Physical Science Textbook Exam Questions - 2135 Verified Questions

Course Introduction

Physical Science

Textbook Exam Questions

Physical Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles governing non-living systems in the natural world. Covering topics in physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences, students gain an understanding of matter, energy, forces, and the structure of the universe. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and practical applications through hands-on experiments and problem-solving exercises. By examining real-world phenomena and technological advancements, students develop a broad scientific literacy that prepares them for further study and informed participation in a science-driven society.

Recommended Textbook Physics 10th Edition by John

D. Cutnell

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2135 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Q1) A runaway dog walks 0.64 km due north. He then runs due west to a hot dog stand. If the magnitude of the dog's total displacement vector is 0.91 km, what is the magnitude of the dog's displacement vector in the due west direction?

A)0.27 km

B)0.33 km

C)0.41 km

D)0.52 km

E)0.65 km

Answer: E

Q2) The Boston Marathon is the oldest annual foot race, in which those that finish complete a distance of 26 miles, 385 yards. Express this distance in kilometers.

A)16.295 km

B)16.398 km

C)42.186 km

D)42.453 km

E)56.496 km

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Q1) What is the average velocity of the object during the first 11 seconds?

A)+3.6 m/s

B)+6.4 m/s

C)+35 m/s

D)+72 m/s

E)-140 m/s

Answer: C

Q2) What is the speed of the object 3.0 seconds after it is dropped?

A)3.0 m/s

B)7.7 m/s

C)9.8 m/s

D)29 m/s

E)This cannot be determined since there is no specified value of height.

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip?

A)20 km/h

B)100 km/h

C)140 km/h

D)10 000 km/h

E)20 000 km/h

Answer: B

Q2) An eagle is flying due east at 8.9 m/s carrying a gopher in its talons. The gopher manages to break free at a height of 12 m. What is the magnitude of the gopher's velocity as it reaches the ground? Note: effects of air resistance are not included in this calculation.

A)22 m/s

B)18 m/s

C)11 m/s

D)9.8 m/s

E)8.9 m/s

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) A 8-kg block is set moving with an initial speed of 6 m/s on a rough horizontal surface. If the force of friction is 12 N, approximately how far does the block travel before it stops?

A)1.5 m

B)3 m

C)6 m

D)9 m

E)12 m

Q2) What is the magnitude of the tension in the string?

A)zero newtons

B)Mg

C)Mg cos \(\theta\)

D)Mg sin \(\theta\)

E)Mg tan \(\theta\)

Q3) What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the 40-kg block?

A)0.5 m/s²

B)1 m/s²

C)2 m/s²

D)4 m/s²

E)5 m/s²

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Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Q1) The record for the highest speed achieved in a laboratory for a uniformly rotating object was 2.01 × 10³ m/s for a 0.15-m long carbon rod. What was the period of rotation of the rod?

A)7.4 × 10^-⁵ s

B)3.1 × 10^-⁴ s

C)4.7 × 10^-⁴ s

D)5.2 × 10^-³ s

E)1.3 × 10^-³ s

Q2) What is the radius of the curve that the plane follows in making the turn?

A)280 m

B)350 m

C)830 m

D)1100 m

E)1600 m

Q3) What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the Jeep as it travels from A to B?

A)2 m/s²

B)5 m/s²

C)10 m/s²

D)20 m/s²

E)zero m/s²

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) In which one of the following situations is zero net work done?

A)A ball rolls down an inclined plane.

B)A physics student stretches a spring.

C)A projectile falls toward the surface of Earth.

D)A box is pulled across a rough floor at constant velocity.

E)A child pulls a toy across a rough surface causing it to accelerate.

Q2) A force with a magnitude of 25 N and directed at an angle of 37° above the horizontal is used to move a 10-kg crate along a horizontal surface at constant velocity. How much work is done by this force in moving the crate a distance of 15 m?

A)zero joules

B)1.7 J

C)40 J

D)98 J

E)300 J

Q3) Which one of the following choices is an example of a non-conservative force?

A)gravitational force

B)electrical force

C)kinetic frictional force

D)elastic spring force

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?

A)The moving piece has speed 2v.

B)This process conserves kinetic energy.

C)The piece at rest possesses kinetic energy.

D)The process does not conserve total energy.

E)This process does not conserve momentum.

