Physics for Life Sciences Final Exam Questions - 2135 Verified Questions

Page 1


Physics for Life Sciences

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Physics for Life Sciences provides an introduction to fundamental physical principles as they apply to biological systems and medical technologies. The course covers key topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, fluid dynamics, optics, electricity, and magnetism, with emphasis on understanding how these concepts underpin processes in living organisms and modern diagnostic tools. Students explore real-world applications, including biomechanics, blood flow, neural signaling, respiration, and medical imaging techniques. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, the course equips students with a solid foundation in physics tailored for future studies and careers in health and life sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell

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32 Chapters

2135 Verified Questions

2135 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bird flies 25.0 m in the direction 55° east of south to its nest on a cliff. The bird then flies 75.0 m in the direction 55° west of north to the top of a tree. What are the northward and westward components of the resultant displacement of the bird from its nest? northward westward

A)29 m 41 m

B)41 m 29 m

C)35 m 35 m

D)81 m 57 m

E)57 m 81 m

Answer: A

Q2) A student adds two displacement vectors with magnitudes of 6.0 m and 8.0 m, respectively. Which one of the following could not be a possible choice for the resultant?

A)2.3 m

B)6.6 m

C)10.0 m

D)12.8 m

E)14.8 m

Answer: E

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3

Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) Starting from rest, a particle that is confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>. Which statement concerning the slope of the position versus time graph for this particle is true?

A)The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s.

B)The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>.

C)The slope is both constant and negative.

D)The slope is not constant and increases with increasing time.

E)The slope is not constant and decreases with increasing time.

Answer: D

Q2) For which one of the following situations will the path length equal the magnitude of the displacement?

A)A toy train is traveling around a circular track.

B)A ball is rolling down an inclined plane.

C)A train travels 5 miles east before it stops. It then travels 2 miles west.

D)A ball rises and falls after being thrown straight up from the earth's surface.

E)A ball on the end of a string is moving in a vertical circle.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A boat that can travel at 4.0 km/h in still water crosses a river with a current of 2.0 km/h. At what angle must the boat be pointed upstream (that is, relative to its actual path) to go straight across the river?

A)27°

B)30°

C)60°

D)63°

E)90°

Answer: B

Q2) What is the approximate value of H, the height of the cliff?

A)27 m

B)54 m

C)78 m

D)150m

E)300 m

Answer: C

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5

Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A rock is suspended from a string; and it accelerates upward. Which statement is true concerning the tension in the string?

A)The tension points downward.

B)The tension is less than the weight of the rock.

C)The tension is equal to the weight of the rock.

D)The tension is greater than the weight of the rock.

E)The tension is independent of the magnitude of the rock's acceleration.

Q2) At a playground, a child slides down a slide that makes a 42° angle with the horizontal direction. The coefficient of kinetic friction for the child sliding on the slide is 0.20. What is the magnitude of her acceleration during her sliding?

A)4.6 m/s<sup>2</sup>

B)5.1 m/s<sup>2</sup>

C)5.4 m/s<sup>2</sup>

D)6.3 m/s<sup>2</sup>

E)9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>

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6

Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following expressions determines the minimum speed that the car must have at the top of the track if it is to remain in contact with the track?

A)v = MgR

B)v = 2gR

C)v<sup>2</sup> = 2gR

D)v<sup>2</sup> = gR

E)v = gR

Q2) The Earth exerts the necessary centripetal force on an orbiting satellite to keep it moving in a circle at constant speed. Which one of the following statements best explains why the speed of the satellite does not change although there is a net force exerted on it?

A)The satellite is in equilibrium.

B)The acceleration of the satellite is zero m/s<sup>2</sup>.

C)The centripetal force has magnitude mv<sup>2</sup>/r.

D)The centripetal force is canceled by the reaction force.

E)The centripetal force is always perpendicular to the velocity.

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two balls of equal size are dropped from the same height from the roof of a building. One ball has twice the mass of the other. When the balls reach the ground, how do the kinetic energies of the two balls compare?

A)The lighter one has one fourth as much kinetic energy as the other does.

B)The lighter one has one half as much kinetic energy as the other does.

