

Physics for Liberal Arts Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Physics for Liberal Arts offers a broad overview of fundamental physics principles with a focus on their relevance to everyday life and societal issues. Designed for non-science majors, the course explores topics such as motion, energy, electricity, magnetism, waves, and the structure of the universe through conceptual explanations, demonstrations, and real-world applications. Students will develop critical thinking and scientific literacy skills, enabling them to appreciate the role of physics in understanding natural phenomena and informing decisions about technology, the environment, and public policy. No prior knowledge of advanced mathematics is required.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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37 Chapters
2874 Verified Questions
2874 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3633

Page 2

Chapter 1: About Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a scientific statement?
A)candy Bon Bons contain no sugar
B)there are things we will never know about C)matter is filled with undetectable particles
D)there are parts of the universe that will never be discovered by humans
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) The most basic of the sciences of physics, chemistry, and biology is A)physics.
B)chemistry.
C)biology.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Pseudoscience is best characterized as being A)new age.
B)an alternate view to be taken seriously. C)fake.
D)all of the above
Answer: C
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Newtons First Law of Motion: Inertia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equilibrium rule, F = 0, applies to
A)objects or systems at rest.
B)objects or systems in uniform motion in a straight line.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Answer: C
Q2) Nellie hangs from a pair of ropes at an angle. Tension in the ropes depends on the A)length of the ropes.
B)angle of the ropes.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Answer: B
Q3) If Nellie hangs from a horizontal bar that is supported by four vertical ropes, the tension in the ropes
A)are each half her weight.
B)are each equal to her weight.
C)add to equal her weight.
D)none of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A car's speed 3 seconds after accelerating from rest at 2 m/s<sup>2</sup> is
A)2 m/s.
B)3 m/s.
C)4 m/s.
D)6 m/s.
Answer: D
Q2) An airplane that flies at 100 km/h in a 100-km/h crosswind has a ground speed of A)0 km/h.
B)100 km/h.
C)141 km/h.
D)200 km/h.
Answer: C
Q3) An object falls freely from rest on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is twice as much as on Earth. In the first 5 seconds it falls a distance of A)100 m.
B)150 m.
C)250 m.
D)500 m.
E)none of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Newtons Second Law of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object with twice as much mass as another object has twice as much A)inertia.
B)speed.
C)acceleration due to gravity.
D)all of the above
Q2) Two tennis balls fall through the air from a tall building. One of them is filled with lead pellets. The ball to reach the ground first is the
A)regular ball.
B)lead-filled ball.
C)same for both
Q3) Suppose a particle is being accelerated through space by a 10-N force. Suddenly the particle encounters a second force of 10 N in the opposite direction. The particle with both forces acting
A)is brought to a rapid halt.
B)decelerates gradually to a halt.
C)continues at the speed it had when it encountered the second force.
D)theoretically tends to accelerate toward the speed of light.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 5: Newtons Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neglecting air resistance, once a tossed ball leaves your hand
A)no further forces act on it.
B)only the force due to gravity acts on it.
C)inertia becomes the force acting on it.
D)your tossing force remains while the ball goes upward.
E)your tossing force remains until it comes to a stop.
Q2) The lift experienced by a helicopter involves an action-reaction pair of forces between the
A)helicopter blades and the air.
B)mass of the helicopter and Earth's mass.
C)weight of the helicopter and atmospheric pressure.
D)motion of the helicopter relative to the ground below.
E)any or all of the above
Q3) When a baseball player bats a ball with a force of 1000 N, the reaction force that the ball exerts against the bat is
A)less than 1000 N.
B)more than 1000 N.
C)1000 N.
D)need more information

