Physics for Life Sciences Pre-Test Questions - 3114 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Chapter 1: Introduction to Physics

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Q1) There are 640 acres in a square mile, and 5280 feet in one mile. How many acres are there in a hectare, a square one hundred meters on each side?

Answer: 2.47 acres

Q2) The king's chamber of the great pyramid is 10.43 meters long, 5.21 meters wide, and 5.82 meters high. What is the volume of the chamber in cubic feet?

A) 316 cubic feet

B) 3,720 cubic feet

C) 6,530 cubic feet

D) 11,200 cubic feet

E) 13,200 cubic feet

Answer: D

Q3) The metric prefix for one one-thousandth is

A) milli.

B) centi.

C) kilo.

D) mega.

E) giga.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: One-Dimensional Kinematics

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Q1) Figure 2-7 represents the position of a particle as it travels along the x-axis. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the particle between t = 1 s and t = 4 s?

A) 0.25 m/s

B) 0.50 m/s

C) 0.67 m/s

D) 1.0 m/s

E) 1.3 m/s

Answer: C

Q2) Figure 2-8 represents the position of a particle as it travels along the x-axis. At what value of t is the speed of the particle equal to zero?

A) 0 s

B) 1 s

C) 2 s

D) 3 s

E) 4 s

Answer: D

Q3) A stone is thrown straight up. What is its acceleration on the way up?

Answer: 9.8 m/s2 downward

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Chapter 3: Vectors in Physics

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Q1) A plane has an airspeed of 142 m/s. A 16.0 m/s wind is blowing southward at the same time as the plane is flying. If the velocity of the plane relative to Earth is due east, what is the magnitude of that velocity?

A) 16.2 m/s

B) 16.0 m/s

C) 158 m/s

D) 141 m/s

E) 48 m/s

Answer: D

Q2) A swimmer heading directly across a river 200 m wide reaches the opposite bank in 6 min 40 s. She is swept downstream 480 m. What is the speed of the current?

A) 0.50 m/s

B) 0.80 m/s

C) 1.2 m/s

D) 1.4 m/s

E) 1.8 m/s

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Two-Dimensional Kinematics

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Q1) A bullet is fired with a certain velocity at an angle above the horizontal at a location where g = 10.0 m/s2. The initial x and y components of its velocity are 86.6 m/s and 50.0 m/s respectively. How long does it take before the bullet gets to the highest point of its trajectory?

A) 5.0 seconds

B) 10.0 seconds

C) 15.0 seconds

D) 20.0 seconds

E) None of the other choices is correct.

Q2) An athlete competing in long jump leaves the ground with a speed of 9.14 m/s at an angle of 35.0° above the horizontal. How long does the athlete stay in the air?

A) 0.501 s

B) 0.876 s

C) 1.07 s

D) 2.53 s

E) 0.535 s

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Chapter 5: Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) An ant walks down the surface of a ball. If the ant begins to slip when the normal force is less than one-third of the ant's weight, at what angle, measured from the top of the ball, does the ant begin to slip?

A) 70.5°

B) 19.5°

C) 55.0°

D) 18.4°

E) 35.2°

Q2) A student uses a plumb bob to verify that the doorjamb in a car is vertical. As the car pulls away from a stop, the student observes that the string now makes an angle with the doorjamb. What is the acceleration of the car?

A) g sin

B) g cos

C) g tan

D) g

Q3) Why does it hurt more to fall from a certain height to the ground than it does to fall from the same height into a swimming pool?

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Chapter 7: Work and Kinetic Energy

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Q1) A 5.00-kg box slides 4.00 m across the floor before coming to rest. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the floor and the box if the box had an initial speed of 3.00 m/s?

A) 1.13

B) 0.587

C) 0.115

D) 0.229

E) 0.267

Q2) An object is under the influence of a force as represented by the force vs. position graph in Figure 7-5. What is the work done as the object moves from 6 m to 12 m?