C)The lighter one has the same kinetic energy as the other does.

D)The lighter one has twice as much kinetic energy as the other does.

E)The lighter one has four times as much kinetic energy as the other does.

Q2) The kinetic energy of a car is 8 × 10<sup>6</sup> J as it travels along a horizontal road. How much work is required to stop the car in 10 s?

A)zero joules

B)8 × 10<sup>4</sup> J

C)8 × 10<sup>5</sup> J

D)8 × 10<sup>6</sup> J

E)8 × 10<sup>7</sup> J

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 7.30-kg bowling ball strikes a 1.60-kg pin at rest head-on. Before the collision, the velocity of the ball is +6.00 m/s. After the collision, the velocity of the ball is +5.40 m/s.

What is the velocity of the pin after the collision?

A)+0.6 m/s

B)+5.4 m/s

C)+1.2 m/s

D)+2.7 m/s

E)+3.2 m/s

Q2) While on an interplanetary mission, a 58.5-kg astronaut is floating toward the front of her ship at 0.15 m/s, relative to the ship. She wishes to stop moving, relative to the ship. She decides to throw away the 2.50-kg book she's carrying. What should the approximate speed and direction of the book be to achieve her goal?

A)0.15 m/s, toward the front of the ship

B)3.5 m/s, toward the back of the ship

C)3.7 m/s, toward the front of the ship

D)0.30 m/s, toward the back of the ship

E)1.5 m/s, toward the front of the ship

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Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A car is moving along a horizontal road at a constant velocity that is directed 45° south of east. What is the direction of the angular velocity of the wheels of the car?

A)45° south of west

B)45° north of west

C)45° south of east

D)45° north of east

E)due east

Q2) An airplane engine starts from rest; and 2 seconds later, it is rotating with an angular speed of 420 rev/min. If the angular acceleration is constant, how many revolutions does the propeller undergo during this time?

A)7

B)14

C)21

D)49

E)150

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A compact disc rotates about its center at constant angular speed. Which one of the following quantities is constant and non-zero for a dust particle near the edge of the disc?

A)linear velocity

B)torque about the center of the disc

C)centripetal acceleration

D)angular momentum

E)angular acceleration

Q2) Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the center of gravity of an object?

A)It is the point where gravity acts on the object.

B)It is the point where all the mass is concentrated.

C)It must be experimentally determined for all objects.

D)It is the point on the object where all the weight is concentrated.

E)It is the point from which the torque produced by the weight of the object can be calculated.

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Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) How much potential energy is stored in the spring in Figure B?

A)0.245 J

B)0.490 J

C)4.90 J

D)9.80 J

E)zero J

Q2) A certain spring compressed 0.20 m has 10 J of elastic potential energy. The spring is then cut into two halves and one of the halves is compressed by 0.20 m. How much potential energy is stored in the compressed half of the spring?

A)5 J

B)10 J

C)14 J

D)20 J

E)40 J

Q3) Determine the Young's modulus of the wire.

A)1.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>

B)1.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>

C)2.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>

D)2.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>

E)5.0 × 10<sup>12</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>

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Chapter 11: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the area of contact at the head of each nail is 1.26 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> m<sup>2</sup>, what is the average pressure at each contact?

A)1.58 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa

B)1.27 × 10<sup>6</sup> Pa

C)2.40 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa

D)4.82 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa

E)3.16 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa

Q2) Elaine went to her outside faucet to fill a 0.0189-m<sup>3</sup> bucket with water to wash her car. Water exits with a speed of 0.61 m/s. The radius of the faucet is 0.0078 m.

How long does it take to fill the bucket completely?

A)9.0 s

B)17 s

C)160 s

D)280 s

E)490 s

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a warm summer day, the relative humidity is 30 % when the temperature is 32 °C. Which one of the following statements is true if the temperature suddenly decreases to 26 °C and all other conditions remain the same?

A)The relative humidity will decrease.

B)The relative humidity will increase.

C)The dew point will change.

D)The partial pressure of water vapor will decrease.

E)The vaporization curve of water will change.

Q2) A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed vessel. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

A)The rate of condensation is greater than the evaporation rate.