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) A softer landing occurs when an falling object bounces from a surface
A)in a extended time.
B)quickly.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q2) When Peter tosses an egg against a sagging sheet, the egg doesn't break due to A)reduced impulse.
B)reduced momentum.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) The greater efficiency achieved with the curved blades of a Pelton wheel is due to A)bouncing.
B)greater time of water impact.
C)rotational momentum.
D)divided impulse.
Q4) Which has the greater momentum when moving?
A)a container ship
B)a bullet
C)either of these depending on speed
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Chapter 7: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1000-kg car and a 2000-kg car are hoisted to the same height. Raising the more massive car requires
A)less work.
B)as much work.
C)twice as much work.
D)four times as much work.
E)more than four times as much work.
Q2) A ball rolling down an incline has its maximum kinetic energy at A)the top.
B)halfway down.
C)three-quarters of the way down.
D)the bottom.
Q3) The work you do when pushing a shopping cart twice as far while applying twice the force is
A)half as much.
B)twice as much.
C)four times as much.
D)the same amount.
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Chapter 8: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your pet hamster sits on a record player that has constant angular speed. If the hamster moves to a point twice as far from the center, then its linear speed A)doubles.
B)halves.
C)remains the same.
Q2) As the polar icecaps melt, the resulting water spreads over the entire Earth. This new mass distribution tends to make the length of a day A)longer.
B)shorter.
C)none of these
Q3) If Earth had a pair of identical moons on opposite sides of the same circular orbit, the center of gravity of the double-moon-Earth system would be A)inside the Earth, but off center.
B)at the center of the Earth.
C)outside the Earth, but within the orbital path of the moons.
D)outside the Earth, but beyond the orbital path of the moons.
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Chapter 9: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direction of a gravitational field is A)in the same direction as gravitational attraction.
B)away from the center of gravity of an object.
C)opposite to the direction of gravitational attraction.
Q2) The origin of any microtides in the human body is most likely the A)Sun.
B)Moon. C)Earth.
Q3) What is the force of gravity on a 500-N woman standing on Earth's surface?
A)50 N
B)250 N
C)500 N
D)5000 N
E)none of the above
Q4) The concept of force is fundamental to A)Newton's theory of gravitation.
B)Einstein's theory of gravitation.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 10: Projectile and Satellite Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with the period of satellites in close Earth orbit, the period of satellites orbiting far from Earth is A)shorter.
B)the same.
C)longer.
D)need more information
Q2) The period of an Earth satellite depends on the satellite's A)mass.
B)weight on Earth.
C)radial distance from Earth.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The radial velocity of an Earth satellite is its velocity
A)parallel to the surface of Earth.
B)perpendicular to the surface of Earth.
C)attributed to satellites moving in any direction.
D)none of the above
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12

Chapter 11: Atomic Nature of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) An isotope is simply an atom that A)is electrically charged.
B)has different numbers of neutrons for the same element.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Nuclei of atoms that make up a newborn baby were manufactured in A)the mother's womb.
B)the food the mother eats before delivery.
C)ancient stars.
D)the Earth.
E)none of the above
Q3) A uranium atom is 238 times as massive as a hydrogen atom. Compared with the diameter of a hydrogen atom, uranium's size is A)slightly smaller.
B)only slightly larger.
C)is much larger, but less than 238 times as large.
Q4) The mass of matter is due mostly to its A)protons.
B)electrons.
C)both of these
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Chapter 12: Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a chocolate bar is cut in half, its density is A)halved.
B)unchanged.
C)doubled.
Q2) If each dimension of a steel bridge is scaled up ten times, its strength will be multiplied by about
A)ten and its weight by ten also.
B)one hundred, and its weight by one thousand.
C)one thousand, and its weight by one hundred thousand.
D)none of the above
Q3) A horizontal wooden beam sags a bit when supported at its ends. In between the top and bottom surfaces is a region of A)tension.
B)compression.
C)neither of these
Q4) The weight of a 1-centimer cubed metal cube scaled up by a factor of 10 will be A)ten times as much.
B)a hundred times as much.
C)a thousand times as much.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 13: Liquids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lobster crawls onto a bathroom scale on the ocean floor. Its weight compared to its weight above the surface is A)greater.
B)less.
C)the same.
Q2) The attraction between unlike substances is called A)adhesion.
B)cohesion.
C)depends on the substances.
Q3) When an ice cube in a glass of water melts, the water level A)rises.
B)falls.
C)remains the same.
Q4) While standing, your blood pressure is normally greatest in your A)head.
B)heart.
C)feet.
D)same in each
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Gases and Plasmas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atmospheric molecules do not fly off into outer space due to A)their chaotic speeds.
B)their relatively low densities.
C)Earth gravitation.
D)cohesive forces.
Q2) When a suction cup sticks to a wall it is
A)pulled to the wall by the vacuum.
B)pushed to the wall by the atmosphere.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) An umbrella tends to move upwards on a windy day principally because A)trapped air under the umbrella, warms, and rises.
B)buoyancy increases with increasing wind speed.
C)air pressure is reduced over the curved top surface.
D)all of the above
Q4) When a gas in a container expands to twice its volume, its density A)halves.
B)doubles.
C)quadruples.
D)remains the same.
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Chapter 15: Temperature, Heat, and Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the temperature of a solid block of ice is lowered, its volume
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)stays the same.
Q2) If the specific heat capacity of water were lower than it is, a watermelon in a picnic cooler would cool in a
A)shorter time.
B)longer time.
C)the same time anyway.
Q3) Which of these expands when the temperature is lowered?
A)iron
B)wood
C)ice water
D)helium
E)none of the above
Q4) The fact that gasoline overflows a full tank on a hot day is evidence that A)gasoline expands more with increasing temperature than its tank.
B)the tank contracts while gasoline expands with temperature.
C)both of these
D)neither of these