Q2) Complete the following statement: Different types of collisions between interacting bodies are categorized on the basis of

A)kinetic energy conservation.

B)mechanical energy conservation.

C)linear momentum conservation.

D)the magnitude of the forces involved.

E)the temporal duration of the collision.

Q3) Which one of the following is characteristic of an inelastic collision?

A)Total mass is not conserved.

B)Total energy is not conserved.

C)Linear momentum is not conserved.

D)Kinetic energy is not conserved.

E)The change in momentum is less than the total impulse.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Q1) A 0.254-m diameter circular saw blade rotates at a constant angular speed of 117 rad/s. What is the tangential speed of the tip of a saw tooth at the edge of the blade?

A)29.7 m/s

B)14.9 m/s

C)9.46 m/s

D)7.45 m/s

E)2.17 m/s

Q2) What is the tangential speed of a point on the rim of the grindstone?

A)zero m/s

B)0.5 m/s

C)1.0 m/s

D)2.0 m/s

E)4.0 m/s

Q3) Determine the angular speed of the wheel.

A)0.4 rad/s

B)2.0 rad/s

C)4.0 rad/s

D)10 rad/s

E)20 rad/s

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) Two uniform solid spheres, A and B have the same mass. The radius of sphere B is twice that of sphere A. The axis of rotation passes through each sphere. Which one of the following statements concerning the moments of inertia of these spheres is true?

A)The moment of inertia of A is one-fourth that of B.

B)The moment of inertia of A is one-half that of B.

C)The moment of inertia of A is 5/4 that of B.

D)The moment of inertia of A is 5/2 that of B.

E)The two spheres have equal moments of inertia.

Q2) Three objects are positioned along the x axis as follows: 4.4 kg at x = + 1.1 m, 3.7 kg at x = -0.80 m, and 2.9 kg at x = -1.6 m. The acceleration due to gravity is the same everywhere. What is the distance from the location of the center of gravity to the location of the center of mass for this system?

A)zero meters

B)-0.52 m

C)-0.26 m

D)+0.26 m

E)+0.52 m

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11

Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Q1) A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L. The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by a small angle \(\theta\). What is the magnitude of the restoring force that moves the ball toward its equilibrium position and produces simple harmonic motion?

A)kx

B)mg

C)mg(cos \(\theta\))

D)mg(sin \(\theta\))

E)mgL(sin \(\theta\))

Q2) A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is replaced by another cable of the same material having the same length and twice the diameter. What is the mass of the load that can be supported by the thicker cable if it stretches by an amount d?

A)M/4

B)M/2

C)M

D)2M

E)4M

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Chapter 11: Fluids

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Q1) The two dams are identical with the exception that the water reservoir behind dam A extends twice the horizontal distance behind it as that of dam B. Which one of the following statements regarding these dams is correct?

A)The force exerted by the water on dam A is greater than that on dam B.

B)The force exerted by the water on dam B is greater than that on dam A.

C)Dam A is more likely to collapse than dam B if the water level rises.

D)Dam B is more likely to collapse than dam A if the water level rises.

E)The horizontal distance of the water behind the two dams does not determine the force on them.

Q2) The density of gold is 19 300 kg/m³. What is the mass of a gold sphere whose diameter is 0.25 m?

A)87.5 kg

B)158 kg

C)947 kg

D)1260 kg

E)3790 kg

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Q1) The specific heat capacity of iron is approximately half that of aluminum. Two balls of equal mass, one made of iron and the other of aluminum, both at 90 °C, are dropped into a thermally insulated jar that contains an equal mass of water at 25 °C. Thermal equilibrium is eventually reached. Which one of the following statements concerning the final temperatures is true?

A)Both balls will reach the same final temperature.

B)The iron ball will reach a higher final temperature than the aluminum ball.

C)The aluminum ball will reach a higher final temperature than the iron ball.

D)The difference in the final temperatures of the balls depends on the initial mass of the water.

E)The difference in the final temperatures of the balls depends on the initial temperature of the water.

Q2) How much work does the force of friction do on the block?

A)zero joules

B)300 J

C)-300 J

D)2510 J

E)-2510 J

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Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) Object A has an emissivity of 0.95; and its temperature is 25 °C. At what temperature (in degrees Celsius) does object B, whose emissivity is 0.50, emit radiation at the same rate as object A if both objects have the same surface area?

