplitude and frequency.

D) frequency and speed.

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves: Part A

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Q1) The Doppler shift of ultrasonic waves can measure the speed of blood in an artery.If the frequency of the stationary source is 100 kHz and the reflected sound has a Doppler shift of 300 Hz,what is the blood flow speed? (The speed of sound inside the body is 1500 m/s. )

A) 1.0 m/s

B) 1.5 m/s

C) 2.2 m/s

D) 3.3 m/s

Q2) What sound level change most nearly corresponds to a factor of three change in intensity?

A) 0.5 dB

B) 2 dB

C) 3 dB

D) 5 dB

Q3) A 2.00-m long organ pipe is open at one end and closed at the other.Its fundamental tone has wavelength:

A) 8.00 m.

B) 4.00 m.

C) 2.00 m.

D) 1.00 m.

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Chapter 14: Sound

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Q1) A very loud train whistle has an acoustic power output of 94 W.If the sound energy spreads out spherically,what is the intensity level in dB at a distance of 95 meters from the train? (I<sub>0</sub> = 10 <sup>12</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>)

A) 21 dB

B) 69 dB

C) 89 dB

D) 94 dB

E) 205 dB

Q2) The air in a tube open at both ends is sent into its fundamental resonance.One end of the tube is then closed and the air column is again set into its fundamental resonance.The resonant frequency ____ after the end is closed.

A) halves

B) stays the same

C) doubles

D) increases by a factor of 1.4

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Chapter 14: Sound: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) I take 2.0 kg of ice and dump it into 1.0 kg of water and,when equilibrium is reached,I have 3.0 kg of ice at 0°C.The water was originally at 0°C.The specific heat of water = 1.00 kcal/kg·°C,the specific heat of ice = 0.50 kcal/kg·°C,and the latent heat of fusion of water is 80 kcal/kg.The original temperature of the ice was:

A) one or two degrees below 0°C.

B) 80°C.

C) 120°C.

D) The whole experiment is impossible.

Q2) The Sun is a slightly variable star.What if the surface temperature of the Sun were to increase from 6000 K to 6100 K,what would be the increase in total power radiated assuming no other changes such as radius or emissivity?

A) 1.6%

B) 6.8%

C) 3.4%

D) 14%

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Two identical balls have the same amount of charge,but the charge on ball A is positive and the charge on ball B is negative.The balls are placed on a smooth,level,frictionless table whose top is an insulator.Which of the following is true?

A) Since the force on A is equal but opposite to the force on B,they will not move.

B) They will move together with constant acceleration.

C) Since the force on both balls is negative,they will move in the negative direction.

D) None of the above is correct.

Q2) Two point charges each have a value of 32.1 mC and are separated by a distance of 6 cm.What is the electric field midway between the two charges? (k<sub>e</sub> = 8.99 × 10<sup>9</sup> N·m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)

A) 25.7 × 10<sup>7</sup> N/C

B) 12.9 × 10<sup>7</sup> N/C

C) 6.4 × 10<sup>7</sup> N/C

D) zero

E) 8 × 10<sup>7</sup> N/C

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields: Part A

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Q1) An ideal gas is confined to a container with adjustable volume.The pressure and mole number are constant.By what factor will volume change if absolute temperature doubles?

A) 4.0

B) 2.0

C) 1/2

D) 1/4

Q2) What is the mass of 2 moles of carbon dioxide?

A) 88 g

B) 80 g

C) 64 g

D) 56 g

Q3) With volume and molar quantity held constant,by what factor does the absolute temperature change for an ideal gas when the pressure is three times bigger?

A) 0.3

B) 3.0

C) 5.0

D) 25.0

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32

Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance

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Q1) A 8.0-V battery is connected between two parallel metal plates 5 mm apart.What is the magnitude of the electric field between the plates?

A) 1.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> N/C

B) 16 N/C

C) 13 N/C

D) 6.25 × 10 <sup>6</sup> N/C

E) 2.1 × 10<sup>3</sup> N/C

Q2) When charges q<sub>a</sub>,q<sub>b</sub>,and q<sub>c</sub> are placed respectively at the corners a,b,and c of a right triangle,the potential at the midpoint of the hypotenuse is 20 V.When the charge q<sub>a</sub> is removed,the potential at the midpoint becomes 15 V.When,instead,the charge q<sub>b</sub> is removed (q<sub>a</sub> and q<sub>c</sub> both in place),the potential at the midpoint becomes 12 V.What is the potential at the midpoint if only the charge q<sub>c</sub> is removed from the array of charges?