Page 17
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Chapter 16: Heat Transfer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Looking forward, common consensus will likely agree that the wisest use of fossil fuels is to
A)convert them to heat and smoke.
B)save them for tomorrow's materials.
C)extract and sell them as quickly as possible.
D)all of the above
Q2) Metals are good conductors of both heat and electricity due to
A)similar thermal and electrical conductive properties.
B)looseness of outer electrons in metal atoms.
C)relatively high densities of metals.
D)high elasticity of metals.
E)both transferring energy easily.
Q3) The amount of solar energy per square meter atop the atmosphere at right angles to the Sun's rays is about
A)700 joules.
B)1000 joules.
C)1400 joules.
D)much more than 1400 joules.
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18
Chapter 17: Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morning dew on the grass is a result of A)evaporation of water.
B)the open-structured form of water crystals.
C)air pressure on water vapor.
D)slow-moving water molecules sticking to one another.
Q2) The toy drinking bird nicely illustrates A)evaporation.
B)condensation.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Water can be turned to ice by A)lowering the surrounding air pressure.
B)extracting energy.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q4) When a solid is changed to a liquid, the solid A)releases energy.
B)absorbs energy.
C)both of these D)neither of these

Page 19
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Chapter 18: Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal efficiency for a heat engine operating between the temperatures of 227°C and 27°C is
A)20%.
B)25%.
C)40%.
D)88%.
E)none of the above
Q2) As a system becomes more disordered, entropy
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
Q3) A volume of air that is compressed with no heat entering or leaving becomes A)cooler.
B)remain unchanged.
C)warmer.
D)none of the above
Q4) A quantity of water has more entropy when it is A)frozen ice.
B)boiling.
C)at room temperature.
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Chapter 19: Vibrations and Waves
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you quickly run away from the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be
A)decreased.
B)increased.
C)neither of these.
Q2) The frequency of the second hand on a clock is
A)1 hertz.
B)1/60 hertz.
C)60 hertz.
Q3) A blue shift for light indicates that the light source is moving
A)toward you.
B)away from you.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Which equation is correct for wave speed?
A)wave speed = frequency x wavelength
B)wave speed = (1/period)x wavelength
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 20: Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wavelengths of sound that carry farther in air are relatively A)long.
B)short.
C)ultrasonic.
D)none of the above
Q2) Human hearing is best in A)infrasonic sound.
B)ultrasonic sound.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) To estimate the distance in kilometers of a flash of lightning, count the number of seconds between seeing the flash and hearing the accompanying thunder, then divide by A)2.
B)3.
C)4.
D)5.
E)none of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Musical Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pitch of a musical sound is most related to A)wavelength.
B)frequency.
C)speed.
D)amplitude.
E)all of the above
Q2) The laser light that can carry more information is A)red.
B)blue.
C)either of these D)neither of these
Q3) How many octaves exist between 40 hertz and 1280 hertz?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
E)9
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Electrostatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two charges separated by one meter exert 1-N forces on each other. If the charges are pulled 3 meters apart, the force on each charge will be
A)0.11 N.
B)0.33 N.
C)0 N.
D)3 N.
E)9 N.
Q2) If electrons are stripped from an atom it becomes a A)positive ion.
B)negative ion.
C)different element.
D)molecule.
Q3) The operation of a microwave oven makes use of
A)the polar nature of water molecules.
B)flip flopping of polarized molecules.
C)an oscillating electric field.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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24