A)29 °C

B)40 °C

C)61 °C

D)77 °C

E)93 °C

Q2) Which one of the following statements best explains why convection does not occur in solids?

A)Molecules in a solid are more closely spaced than in a gas.

B)The molecules in a solid are not free to move throughout the volume of the solid.

C)Molecules in a solid vibrate at a lower frequency than those in a liquid.

D)Solids are more compressible than liquids.

E)Solids are less compressible than gases.

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Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Q1) A physics student looks into a microscope and observes that small particles suspended in water are moving about in an irregular motion. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for this observation?

A)Water molecules strike the particles giving them the same average kinetic energy as the water.

B)The particles are carried by convection currents in the water.

C)The small particles may be considered a fluid; and thus, move about randomly.

D)The actual motion is regular, but the speeds of particles are too large to observe the regular motion.

E)The particles are moving to be uniformly distributed throughout the volume of the water.

Q2) In the space between two stars, the temperature of a gas cloud is 12 K; and the density of the gas is 1.2 × 10^-8atom/m³. What is the absolute pressure of the gas?

A)2.0 × 10^-30 Pa

B)1.2 × 10^-28 Pa

C)2.0 × 10^-17 Pa

D)1.2 × 10^-6 Pa

E)1.4 × 10^-4 Pa

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Q1) What is the minimum amount of electrical energy required by the refrigerator to carry out this process if it operates between reservoirs at temperatures of 20.0 °C and -20.0 °C?

A)63 000 J

B)77 000 J

C)87 000 J

D)348 000 J

E)549 000 J

Q2) A fixed amount of ideal gas is compressed isothermally. Which entry in the table below correctly depicts the sign of the work done, the change in the internal energy, and the heat exchanged with the environment? work done change in internal energy heat exchanged

A)negative zero negative

B)positive negative zero

C)negative zero positive

D)negative negative zero

E)positive zero positive

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Q1) How far does the car move in one period of the sound emitted from the horn?

A)0.08 m

B)0.16 m

C)8 m

D)16 m

E)35 m

Q2) A guitar string is plucked and set into vibration. The vibrating string disturbs the surrounding air, resulting in a sound wave. Which entry in the table below is correct? wave in the string sound wave in air

A)The wave is transverse. yes yes

B)The wave speed increases no yes if the temperature rises.

C)The wave is longitudinal. yes yes

D)The wave is transmitted no yes by particle vibrations.

E)The wave transports energy. yes no

Q3) What is the frequency of the wave?

A)0.60 Hz

B)0.90 Hz

C)1.1 Hz

D)1.3 Hz

E)1.7 Hz

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Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the points on a string that sustain a standing wave pattern?

A)All points vibrate with the same energy.

B)All points undergo the same displacements.

C)All points vibrate with different frequencies.

D)All points vibrate with different amplitudes.

E)All points undergo motion that is purely longitudinal.

Q2) Four standing wave segments, or loops, are observed on a string fixed at both ends as it vibrates at a frequency of 240 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the string?

A)23 Hz

B)28 Hz

C)35 Hz

D)60 Hz

E)80 Hz

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Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning the direction of the electric field between the plates is true?

A)It points to the left.

B)It points to the right.

C)It points toward the negative plate.

D)It points toward the positive plate.

E)It points up out of the plane of the page.

Q2) What is the magnitude and direction of the electric force on a -3.0 µC charge at a point where the electric field is 2800 N/C and is directed along the +y axis.

A)0.018 N, -y direction

B)0.012 N, +y direction

C)0.0084 N, -y direction

D)0.0056 N, +y direction

E)0.022 N, +x direction

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) A parallel plate capacitor has a potential difference between its plates of 1.6 V and a plate separation distance of 2.5 mm. What is the magnitude of the electric field if a material that has a dielectric constant of 3.4 is inserted between the plates?

A)110 V/m

B)170 V/m

C)190 V/m

D)240 V/m

E)290 V/m

Q2) If an electron, which has a charge of 1.60 × 10^-¹⁹ C, is moved from rest at A to rest at B, what is the change in electric potential energy of the electron?