A) 8 V

B) 5 V

C) 7 V

D) 13 V

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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance: Part A

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Q1) An electrical generating plant operates at a boiler temperature of 220°C and exhausts the unused heat into a nearby river at 19°C.If the generating plant has a power output of 800 megawatts (MW)and if the actual efficiency is 3/5 the theoretical efficiency,how much heat per second must be delivered to the boiler? (0°C = 273 K)

A) 5200 MW

B) 1810 MW

C) 3270 MW

D) 2620 MW

Q2) A system is acted on by its surroundings in such a way that it receives 50 J of heat while simultaneously doing 70 J of work.What is its net change in internal energy?

A) 70 J

B) 20 J

C) zero

D) 20 J

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current

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Q1) A certain material is in a room at 27°C.If the absolute temperature (K)of the material is doubled,its resistance triples.(Water freezes at 273 K. )What is the value for ,the temperature coefficient of resistivity?

A) 0.074 (°C) <sup>1</sup>

B) 0.01 (°C) <sup>1</sup>

C) 0.0067 (°C) <sup>1</sup>

D) 1.5 (°C) <sup>1</sup>

E) 0.037 (°C) <sup>1</sup>

Q2) A superconducting wire's chief characteristic is which of the following?

A) an extremely great length

B) a large cross sectional area

C) an extremely high temperature

D) no resistance

Q3) Materials having resistance changes as voltage or current varies are called:

A) ohmic.

B) inohmic.

C) nonohmic.

D) deohmic.

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35

Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current: Part A

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Q1) If two 1.0-C charges have a force between them of 1.0 N,what is their separation?

A) 8.1 × 10<sup>19</sup> m

B) 1.0 m

C) 9.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> m

D) 9.0 × 10<sup>10</sup> m

Q2) Two point charges are 4 cm apart.They are moved to a new separation of 8 cm.By what factor does the resulting mutual force between them change?

A) 1/4

B) 2

C) 1/2

D) 4

Q3) A metallic object holds a charge of 2.9 × 10 <sup>5</sup> C.What total number of electrons does this represent? (e = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C is the magnitude of the electronic charge. )

A) 1.8 × 10<sup>14</sup>

B) 2.4 × 10<sup>13</sup>

C) 6.1 × 10<sup>13</sup>

D) 4.2 × 10<sup>14</sup>

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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF

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Q1) Three resistors,with values of 4,6 and 15 ,respectively,are connected in parallel.What is the overall resistance of this combination?

A) 25

B) 2.1

C) 0.48

D) 8.3

E) 7.1

Q2) Four 7- resistors are connected in series.What is their equivalent resistance?

A) 28

B) 7

C) 21

D) 1.8

E) 11

Q3) Resistors of values 5 ,15 ,and 22 are connected in parallel across a fresh battery.Which resistor dissipates the greatest power?

A) the 5- resistor

B) the 15- resistor

C) the 22- resistor

D) All dissipate the same power when in parallel.

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Page 37

Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF: Part A

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Q1) Very large capacitors have been considered as a means for storing electrical energy.If we constructed a very large parallel-plate capacitor of plate area 10 m<sup>2</sup> using paper ( = 3.7)of thickness 1.0 mm as a dielectric,how much electrical energy would it store at a plate voltage of 5000 V? ( <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10 <sup>12</sup> C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup>)

A) 4.1 J

B) 8200 J

C) 0.41 J

D) 82,000 J

Q2) Two charges,each of charge q,are separated by a distance d.The distance between the charges is doubled.If the original potential energy of the arrangement was 40 mJ,by how much does the potential energy change when the charges are moved to the increased distance?

A) It decreases by more than 20 mJ.

B) It decreases by less than 20 mJ

C) More information is needed.

D) It decreases by 20 mJ.

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Page 38

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets

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Sample Questions

Q1) A current in a long,straight wire produces a magnetic field.The magnetic field lines:

A) go out from the wire to infinity.

B) come in from infinity to the wire.

C) form circles that pass through the wire.

D) form circles that go around the wire.

Q2) A proton is released such that its initial velocity is from right to left across this page.The proton's path,however,is deflected in a direction toward the bottom edge of the page due to the presence of a uniform magnetic field.What is the direction of this field?