A) 20 J

B) 30 J

C) 0 J

D) 40 J

E) 70 J

Q3) The work required to stretch a spring changes linearly with the amount of stretch.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Potential Energy and Conservation of Energy

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Q1) An object of mass 2.00 kg starts at rest from the top of a rough inclined plane of height 20.0 m as shown in Figure 8-8. If the work done by the force of friction is -150 J, what is the speed of the object as it reaches the bottom of the inclined plane? Use g = 10.0 m/s2.

A) 15.8 m/s

B) 150 m/s

C) 10.0 m/s

D) 20.0 m/s

E) 200 m/s

Q2) A 0.200-kg mass attached to the end of a spring causes it to stretch 5.0 cm. If another 0.200-kg mass is added to the spring, the potential energy of the spring will be A) the same.

B) one-half as much.

C) twice as much.

D) 3 times as much.

E) 4 times as much.

Q3) The gravitational force is a conservative force.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Linear Momentum and Collisions

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Q1) When objects stick together after colliding, the collision is completely elastic.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The center of mass of a continuous, uniform object is located at the geometric center of the object.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In a particle accelerator, protons are fired at a stationary target and collide elastically with the nuclei of the atoms in the target. In one such experiment, a beam of protons is fired with a speed of 2.10 × 107 m/s. The protons that undergo a collision rebound with a speed of 1.68 × 107 m/s. What is the mass of the nuclei that the protons are colliding against?

A) 6.00 proton masses

B) 7.00 proton masses

C) 8.00 proton masses

D) 9.00 proton masses

E) 10.0 proton masses

Q4) State the Conservation of Momentum for a System of Objects

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Chapter 10: Rotational Kinematics and Energy

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Q1) An Atwood machine has a mass of 3.50 kg connected by a light string to a mass of 6.00 kg over a pulley with a moment of inertia of 0.0352 kg m2 and a radius of 12.5 cm. If the system is released from rest, what is the speed of the masses after they have moved through 1.25 m?

A) 2.00 m/s

B) 2.28 m/s

C) 4.00 m/s

D) 4.95 m/s

E) 6.00 m/s

Q2) A solid sphere of mass 1.5 kg and radius 15 cm rolls without slipping down a 35° incline that is 7.0 m long. Assume it started from rest. The moment of inertia of a sphere is given by I= (2/5)MR2.

(a) Calculate the linear speed of the sphere when it reaches the bottom of the incline.

(b) Determine the angular speed of the sphere at the bottom of the incline.

(c) Does the linear speed depend on the radius or mass of the sphere? Does the angular speed depend on the radius or mass of the sphere?

Q3) Express an angular speed of 33.3 rpm in rad/s.

Q4) What is the angular speed in rad/s of the minute hand of a clock?

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Chapter 11: Rotational Dynamics and Static Equilibrium

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Q1) If the net force on an object is zero N, does the net torque on the object have to be zero Nm?

Q2) Some students are discussing why a simple Atwood machine accelerates. Jane says that because of the unequal masses, gravity exerts a constant external torque on the two-mass and pulley system and thus its total angular momentum increases at a constant rate. Is Jane's explanation a valid one?

Q3) A puck moves on a horizontal air table. It is attached to a string that passes through a hole in the center of the table. As the puck rotates about the hole, the string is pulled downward very slowly and shortens the radius of rotation, so the puck gradually spirals in towards the center. What happens to the puck's linear speed?

Q4) The rotating systems shown in Figure 11-1 differ only in that the two identical movable masses are positioned a distance r from the axis of rotation (left), or a distance r/2 from the axis of rotation (right). If you release the hanging blocks simultaneously from rest, A) the block at left lands first.

B) the block at right lands first.

C) both blocks land at the same time.

D) it is impossible to tell which block reaches the bottom first.