B)The rate of evaporation is greater than the condensation rate.

C)The temperature of the vapor is greater than that of the liquid.

D)Molecules of the liquid do not have enough energy to vaporize.

E)The temperature of the vapor is the same as that of the liquid.

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14

Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning the Stefan-Boltzmann equation is true?

A)This equation applies only to perfect radiators.

B)This equation applies only to perfect absorbers.

C)This equation is valid with any temperature units.

D)This equation describes the transport of thermal energy by conduction.

E)The equation can be used to calculate the power absorbed by any surface.

Q2) In an experiment to determine the thermal conductivity of a bar of a new alloy, one end of the bar is maintained at 0.0 °C and the other end at 100.0 °C. The bar has a cross-sectional area of 1.0 cm<sup>2</sup> and a length of 15 cm. If the rate of heat conduction through the bar is 34 W, what is the thermal conductivity of the bar?

A)34 W/(m · C°)

B)360 W/(m · C°)

C)160 W/(m · C°)

D)510 W/(m · C°)

E)0.029 W/(m · C°)

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Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements best explains why gases are not commercially sold by volume?

A)Gas volume is negligible.

B)Gas volume is difficult to measure.

C)Gas volume depends on the type of gas.

D)Gases have comparatively low densities.

E)Gas volume depends on temperature and pressure.

Q2) An air bubble 20 m below the surface of a lake has a volume of 0.02 m<sup>3</sup>. The bubble then rises to the surface. Assuming the temperature of the lake is uniform, what is the volume of the bubble just before it breaks through the surface?

A)0.02 m<sup>3</sup>

B)0.04 m<sup>3</sup>

C)0.06 m<sup>3</sup>

D)0.08 m<sup>3</sup>

E)0.10 m<sup>3</sup>

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A fixed amount of ideal gas is compressed adiabatically. Which entry in the table below correctly indicates the sign of the work done, the change in the internal energy, and the heat exchanged with the environment? work done change in internal energy heat exchanged

A)positive negative zero

B)negative zero positive

C)negative negative zero

D)positive positive zero

E)negative positive zero

Q2) A gasoline engine with an efficiency of 0.40 generates 1800 W of power. If a liter of gasoline has an energy content of 3.7 × 10<sup>7</sup> J, how many liters of gasoline does the engine consume each hour?

A)0.36

B)0.44

C)1.4

D)2.8 E)6.9

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two canoes are 10 m apart on a lake. Each bobs up and down with a period of 8.0 seconds. When one canoe is at its highest point, the other canoe is at its lowest point. Both canoes are always within a single cycle of the waves. Determine the speed of the waves.

A)2.5 m/s

B)1.3 m/s

C)5.0 m/s

D)0.65 m/s

E)0.75 m/s

Q2) At a distance of 5.0 m from a point sound source, the sound intensity level is 110 dB. At what distance is the intensity level 95 dB?

A)5.0 m

B)7.1 m

C)14 m

D)28 m

E)42 m

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18

Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cylindrical tube sustains standing waves at the following frequencies: 600 Hz, 800 Hz, and 1000 Hz. The tube does not sustain standing waves at 500 Hz, at 900 Hz, at any frequencies between 600 and 800 Hz, or at any frequencies between 800 and 1000 Hz. Determine the fundamental frequency of the tube and whether the tube is open at both ends or has only one end open.

A)50 Hz, both ends

B)100 Hz, one end

C)100 Hz, both ends

D)200 Hz, one end

E)200 Hz, both ends

Q2) A certain string, clamped at both ends, vibrates in seven segments at a frequency of 2.40 × 10<sup>2 </sup>Hz. What frequency will cause it to vibrate in four segments?

A)89 Hz

B)137 Hz

C)274 Hz

D)411 Hz

E)420 Hz

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two charged particles A and B are located near one another. Both the magnitude and direction of the force that particle A exerts on particle B is independent of

A)the sign of charge B.

B)the sign of charge A.

C)the distance between A and B.

D)the magnitude of the charge on B.

E)The magnitude and direction of the force are dependent on all of the above choices.

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the spacing of the electric field lines in the vicinity of two point charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign?