A) out of the page

B) into the page

C) from bottom edge to top edge of the page

D) from right to left across the page

Q3) The magnetic domains in a non-magnetized piece of iron are characterized by which orientation?

A) parallel to the magnetic axis

B) anti-parallel (opposite direction)to the magnetic axis

C) random

D) perpendicular to the magnetic axis

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Page 39

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets: Part A

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Q1) A metal wire has a resistance of 10.00 at a temperature of 20.0°C.If the same wire has a resistance of 10.55 at 90°C,what is the resistance when its temperature is 0.0°C?

A) 13.8

B) 9.69

C) 9.84

D) 0.70

Q2) A battery has an internal resistance R<sub>int</sub>.Connecting a wire of negligible resistance between the terminals of the battery draws the maximum current I<sub>max</sub> from this battery.If instead a resistor is connected between the terminals,a smaller current is produced.What value resistor placed across the terminals would result in the current produced to be half of I<sub>max</sub>?

A) 0.63R<sub>int</sub>

B) R<sub>int</sub>

C) 0.50R<sub>int</sub>

D) 0.37R<sub>int</sub>

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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance

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Q1) A straight wire of length l is oriented east-west and is in a magnetic field B pointing north.The wire is moving downward at a constant speed v.If the resistance of the rod is R,what is the current through the rod?

A) R/Blv

B) Blv/R

C) B<sup>2</sup>l<sup>2</sup>v<sup>2</sup>/R<sup>2</sup> D) not given

Q2) Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one,the primary,will induce a current in the other,the secondary.The secondary loop has twice as many turns as the primary loop.The current in the primary at this moment is 3 A and increasing.The current in the secondary must be:

A) 3 A.

B) 6 A.

C) zero.

D) There is insufficient information to work this problem.

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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance: Part A

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Q1) A deuteron,with the same charge but twice the mass of a proton,moves with a speed of 6.0 × 10<sup>5</sup> m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T.Which of the paths described below would it follow? (q<sub>p</sub> = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C and m<sub>d</sub> = 3.34 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg)

A) a circular path of 6.3-cm radius

B) a circular path of 1.6-cm radius

C) a circular path of 3.1-cm radius

D) a straight line path

Q2) Assume that a uniform magnetic field is directed into this page.If a proton is released with an initial velocity directed from the bottom edge to the top edge of the page,which of the following describes the direction of the resultant force acting on the proton?

A) into the page

B) to the left

C) to the right

D) out of the page

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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) A resistor,inductor,and capacitor are connected in series,each with an effective (rms)voltage of 54 V,183 V,and 79 V,respectively.What is the magnitude of the phase angle in this circuit?

A) 27°

B) 68°

C) 60°

D) 63°

E) 72°

Q2) Resonance occurs in an AC series circuit when which of the following conditions is met?

A) resistance equals capacitive reactance

B) resistance equals inductive reactance

C) capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance

D) capacitive reactance equals zero

Q3) In an RC circuit,which of the following is a possible phase angle?

A) 45°

B) -45°

C) 135°

D) -135°

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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves:

Part A

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Q1) A coil is placed in a changing magnetic field and an emf is induced.What happens to the induced emf if the rate of change of magnetic field doubles?

A) The emf quadruples.

B) The emf increases by a factor of 16.

C) There is no change.

D) The emf doubles.

Q2) By what factor is the self-inductance of a solenoid changed if its length is doubled and its number of coil turns is tripled?

A) 2/9

B) 9/2

C) 3/4

D) 4/3

Q3) By what factor is the self-inductance of a solenoid changed if only its number of coil turns,N,is doubled?

A) 8

B) 1/2

C) 4

D) 2

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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light

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Sample Questions

Q1) As the angle of incidence is increased for a ray incident on a reflecting surface,the angle between the incident and reflected rays ultimately approaches what value?

A) zero

B) 45°

C) 90°

D) 180°

Q2) An oil film floats on a water surface.The indices of refraction for water and oil,respectively,are 1.333 and 1.466.If a ray of light is incident on the air-to-oil surface at an angle of 42.3° with the normal,what is the angle of the refracted ray in the water?

A) 27.3°

B) 37.7°

C) 30.3°

D) 33.8°

E) 42.3°

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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light: Part A

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Q1) A 400- resistor and a capacitor are connected in parallel across a 300-Hz source.If the amplitude of the current in the resistor is equal to that in the capacitor,what is the value of the capacitance?