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Chapter 12: Gravity

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Q1) The hydrogen atom consists of a proton of mass 1.67 × 10-27 kg and an orbiting electron of mass 9.11 × 10-31 kg. In one of its orbits, the electron is 5.3 × 10-11 m from the proton. What is the mutual attractive gravitational force between the electron and proton?

A) 1.8 × 10-47 N

B) 3.6 × 10-47 N

C) 5.4 × 10-47 N

D) 7.0 × 10-47 N

E) 9.3 × 10-47 N

Q2) Sirius A and Sirius B constitute a binary star pair in which the stars orbit their common center of mass with a period of 49.9 years. The stars are 2.40 × 1012 m apart. Assume that the two stars have equal masses and that they move in a circle about their common center of mass. What is the mass of each star? G = 6.67 x 10-11 N·m2/kg2.

A) 5.41 × 1030 kg

B) 2.70 × 1030 kg

C) 7.55 × 1030 kg

D) 3.30 × 1030 kg

E) 1.65 × 1030 kg

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Oscillations About Equilibrium

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Q1) A Christmas ornament made from a thin hollow glass sphere hangs from a small hook at its surface. It is observed to oscillate with a frequency of 2.50 Hz. What is the radius of the ornament? The moment of inertia of a hollow sphere of mass M and radius R about a point on its edge is 5MR2/3.

A) 1.84 cm

B) 3.68 cm

C) 2.39 cm

D) 3.98 cm

E) 4.69 cm

Q2) When a mass of 0.350 kg is attached to a vertical spring and lowered slowly, the spring stretches a distance d. The mass is now displaced from its equilibrium position and undergoes 100 oscillations in 48.9 s. What is the stretch distance d?

A) 2.35 cm

B) 2.97 cm

C) 4.71 cm

D) 5.94 cm

E) 6.28 cm

Q3) Should the tuner on a radio have small or large damping?

Q4) Why are troops instructed to break step when they are marching over a bridge?

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Chapter 14: Waves and Sound

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Q1) Two in-phase loudspeakers are some distance apart. They emit sound with a frequency of 572 Hz. A microphone is moved between the speakers to record the wave amplitude at points along that line. What is the spacing between points where constructive interference occurs? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.

A) 0.300 m

B) 0.600 m

C) 0.900 m

D) 1.20 m

E) 1.50 m

Q2) Two steel wires are stretched with the same tension. The first wire has a diameter of 0.610 mm and the second wire has a diameter of 0.910 mm. If the speed of waves traveling along the first wire is 54.0 m/s, what is the speed of waves traveling along the second wire?

A) 24.9 m/s

B) 27.2 m/s

C) 36.2 m/s

D) 81.0 m/s

E) 100 m/s

Q3) What is the audible range of sound frequencies?

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Chapter 15: Fluids

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Q1) An object floats on a fluid if its density is less than that of the fluid.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Water flows in the vertical pipe shown in Figure 15-13. At A the area is 25.0 cm2 and the speed of the water is 0.750 m/s. At B the area is 16.0 cm2. The fluid in the manometer is oil, which has a density of 800 kg/m3. What is the manometer reading h?

A) 1.00 cm

B) 2.02 cm

C) 2.69 cm

D) 5.17 cm

E) 5.18 cm

Q3) State Archimedes' Principle.

Q4) The buoyant force acts through the center of mass of the displaced fluid.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Does atmospheric pressure affect the buoyant force on a rigid submarine? Explain why or why not.

Q6) State Bernoulli's principle.

Q7) What is meant by gauge pressure?

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Chapter 16: Temperature and Heat

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Q1) Radiative heat transfer requires a fluid to mediate the energy transfer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the absolute temperature of an object is tripled, the thermal power radiated per unit surface area of this object will (assuming that its emissivity is not affected by the temperature change)

A) increase by a factor of 3.

B) increase by a factor of 9.

C) increase by a factor of 18.

D) increase by a factor of 27.

E) increase by a factor of 81.

Q3) State the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics.