A)The spacing indicates the direction of the electric field.

B)The spacing does not depend on the magnitude of the charges.

C)The spacing is large when the magnitude of the charges is large.

D)The spacing indicates the relative magnitude of the electric field.

E)The spacing is small when the magnitude of the charges is small.

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the electric potential energy of a +3.0 \(\mu\)C charge placed at corner A?

A)0.10 J

B)0.18 J

C)2.3 J

D)3.6 J

E)zero joules

Q2) A point charge gains 50 \(\mu\)J of electric potential energy when it is moved from point D to point G. Determine the magnitude of the charge.

A)1.0 \(\mu\)C

B)1.3 \(\mu\)C

C)25 \(\mu\)C

D)50\(\mu\)C

E)130 \(\mu\)C

Q3) What is the direction of the electric field at B?

A)toward A

B)toward D

C)toward C

D)into the page

E)up and out of the page

21

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the current in the 2.7-\(\varOmega\)resistor?

A)12 A

B)0.8 A

C)2.2 A

D)0.4 A

E)1.2 A

Q2) What is the approximate average power dissipated in the iron?

A)450 W

B)600 W

C)850 W

D)1200 W

E)1700 W

Q3) A 3.0-µF capacitor is connected in series with a 4.0-µF capacitor and a 48-V battery. What quantity of charge is supplied by the battery to charge the capacitors?

A)3.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> C

B)7.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> C

C)3.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> C

D)8.2 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> C

E)1.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> C

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the value of the current, I, in the top wire.

A)2 A

B)3 A

C)6 A

D)18 A

E)This cannot be determined since the value of d is not specified.

Q2) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the loop?

A)2.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T

B)1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T

C)2.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> T

D)1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> T

E)zero tesla

Q3) What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at point A?

A)3.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T, clockwise

B)3.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T, counterclockwise

C)6.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T, clockwise

D)6.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T, counterclockwise

E)2.7 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> T, clockwise

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23

Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning transformers is false?

A)Their operation makes use of mutual induction.

B)They are an application of Faraday's and Lenz's laws.

C)A transformer can function with either an ac current or a steady dc current.

D)A transformer that steps down the voltage, steps up the current.

E)A transformer that steps up the voltage, steps down the current.

Q2) The angular speed of a motor is 262 rad/s. The back emf generated by the motor is 89.4 V. Assuming all other factors remain the same, determine the back emf if the angular speed of the motor is reduced to 131 rad/s.

A)32.3 V

B)44.7 V

C)52.5 V

D)89.4 V

E)152 V

Q3) What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the loop?

A)zero volts

B)0.77 V

C)1.4 V

D)4.9 V

E)9.6 V

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) In an ac circuit, a 0.055-H inductor is connected to a generator that has an rms voltage of 18 V and operates at 50.0 Hz. What is the rms current through the inductor?

A)0.62 A

B)2.0 A

C)3.2 A

D)1.0 A

E)14 A

Q2) Determine the rms voltage of the generator.

A)220 V

B)110 V

C)82 V

D)75 V

E)53 V

Q3) What is the peak (not rms) voltage across the capacitor?

A)120 V

B)180 V

C)190 V

D)210 V

E)290 V

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the electric field at t = 3.34 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup> s?

A)2.0 N/C

B)5.0 N/C

C)7.1 N/C

D)10.0 N/C

E)zero N/C

Q2) Linearly polarized light is incident of a sheet of polarizing material. The angle between the transmission axis and the incident electric field is 44°. What percentage of the incident intensity is transmitted?

A)38 %

B)43 %

C)52 %

D)72 %

E)84 %

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Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. For which one of the following object distances will the image be real, inverted and smaller than the object?

A)5 cm

B)10 cm

C)15 cm

D)18 cm

E)25 cm

Q2) A rubber ball is held 4.0 m above a concave spherical mirror with a radius of curvature of 1.5 m. At time equals zero, the ball is dropped from rest and falls along the principal axis of the mirror. How much time elapses before the ball and its image are at the same location?

A)0.30 s

B)0.55 s

C)0.63 s

D)0.71 s

E)0.90 s

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) When an object is placed 20 cm from a diverging lens, a reduced image is formed. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

A)The image is inverted.