A)+4.3 × 10^-¹⁵ J

B)+5.4 × 10^-¹⁵ J

C)-2.1 × 10^-¹⁴ J

D)-3.2 × 10^-¹⁴ J

E)zero joules

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Q1) What is the current in the 2.7-\(\varOmega\)resistor?

A)12 A

B)0.8 A

C)2.2 A

D)0.4 A

E)1.2 A

Q2) A 3.0-A current is maintained in a simple circuit that consists of a resistor between the terminals of an ideal battery. If the battery supplies energy at a rate of 25 W, how large is the resistance?

A)0.40 \(\varOmega\)

B)0.80 \(\varOmega\)

C)2.4 \(\varOmega\)

D)4.2 \(\varOmega\)

E)8.8 \(\varOmega\)

Q3) What is the current through the 30-\(\varOmega\) resistor?

A)0.3 A

B)0.5 A

C)0.7 A

D)1 A

E)2 A

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Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) What is the direction of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?

A)+x direction

B)-x direction

C)+y direction

D)-y direction

E)30° with respect to the +x direction

Q2) An electron is moving with a speed of 3.5 × 10⁵ m/s when it encounters a magnetic field of 0.60 T. The direction of the magnetic field makes an angle of 60.0° with respect to the velocity of the electron. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron?

A)4.9 × 10^-¹³ N

B)3.2 × 10^-¹³ N

C)1.7 × 10^-¹³ N

D)3.4 × 10^-¹⁴ N

E)2.9 × 10^-¹⁴ N

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) What percentage of the power produced at the power plant is lost in transmission to the substation?

A)0.47 %

B)0.41 %

C)0.34 %

D)0.23 %

E)0.12 %

Q2) Assume that S has been closed for a long time. Which one of the following changes will result in an induced magnetic field in coil 2 that points toward C?

A)The switch S is opened.

B)The iron core is removed from coil 1.

C)Coil 1 and its core are moved toward A.

D)Coil 1 and its core are moved toward B.

E)Coil 2 and its core are moved toward C.

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24

Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning the impedance of an RCL circuit is true?

A)The impedance is dominated by the capacitance at low frequencies.

B)The impedance is dominated by the resistance at high frequencies.

C)The impedance depends only on the values of C and L.

D)The impedance depends only on the resistance.

E)The impedance is independent of frequency.

Q2) What is the capacitive reactance of a circuit comprised of a 65.0-µF capacitor and a 50.0-Hz generator?

A)49.0 \(\varOmega\)

B)72.5 \(\varOmega\)

C)97.6 \(\varOmega\)

D)145 \(\varOmega\)

E)308 \(\varOmega\)

Q3) What is the reactance of this element?

A)20 \(\varOmega\)

B)25 \(\varOmega\)

C)30 \(\varOmega\)

D)35 \(\varOmega\)

E)40 \(\varOmega\)

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Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) The amplitude of the electric field component of an electromagnetic wave is increased from E to 3E. What is the corresponding change in the intensity of the wave?

A)The intensity is unchanged by the increase in E.

B)The intensity increases by a factor of nine.

C)The intensity increases by a factor of three.

D)The intensity decreases by a factor of three.

E)The intensity decreases by a factor of nine.

Q2) What is the intensity of the electromagnetic wave at time t = 0 s?

A)0.24 W/m²

B)0.38 W/m²

C)0.48 W/m²

D)0.76 W/m²

E)24 W/m²

Q3) Determine the frequency of the wave.

A)1.0 × 10⁹ Hz

B)1.3 × 10⁸ Hz

C)2.5 × 10⁸ Hz

D)3.8 × 10⁸ Hz

E)5.0 × 10⁸ Hz

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Page 26

Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a convex spherical mirror with radius of curvature 60.0 cm. Which one of the following phrases best describes the image?

A)virtual and located at infinity

B)real and located 12 cm from the mirror

C)real and located 17 cm from the mirror

D)virtual and located 12 cm from the mirror

E)virtual and located 17 cm from the mirror

Q2) The inverted image of a light bulb is formed on a screen located 9.00 m from a spherical mirror. The image is 4.00 times larger than the light bulb. Determine the object distance and the type of mirror used.

A)+0.444 m, concave

B)+2.25 m, concave

C)+36.0 m. concave

D)+0.0278 m, convex

E)+36.0 m, convex

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) Which pair of terms most accurately describes the image?