Chapter 23: Electric Current
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electric heater is rated 300W 110V. The safety fuse in the circuit can withstand 15 A of current. How many heaters can be safely operated in the circuit?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)more than 5
Q2) When you turn on a lamp, the initial current in its filament is greater at first, rather than a moment later, which indicates
A)something is faulty.
B)a time delay for current attaining its average speed.
C)increased temperature means increased resistance.
D)nothing of interest
Q3) When two lamps are connected in series to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is
A)more than the resistance of either lamp.
B)less than the resistance of either lamp.
C)none of these
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25

Chapter 24: Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lift experienced by Maglev trains is due to magnetic A)attraction.
B)repulsion.
C)dipoles.
Q2) The end of a compass needle that points to the south pole of a magnet is the A)north pole.
B)south pole.
C)both of these
Q3) Magnetic field strength about a magnet is strongest where magnetic field lines are A)closer together.
B)straightest.
C)most curved.
D)more spread.
Q4) Surrounding every moving electron is A)a magnetic field.
B)an electric field.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Page 26

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Voltage can be induced in a wire by
A)moving the wire near a magnet.
B)moving a magnet near the wire.
C)changing the current in a nearby wire.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The high voltage that is important in a power line is high voltage
A)between the parallel wires of the line.
B)from one end of each power line to the other.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) A certain transformer doubles input voltage. If the primary coil draws 10 A of current, then the current in the secondary coil is
A)2 A.
B)5 A.
C)10 A.
D)25 A.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 26: Properties of Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the Sun were to disappear at this moment, we wouldn't know about it for
A)7 seconds, reflex time.
B)8 seconds.
C)8 minutes.
D)8 hours.
Q2) Which travels with the greatest speed in a vacuum?
A)radio waves
B)light waves
C)X-rays
D)gamma rays
E)all have the same speed
Q3) Materials generally become warmer when light is
A)absorbed by them.
B)reflected by them.
C)transmitted by them.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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28

Chapter 27: Color
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Sample Questions
Q1) What characteristic of light mostly relates to color?
A)frequency
B)amplitude
C)both of these
Q2) The sky is blue because air molecules in the sky act as tiny
A)mirrors which reflect only blue light.
B)optical tuning forks that scatter blue light.
C)sources of white light.
D)prisms.
E)none of the above
Q3) Which is not a color?
A)yellow-green
B)black
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Distant bright snowy mountains appear yellowish because A)they are far away.
B)blue has been scattered away from light reflected from the mountains.
C)the color yellow looks just right.
D)of nature's wonderful preferences.
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Chapter 28: Reflection and Refraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image in a pinhole camera is
A)always inverted.
B)sometimes inverted.
C)always right-side up.
Q2) The critical angle is least in A)glass.
B)water.
C)diamond.
D)vacuum.
Q3) To "spear" a blue fish with a red laser beam and compensate for refraction, aim your laser
A)directly at the sighted fish.
B)above the sighted fish.
C)below the sighted fish.
Q4) An image of the American flag cast by a simple lens finds red and blue colors at slightly different distances from the lens. The color closest to the lens is A)red.
B)blue.
C)both at the same place
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Chapter 29: Light Waves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newton's rings will be closer together if illuminated with A)red light.
B)blue light.
C)white light.
D)none of the above
Q2) Because of absorption, a Polaroid will actually transmit 40% of incident unpolarized light. Two such Polaroids with their axes aligned will transmit A)0%.
B)40%.
C)100%.
D)between 0% and 40%.
E)between 40% and 100%.
Q3) Superposition of waves can produce A)reinforcement.
B)cancellation.
C)partial cancellation.
D)all the above
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31