Q4) Convective heat transfer can only occur if fluids mediate the energy transfer.

A)True

B)False

Q5) You are given a piece of pie straight out of the oven, so the crust and the filling are at the same temperature. You sample a piece of crust with no problem, but when you put a piece of filling in your mouth, you burn your tongue. Why?

Q6) Describe the anomalous thermal expansion property of water and its significance.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Phases and Phase Changes

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Q1) Opposing shearing forces of 3000 N are applied to the 4.00 cm × 5.00 cm faces of a 3.00 cm × 4.00 cm × 5.00 cm steel block. By what amount does the block become slanted? The shear modulus for steel is 8.10 × 1010 N/m2.

A) 1.54 × 10-6 m

B) 5.56 × 10-7 m

C) 9.88 × 10-7 m

D) 3.08 × 10-6 m

E) 6.98 × 10-6 m

Q2) A 50-kg air conditioner is placed on top of a concrete pad with a cross-sectional area of 3.0 m2 and 20 cm thick. What is the change in thickness of the pad? Young's modulus for concrete is 2.3 × 1010 N/m2.

A) 1.4 × 10-9 m

B) 2.8 × 10-9 m

C) 1.4 × 10-8 m

D) 1.4 × 10-7 m

E) 2.8 × 10-8 m

Q3) The internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend on the pressure.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: The Laws of Thermodynamics

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Q1) Referring to Figure 18-2, a substance carried from point A to B absorbs 50. J and finds its internal energy has increased by 20. J. Going from B to C the internal energy decreases by 5. Joules.

(a) How much work was done from A to B?

(b) How much heat was absorbed from B to C?

Q2) If a thermometer measures the temperature of two objects as being equal, you can conclude that if the objects are placed in thermal contact, no heat will flow between them.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A certain gas is compressed adiabatically. The amount of work done on the gas is 800 J. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas?

A) 800 J

B) -800 J

C) 400 J

D) 0 J

E) More information is needed to answer this question.

Q4) State the Third Law of Thermodynamics

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Chapter 19: Electric Charges, Forces, and Fields

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Q1) Three point charges are placed on the x-axis. A charge of +2.0 C is placed at the origin, -2.0 C to the right at x = 50 cm, and +4.0 C at the 100 cm mark. What are the magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force which acts on the charge at the origin?

A) 0.072 N right

B) 0.072 N left

C) 0.14 N right

D) 0.14 N left

E) 0

Q2) Figure 19-13 shows four Gaussian surfaces surrounding a distribution of charges. Which Gaussian surfaces have no electric flux through them?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) b and d

E) b and c

Q3) Consider the x-axis with 4.0 C at x = 1.0 meter and -2.0 C at the origin. Where should 6.0 C be placed so that the net force on it is zero?

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Chapter 20: Electric Potential and Electric Potential Energy

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Q1) Several electrons are placed on a hollow conducting sphere. They

A) clump together on the sphere's outer surface.

B) clump together on the sphere's inner surface.

C) become uniformly distributed on the sphere's outer surface.

D) become uniformly distributed on the sphere's inner surface.

E) become randomly distributed on the shere's outer and inner surfaces.

Q2) Four equal point charges of magnitude 6.00 C and of varying signs are placed at the corners of a square 2.00 m on each side, as shown in Figure 20-5. What is the electric potential at the center of this square due to these charges?

A) 76.4 kV

B) 0 V

C) 153 kV

D) 61.0 kV

E) 306 kV

Q3) If you were a parallel plate capacitor manufacturer, state three ways you might make larger valued capacitors.

Q4) Equipotential lines and electric field lines meet perpendicular to one another.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Electric Current and Direct-Current Circuits

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Q1) Capacitances of 10. F and 20. F are connected in parallel, and this pair is then connected in series with a 30. F capacitor. What is the equivalent capacitance of this arrangement?