A) 1.33 × 10<sup>-6</sup> F

B) 0.750 × 10<sup>-6</sup> F

C) 10.6 × 10<sup>-6</sup> F

D) 0.212 F

Q2) What is the impedance of an AC series circuit that is constructed of a 10.0- resistor along with 24.0- inductive reactance and 7.0- capacitive reactance?

A) 19.7

B) 11.2

C) 41.0

D) 27.7

Q3) In some countries the AC frequency is 50 Hz.What is the time interval for one cycle at this frequency?

A) 0.0050 s

B) 0.020 s

C) 2 s

D) 50 s

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Page 46

Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses

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Q1) An object is held at a distance of 23 cm from a convex mirror creating an image that is 1/4 the object size.What is the focal length of the mirror?

A) -7.7 cm

B) 17 cm

C) -4.6 cm

D) -4.8 cm

E) 31 cm

Q2) Five thin lenses,each of focal length f,are placed in contact.What is the resulting focal length of the combination?

A) f

B) 5f

C) f/5

D) 5/f

E) 5f/6

Q3) The lateral magnification for a flat mirror:

A) is a function of the object distance.

B) is a function of the image distance.

C) is a function of the object and image distance.

D) is 1.

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Page 47

Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses: Part A

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Q1) An electromagnetic wave with a peak magnetic field component of 7.3 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T has an associated peak electric field component of what value?

( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T m/A, <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10 <sup>12</sup> C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup>,and c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 45 N/C

B) 2.0 × 10 <sup>5</sup> N/C

C) 2.2 × 10<sup>2</sup> N/C

D) 0.50 × 10 <sup>15</sup> N/C

Q2) The human eye is sensitive to light with wavelength up to 750 nm.What is the frequency of radiation at this wavelength? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m and c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 8.5 × 10<sup>8</sup> Hz

B) 1.8 × 10<sup>8</sup> Hz

C) 4.0 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz

D) 7.7 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz

Q3) A 6.0-J pulse of light from a laser has what momentum?

A) Light does not have momentum because it doesn't have mass.

B) 3.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> kg·m/s

C) 6.7 × 10<sup>-9</sup> kg·m/s

D) 2.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup> kg·m/s

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics

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Q1) If a wave from one slit of a Young's double-slit set-up arrives at a point on the screen one wavelength behind the wave from the other slit,what is observed at that point?

A) dark fringe

B) bright fringe

C) multi-colored fringe

D) gray fringe,neither dark nor bright

Q2) At what angle is the sun above the horizon if its light is found to be completely polarized when it is reflected from the top surface of a slab of glass (n = 1.63)?

A) 31.5°

B) 58.5°

C) 0.55°

D) 37.8°

E) 52.2°

Q3) LCD stands for:

A) linearly collimated diffraction.

B) longitudinally combined depolarization.

C) liquid crystal display.

D) lighted compact disk.

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics: Part A

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Q1) If the speed of light through an unknown liquid is measured at 1.67 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,what is the index of refraction of this liquid? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 1.80

B) 1.67

C) 0.600

D) 1.20

Q2) If the wavelength of a monochromatic source is 600 nm in vacuum,what is the wavelength from the same source when it passes through a liquid where the speed of light is 2.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 612.5 nm

B) 671 nm

C) 400 nm

D) 392 nm

Q3) You stand three feet away from a plane mirror.How far is it from you to your image?

A) 4.0 ft

B) 6.0 ft

C) 2.0 ft

D) 3.0 ft

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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments

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Q1) A person with limited accommodation is prescribed lenses of power -3.0 diopters for distant vision.Bifocal inserts are added to these lenses to allow vision at 50 cm.What is the power of the inserts?

A) -1.0 diopters

B) 2.0 diopters

C) 5.0 diopters

D) 50 diopters

E) This does not work with negative diopter distance lenses.

Q2) A nearsighted person cannot see objects clearly beyond 70 cm (the far point).If the patient has no astigmatism and contact lenses are prescribed,what is the power of the lens required to correct the patient's vision?