Chapter 30: Light Emission
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the radiation curve for an incandescent lamp filament peaks in the green region, the object would appear
A)red.
B)yellow.
C)green.
D)blue.
E)white.
Q2) A paint pigment that absorbs blue light and gives off red light
A)is fluorescent.
B)is phosphorescent.
C)can be both of these D)neither of these
Q3) Astronomers can detect the spin rates of stars by A)their temperature.
B)changes in temperature.
C)absorption spectra.
D)the Doppler effect.
E)all of the above
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32

Chapter 31: Light Quanta
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Sample Questions
Q1) In casually observing a cup of tea you are A)affecting its temperature.
B)affecting its location.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle applies to A)momentum and position.
B)energy and time.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) The wave-particle duality applies to A)photons.
B)electrons.
C)protons
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) The first to be credited with the idea that light is quantized was A)Max Planck.
B)Albert Einstein.
C)both Planck and Einstein at about the same time.
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Chapter 32: The Atom and the Quantum
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Sample Questions
Q1) The discreteness of orbits of electrons in an atom are due to A)wave interference.
B)momentum conservation.
C)electric charge quanta
D)all the above
E)none of the above
Q2) According to de Broglie, constructive interference occurs when an orbiting wave
A)reinforces itself
B)doesn't reinforce itself.
C)neither of these
Q3) What did Millikan measure in his oil-drop experiment?
A)the electric charge of an electron
B)the mass of an electron
C)the mass of oil drops
D)none of the above
Q4) Using the Schrödinger equation, scientists can calculate A)probabilities.
B)the position of an electron.
C)the velocity of an electron.
D)all of the above

Page 34
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Chapter 33: Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radium (A = 88)transmutes to radon (A = 86)by A)beta emission.
B)alpha emission.
C)gamma emission.
D)none of the above
Q2) When uranium emits an alpha particle, the result is A)thorium.
B)protactinium.
C)neptunium.
D)none of the above
Q3) For 1 gram of radioactive material that has a half-life of one year, after 4 years the original radioactive material left will be
A)0 g.
B)1/2 g.
C)1/4 g.
D)1/8 g.
E)none of the above
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35

Chapter 34: Nuclear Fission and Fusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nucleus of U-238 absorbs a neutron and becomes U-239, a beta emission, then another beta emission results in
A)Th-239.
B)Pa-239.
C)U-235.
D)Pu-239.
E)Pb-206.
Q2) A chain reaction progresses when the average number of liberated neutrons that cause further fissions is
A)zero.
B)less than one.
C)one or more.
D)none of the above
Q3) A neutron bouncing off a heavy nucleus loses speed. If it instead bounces off a light nucleus it loses
A)less speed.
B)more speed.
C)the same amount of speed.
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36

Chapter 35: Special Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Einstein rejected the classical idea that space and time are A)two parts of a whole.
B)connected to each other. C)independent of each other.
Q2) As a spaceship moving toward you at half the speed of light fires a probe toward you, relative to itself at 0.7 the speed of light, you see the probe approaching at about
A)0.70c.
B)0.87c.
C)0.89c.
D)0.92c.
E)0.96c.
Q3) Clocks on a spaceship moving at high speed relative to the Earth run more slowly when viewed from A)within the spaceship.
B)Earth.
C)both of these D)neither of these
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Chapter 36: General Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the orbit of Mercury were perfectly circular, its rate of precession would be A)larger.
B)smaller.
C)the same.
D)zero.
Q2) Important support for general relativity came from studies of the precession of the orbit of A)Mercury.
B)Venus.
C)Earth.
D)Mars.
E)asteroids.
Q3) Galileo dropped two balls of different weights and found they accelerated equally to the ground below. Einstein imagined the same result for a side-by-side drop A)without invoking gravity.
B)in an accelerating vehicle.
C)whether they were of the same mass or not.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 38

Chapter 37: Systems of Measurement
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Q1) There are about as many atoms of air in our lungs at any moment as there are breaths of air in the atmosphere of
A)a large auditorium.
B)a large city.
C)North America.
D)the whole world.
If all the atoms exhaled by Isaac Newton in his last dying breath are still in the atmosphere, then we breathe about one of those atoms with each E)single breath.
F)day of breathing.
G)month of breathing.
H)year of breathing.
I)none, for some people may inhale Newton's atoms occasionally while others may take years.
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