Q2) Four unequal resistors connected in series have same current but different voltages.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Four unequal resistors are connected in a series circuit. Which one of the following statements is correct about this circuit?

A) The total resistance is equal to any one of the resistors.

B) The total resistance is equal to average of the four resistors.

C) The total resistance is less than the smallest resistor.

D) The total resistance is less than the largest resistor.

E) The total resistance is more than the largest resistor.

Q4) Kirchhoff's loop rule is a statement of

A) the law of conservation of momentum.

B) the law of conservation of charge.

C) the law of conservation of energy.

D) the law of conservation of angular momentum.

E) Newton's second law.

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Chapter 22: Magnetism

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Q1) A wire carrying a current that placed in a magnetic field will experience a maximum force if the angle between the direction of the current and the direction of the magnetic field is 60°.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An electron, moving south, enters a magnetic field of certain strength. Because of this field the electron curves upward. What is the direction of the magnetic field?

A) downward B) towards the east C) upward D) towards the west E) towards the north

Q3) The magnetic field near a current carrying wire is directly proportional to the distance from the wire.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe paramagnetism

Q5) Describe diamagnetism.

Q6) Describe ferromagnetism.

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Chapter 23: Magnetic Flux and Faradays Law of Induction

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Q1) A 60. Hz AC generator produces a maximum emf of 170. V. What is the value of the emf 0.025 s after it has reached its maximum value?

Q2) If the rate of change of the magnetic field applied to a loop of wire is doubled, what happens to the induced emf in that loop assuming all the other parameters remain unchanged?

A) It is doubled.

B) It stays the same.

C) It is reduced by a factor of 2.

D) It is quadrupled.

E) It is reduced by a factor of 4.

Q3) For the maximum induced emf in the coil of a generator, the term sin t has a value of one.

A)True B)False

Q4) The shape of the wire determines the direction of the induced current in a conducting loop of wire.

A)True

B)False

Q5) State Lenz's Law.

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Chapter 24: Alternating-Current Circuits

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Q1) A total impedance of an RC circuit with a capacitance of 40.0 F is 800 . If the frequency of the applied ac voltage is 18.0 Hz, what is the resistance of the circuit?

A) 569

B) 669

C) 769

D) 869

E) 800

Q2) A series RLC circuit connected across an ac voltage source will have a positive value of the phase angle at high frequencies.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The phase angle of an RLC series circuit with an inductive reactance of 200 and a capacitive reactance of 100 is 40.0°. What is the value of the resistor in this circuit?

A) 100

B) 119

C) 156

D) 200

E) 265

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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) The maximum value of the electric field in an electromagnetic wave is 2.0 V/m. What is the maximum value of the magnetic field?

A) 6.7 pT

B) 6.7 mT

C) 6.7 nT

D) 6.7 T

E) 6.7 T

Q2) The average magnetic energy density of an electromagnetic wave is 8.95 × 10-5 J/m3. What is the magnetic field component of this wave?

A) 12.0 T

B) 13.0 T

C) 14.0 T

D) 15.0 T

E) 16.0 T

Q3) The total electromagnetic power emitted by the Sun is 3.8 ×1026 W. What is the radiation pressure near the orbit of Mercury, which has an orbital radius of 5.8 × 1010 m?

Q4) A cordless phone operates at 900 MHz. What is the associated wavelength?

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Chapter 26: Geometrical Optics

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Q1) A ray of light strikes a plane mirror perpendicular to the mirror. What is the angle of incidence?

A) 360°

B) 0°

C) 180°

D) 90°

E) 270°

Q2) An object is placed at F in front of a concave mirror with a focal length of 10 cm. What is the position of its image in relation to the mirror and what are its characteristics?

A) = 10 cm, real, smaller than object

B) = 10 cm, virtual, smaller than object

C) = 20 cm, real, bigger than object

D) = 20 cm, virtual, bigger than object

E) = , real, much bigger than the object

Q3) A concave lens always produces a virtual image.