A) 0.7 diopters

B) 1.4 diopters

C) 2.9 diopters

D) 7.0 diopters

E) -700 diopters

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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments: Part A

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Q1) A binary star system in the constellation Orion has an angular separation between the stars of 10 <sup>5</sup> radians.Assuming a wavelength of 700 nm,what is the smallest aperture (diameter)telescope that will just resolve the two stars? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)

A) 8.5 cm

B) 4.2 cm

C) 6.1 cm

D) 3.0 cm

Q2) When light passes from a material with a low index of refraction into material with a high index of refraction:

A) some light is reflected with a 180° change of phase.

B) none of the light is reflected.

C) some light is reflected without a change of phase.

D) the light that is not reflected has a 180° change of phase.

Q3) In a Young's double-slit experiment,how many maxima occur between the m = +3 and m = 3 maxima?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 7

D) Not given.

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Chapter 26: Relativity

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Q1) Through what potential difference would an electron initially at rest need to be accelerated to have its total energy be five times its rest energy? (m<sub>e</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,and q<sub>e</sub> = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)

A) 1.6E-19 V

B) 2.6E+6 V

C) 2.0E+6 V

D) 210 V

E) 6.8E-3 V

Q2) A spaceship is moving away from an observer at relativistic speed.Its length at rest is 100 m,but the observer measures its length as 60 m.A time interval of 84 s on the spaceship would be measured by the observer to be which of the following?

A) 50.4 s

B) 30.2 s

C) 134 s

D) 140 s

E) 84 s

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Page 53

Chapter 26: Relativity: Part A

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Q1) You are building a compound microscope with an objective lens of focal length 1.1 cm and an eyepiece lens of focal length 5.0 cm.You mount the lenses 18 cm apart.What is the approximate magnification of your microscope?

A) 3

B) 7

C) 80

D) 130

Q2) The Yerkes refracting telescope has a 1-m diameter objective lens of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 2.0 cm.What is the magnification of the planet Mars as seen through this telescope?

A) 800

B) 1000

C) 400

D) 200

Q3) A lens with a focal length of 12 cm has what refractive power?

A) 5.0 diopters

B) 9.6 diopters

C) 6.7 diopters

D) 8.3 diopters

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Page 54

Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

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Q1) A monochromatic light beam is incident on a barium target,which has a work function of 2.6 eV.If a stopping potential of 1.2 V is required,what is the light beam photon energy?

A) 2.6 eV

B) 1.4 eV

C) 1.2 eV

D) 3.8 eV

E) 0.7

Q2) What is the highest frequency of the photons produced by a 28-kV x-ray machine? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s)

A) 4.2E+18 Hz

B) 6.8E+15 Hz

C) 4.2E+15 Hz

D) 6.8E+18 Hz

E) 3.0E+20 Hz

Q3) An important use of x-ray diffraction was:

A) the observation of Compton scattering.

B) determining the structure of the DNA molecule.

C) production of positrons.

D) observation of the photoelectric effect.

Page 55

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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks

Hypothesis: Part A

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Q1) Doubling the momentum of a particle:

A) does not change its relativistic total energy.

B) quadruples its relativistic total energy.

C) doubles its relativistic total energy.

D) requires less of a speed increase as the speed increases.

Q2) A meterstick moving in a direction parallel to its length appears to be only 60.0 cm long to an observer.What is the meterstick's speed relative to the observer? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 1.19 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

B) 2.40 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

C) 2.93 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

D) 2.75 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

Q3) A rocket ship is 74.0 m in length when measured before leaving the launching pad.What would its velocity be if a ground observer measured its length as 60.0 m while it is in flight? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 1.76 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

B) 0.980 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

C) 1.98 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

D) 1.15 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics

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Q1) The emission of a line from the Balmer series is followed almost immediately by the emission of a line from the Lyman series.This will be true for:

A) only the first line of the Balmer series and the first line of the Lyman series.

B) all the lines of the Balmer series followed by only the first line of the Lyman series.

C) only the first line of the Balmer series followed by any of the lines of the Lyman series.

D) all the lines of the Balmer series followed by any of the lines of the Lyman series.