B)The image could be real.

C)The image distance must be greater than 20 cm.

D)The focal length of the lens may be less than 20 cm.

E)The refractive power of the lens must be greater than 0.05 diopters.

Q2) Complete the following statement: The term dispersion refers to the fact that the index of refraction of certain materials

A)depends on the Brewster angle.

B)depends on the wavelength of light.

C)depends on the angle of incidence.

D)depends on the intensity of light.

E)depends on the polarization of light.

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Which fringe results from a phase difference of 4\(\pi\)?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q2) Which fringe is the same distance from both slits?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q3) Which one of the following phenomena would be observed if the wavelength of light were increased?

A)The fringes would be brighter.

B)More bright fringes would appear on the screen.

C)The distance between dark fringes would decrease.

D)Single-slit diffraction effects would become non-negligible.

E)The angular separation between bright fringes would increase.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The momentum of an electron is 1.75 times larger than the value computed non-relativistically. What is the speed of the electron?

A)2.94 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

B)2.46 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

C)2.61 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

D)2.34 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

E)1.83 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

Q2) Which one of the following is a consequence of the postulates of special relativity?

A)There is no such thing as an inertial reference frame.

B)Newton's laws of motion apply in every reference frame.

C)Coulomb's law of electrostatics applies in any reference frame.

D)The question of whether an object is at rest in the universe is meaningless.

E)The value of every physical quantity depends on the reference frame in which it is measured.

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Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) A beam of electrons is incident on a single slit that has a width of 1.00 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> m and a diffraction pattern is observed on a screen located 15.0 m from the slit. The momentum of an individual electron in the beam is 5.91 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>24</sup> kg . m/s. What is the width of the central maximum fringe?

A)5.87 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> m

B)1.33 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> m

C)6.67 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> m

D)3.37 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> m

E)7.50 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> m

Q2) In a computer monitor, electrons approach the screen at 1.20 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of these electrons? Note: the mass of electrons is 9.109 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>31</sup> kg; and use the relativistic momentum in your calculation.

A)4.31 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m

B)5.56 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m

C)6.07 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m

D)6.62 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m

E)7.85 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m

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Page 31

Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) An electron is in the ground state of a hydrogen atom. A photon is absorbed by the atom and the electron is excited to the n = 2 state. What is the energy in eV of the photon?

A)13.6 eV

B)10.2 eV

C)3.40 eV

D)1.51 eV

E)0.54 eV

Q2) Which one of the following will result in an electron transition from the n = 4 level to the n = 7 level in a hydrogen atom?

A)emission of a 0.28 eV photon

B)emission of a 0.57 eV photon

C)absorption of a 0.85 eV photon

D)absorption of a 0.28 eV photon

E)absorption of a 0.57 eV photon

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ratio of the abundance of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a sample of dead wood is one quarter the ratio for living wood. If the half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years, which one of the following expressions determines how many years ago the wood died?

A)2 × 5730

B)4 × 5730

C)0.75 × 5730

D)0.50 × 5730

E)0.25 × 5730

Q2) In a beta decay process, not all of the released energy is carried by the beta particle. Who proposed the existence of the neutrino in 1930 to account for the missing energy?

A)Niels Bohr

B)Erwin Schrödinger

C)Werner Heisenberg

D)Wolfgang Pauli

E)Enrico Fermi

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33

Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements is the best explanation as to why nuclear fusion is not at present used to generate electric power?

A)Fusion produces too much radiation.

B)Fusion requires isotopes that are scarce.

C)Fusion processes can result in nuclear explosions.

D)Fusion results in large amounts of radioactive waste.

E)Fusion requires very high temperatures that are difficult to contain.

Q2) A beam of 4.5-MeV neutrons is directed at a 0.030-kg tissue sample. Each second, 1.5 × 10<sup>6</sup> neutrons strike the sample. If the relative biological effectiveness of these neutrons is 7.0, what biologically equivalent dose (in rem) is received by the sample in 65 seconds?

A)0.23 rem

B)0.55 rem

C)1.6 rem

D)19 rem

E)33 rem

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