A)True

B)False

Q4) State how to draw the three rays for finding the image position due to a curved mirror.

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Chapter 27: Optical Instruments

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Q1) What is the power of the lens that has a focal length of 40 cm?

A) -2.5 diopters

B) -4.0 diopters

C) +4.0 diopters

D) +2.5 diopters

E) +2.7 diopters

Q2) The focal length of the lens of a simple camera is 40.0 mm. How far must the lens be moved to change the focus of the camera from a person 25 m away to one that is 4.0 m away?

A) 0.2 mm

B) 0.3 mm

C) 0.4 mm

D) 0.5 mm

E) 0.7 mm

Q3) Spherical lenses suffer from

A) both spherical and chromatic aberration.

B) spherical aberration, but not chromatic aberration.

C) chromatic aberration, but not spherical aberration.

D) neither spherical nor chromatic aberration.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Physical Optics: Interference and Diffraction

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Q1) In the two-slit experiment, monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm passes through a pair of slits separated by 2.20 × 10-5 m. What is the angle corresponding to the second dark fringe?

A) 4.70°

B) 3.51°

C) 3.94°

D) 1.17°

E) 2.35°

Q2) The interference pattern observed in Newton's rings experiment is because of the path difference between the top surface and the bottom surface of the air between the pieces of glass.

A)True

B)False

Q3) For two beams of light traveling different distances in reaching a point, and to form maximum constructive interference at that point, the beams must travel paths that differ by a whole number of wavelengths.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A satellite with a rest mass of 200 kg and a speed of 0.800c and a second satellite with a rest mass of 100 kg and a speed of 0.600c are traveling toward each other in deep space. The satellites collide and stick together. What is the speed of the combined object after the collision?

A) 0.333c

B) 0.374c

C) 0.397c

D) 0.418c

E) 0.432c

Q2) State the Constancy fo the Speed of Light postulate of special relativity.

Q3) When a spring is stretched, its mass decreases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A black hole is a star whose gravitational field is so strong that light cannot escape from it.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Quantum Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What primary wavelength and corresponding photon energy is emitted by a body at: (a) 400.°C?

(b) 800.°C?

Q2) The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the momentum of the particle. A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the surface temperature of a star, given that its radiation peak occurs at a frequency of 1.06 × 1015 Hz?

A) 17,000 K

B) 14,500 K

C) 19,000 K

D) 20,400 K

E) 18,000 K

Q4) The wavelength of a photon decreases when it is scattered from an electron. A)True

B)False

Q5) How "slow" must a 200. gram ball move to have a deBroglie wavelength of 1.0 mm?

Q6) What are the shortest wavelength X-rays produced by a 50,000-V X-ray tube?

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Chapter 31: Atomic Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ground state of the Li++ ion is at (Li has atomic number 3)

A) -40.8 eV.

B) -122 eV.

C) Li++ does not have a ground state.

D) -61 eV.

E) -1.51 eV.

Q2) The maximum number of electron states with a principal quantum number n = 3 is 15.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A hydrogen atom is in the 6h state. Which of the following could be an orbital quantum number?

A) 5

B) 6

C) 7

D) 8

E) 9

Q4) The constant term in the Balmer series is called the Rydberg constant.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 32: Nuclear Physics and Nuclear Radiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fermium-253 has a half-life of 3.00 days. A sample of fermium has 7.37 × 107 nuclei. How long will it take for there to be only 3.36 × 106 fermium nuclei in this sample?

A) 2.75 days

B) 9.80 days

C) 13.4 days

D) 15.7 days

E) 58.6 days

Q2) A moderator is inserted into a fission reaction to absorb neutrons and prevent additional fissions.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Rutherfordium-261 has a half-life of 1.08 min. How long will it take for a sample of rutherfordium to lose one-third of its nuclei?

A) 1.02 min

B) 1.62 min

C) 0.63 min

D) 2.70 min

E) 3.24 min

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