Q2) The Paschen series of hydrogen corresponds to electron transitions from higher levels to n = 3.What is the shortest wavelength in that series? (R = 1.097 × 10<sup>7</sup> m <sup>1</sup> and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)

A) 1875 nm

B) 820 nm

C) 1580 nm

D) 656 nm

E) 1094 nm

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics: Part A

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Q1) How much energy (in eV)does a photon of 500-nm light have? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 <sup>19</sup> J,and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)

A) 1.78 eV

B) 2.48 eV

C) 1.24 eV

D) 3.11 eV

Q2) If the measured momentum of an electron is 3.20 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg m/s with an uncertainty of 4.8 × 10 <sup>28</sup> kg m/s,what is the minimum uncertainty in the position? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s)

A) 0.63 × 10 <sup>4</sup> m

B) 2.2 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m

C) 3.3 × 10 <sup>6</sup> m

D) 1.1 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m

Q3) Of photons of red,yellow,green,and blue light,which photons have the least energy?

A) red

B) blue

C) green

D) yellow

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Page 58

Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) A pure sample of <sup>226</sup>Ra contains 2.1 × 10<sup>15</sup> atoms of the isotope.If the half-life of <sup>226</sup>Ra = 1.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> years,what is the decay rate of this sample? (1 Ci = 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup> decays/s)

A) 1.1E-6 Ci

B) 2.9E+4 Ci

C) 7.8E-7 Ci

D) 2.5E+1 Ci

E) 3.5E+1 Ci

Q2) In the four radioactive series,the nuclei decay by either emitting alpha particles or beta particles until they reach the stable end product.Each decay,therefore,results in a mass number change of either 4 (for alpha decay)or 0 (for beta decay).The radium isotope <sup>226</sup>Ra is in one of these series.What is the starting isotope in the series containing <sup>226</sup>Ra?

A) <sup>238</sup>U

B) <sup>235</sup>U

C) <sup>232</sup>Th

D) <sup>237</sup>Np

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Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the radius of the electron orbit in the n = 1 level of the hydrogen atoms is 0.0529 nm,what is its radius for the n = 4 level? (Assume the Bohr model is valid).

A) 1.32 nm

B) 0.265 nm

C) 0.106 nm

D) 0.846 nm

Q2) Of the various wavelengths emitted from a hydrogen gas discharge tube,those associated with transitions from higher levels down to the n = 2 level produce which of the following?

A) visible

B) infrared

C) ultraviolet

D) a mixture of visible and ultraviolet

Q3) What is the wavelength of the line in the hydrogen spectrum that is comprised of transitions from the n = 5 to the n = 3 levels?

A) 1880 nm

B) 1290 nm

C) 2250 nm

D) 1920 nm

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Page 60

Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles

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Q1) If two quarks in an anti-proton have the color anti-red and anti-blue,the third quark must have the color:

A) red.

B) blue.

C) anti-purple.

D) anti-green.

Q2) Where is the largest untapped source of uranium?

A) Canada

B) Siberia

C) Africa

D) none of the above

Q3) The advantage of a fusion reactor when compared to a fission reactor is which of the following?

A) The fuel is cheaper.

B) There is less radioactive waste material.

C) Both choices above are valid.

D) None of the above choices are valid.

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles: Part

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Q1) Certain stars at the end of their lives are thought to collapse,combining their protons and electrons together to form a neutron star.Such a star could be thought of as a giant atomic nucleus.If a star of mass equal to M = 4.00 × 10<sup>30</sup> kg collapsed into neutrons (m<sub>n</sub> = 1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg),what would be the radius of such a star? (Hint: r = r<sub>0</sub>A<sup>1/3</sup>,where r<sub>0</sub> = 1.20 × 10 <sup>15</sup> m. )

A) 12.7 km

B) 25.4 km

C) 16.1 km

D) 18.5 km

Q2) The energy released from a nuclear reaction is equal to:

A) energy associated with momentum conservation.

B) the exothermic endothermy.

C) energy associated with the change in mass.

D) the total charge involved.

Q3) 10<sup>10</sup> Bq = ______ Ci?

A) 2.7 × 10<sup>-11</sup>

B) 3.7

C) 0.27

D) 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup>

Page 62

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Chapter 31: Particle Collisions, Mediating Photons, and Quark Structures: Exploring the

Fundamentals of Physics

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Q1) Of the quarks u,d,c,s,t,and b,which have positive fractional electronic charge?

A) u,d,c

B) d,s,b

C) s,t,b

D) u,c,t

Q2) Processes in which one type of quark is converted into another type of quark involve which force?

A) electromagnetic

B) strong force

C) weak force

D) gravitational

Q3) The microwave background radiation:

A) represents the leftover glow from the Big Bang.

B) had its slight non-uniformity measured by COBE.

C) was discovered by Penzias and Wilson.

D) All of the above.

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