A)real, upright

B)virtual, upright

C)real, inverted

D)virtual, inverted

E)real, reduced

Q2) A second converging lens is placed 20.0 cm to the right of the lens shown in the figure. Determine the focal length of the second lens if an inverted image (relative to the object in the diagram) is formed 13.3 cm to the right of the first lens.

A)1.33 cm

B)6.67 cm

C)13.3 cm

D)15.4 cm

E)19.7 cm

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Two stars are just barely resolved by a telescope with a lens diameter of 0.500 m. Determine the angular separation of the two stars. Assume incident light of wavelength 500.0 nm.

A)1.22 × 10^-⁶rad

B)5.66 × 10^-⁵rad

C)2.44 × 10^-⁷rad

D)4.88 × 10^-⁵rad

E)1.22 × 10^-⁷rad

Q2) Light from two sources, \(\lambda\)₁ = 623 nm and \(\lambda\)₂ = 488 nm, is incident on a diffraction grating that has 5550 lines/cm. What is the angular separation, \(\theta\)₁\(\theta\)₂, of the second order maxima of the two waves?

A)11.0°

B)15.0°

C)25.0°

D)32.8°

E)43.8°

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Q1) Complete the following statement: The Michelson-Morley experiment

A)confirmed that time dilation occurs.

B)proved that length contraction occurs.

C)verified the conservation of momentum in inertial reference frames.

D)supported the relationship between mass and energy.

E)indicated that the speed of light is the same in all inertial reference frames.

Q2) At what speed is a particle traveling if its kinetic energy is three times its rest energy?

A)0.879c

B)0.918c

C)0.943c

D)0.968c

E)0.989c

Q3) Determine the speed of A relative to B.

A)c

B)0.96c

C)0.92c

D)0.89c

E)0.86c

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Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) The position of a hydrogen atom (m = 1.7 × 10^-²⁷ kg) is known to within 2.0 × 10^-⁶ m. What is the minimum uncertainty in the atom's velocity?

A)zero m/s

B)0.0085 m/s

C)0.011 m/s

D)0.016 m/s

E)0.031 m/s

Q2) For which one of the following problems did Max Planck make contributions that eventually led to the development of the "quantum" hypothesis?

A)photoelectric effect

B)uncertainty principle

C)blackbody radiation curves

D)the motion of the earth in the ether

E)the invariance of the speed of light in a vacuum

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) An atom will emit photons when one of its electrons goes from

A)the K shell to the L shell.

B)the M shell to the N shell.

C)the K shell to the M shell.

D)the N shell to the L shell.

E)the K shell to the N shell.

Q2) Which transition corresponds to the absorption of the photon with the longest wavelength?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q3) What is the operating voltage of a medical X-ray machine that has a cut-off wavelength of 2.20 × 10^-¹¹ m?

A)83 800 V

B)10 900 V

C)30 700 V

D)44 900 V

E)56 500 V

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assuming the radius of a hydrogen atom is given by the Bohr radius, r_Bohr = 5.29 × 10^-¹¹ m, what is the ratio of the nuclear density of a hydrogen atom to its atomic density? Note: Assume for this calculation that the mass of the atom is equal to the mass of the proton.

A)1.2 × 10^-¹⁴

B)4.4 × 10⁴

C)8.6 × 10¹³

D)3.9 × 10¹⁷

E)2.3 × 10^-⁵

Q2) In a certain \(\gamma\) decay process, an excited neon atom emits a \(\gamma\)-ray that has an energy of 1.630 MeV. The neon atom in the ground state has a mass of 19.992 435 u. What is the mass of the excited neon atom?

A)17.498 658 u

B)18.746 422 u

C)19.994 185 u

D)19.999 685 u

E)20.003 185 u

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning pions is true?

A)They are stable particles.

B)They belong to the lepton family.

C)They are composed of three quarks.

D)They only exist in two charge states.

E)They interact with protons via the strong interaction.

Q2) Which one of the following particles is not a member of the hadron family?

A)pion

B)neutron

C)muon

D)kaon

E)proton

Q3) Complete the following statement: The average biologically equivalent dose of radiation from consumer products received by a resident of the United States is about

A)10 mrem/yr.

B)15 mrem/yr.

C)20 mrem/yr.

D)50 mrem/yr.

E)200 mrem/yr.

34

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