
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Physical Geology introduces students to the fundamental processes that shape the Earths surface and interior. This course covers the study of minerals and rocks, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, weathering, erosion, and the formation of landforms. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and field observations, students gain an understanding of geologic time, the rock cycle, and the dynamic forces driving changes in the Earth's crust. By examining both slow-acting and catastrophic processes, the course provides a comprehensive foundation for further studies in Earth sciences and environmental geology.
Recommended Textbook
Environmental Geology 10th Edition by Carla
W Montgomery
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20 Chapters
1006 Verified Questions
1006 Flashcards
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Q1) The starting composition of the solar nebula can be inferred from studies of stars.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Once internal differentiation was complete,the earth's surface remained essentially unchanged to the present.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In which of the following areas is population growth at present most rapid?
A) North America
B) the former Soviet Union
C) Europe
D) Africa
Answer: D
Q4) The least dense minerals are found in earth's core.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following statements about asbestos is true?
A) Asbestos is a mineral belonging to the carbonate group of minerals.
B) The type of asbestos most commonly used in construction materials (chrysotile or "white asbestos") is also the most hazardous to health.
C) Asbestos can occur in any one of the three rocks types, igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic.
D) Asbestos is a generic term for any mineral crystal that is a fiber (i.e. thin and flexible).
Answer: D
Q2) An atom that has 20 protons and 20 neutrons in its nucleus has this atomic number
A) 20.
B) 40.
C) 400.
D) Cannot determine because not enough information is given.
Answer: A
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Q1) At a convergent plate boundary,
A) Sea floor is produced.
B) High mountains may be built during continent-continent collision.
C) There are very few earthquakes.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Satellite data now allow direct measurement of the rates of plate movement,even though it is slow.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Example of the movement of the following plates: continent-ocean; continent-continent; ocean-ocean is best referred to as the
A) Divergent plate boundary.
B) Transform plate boundary.
C) Constructive plate boundary.
D) Convergent plate boundary.
Answer: D
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Q1) In a fault when the displacement is horizontal then the type of fault is called
A) Dip-slip fault.
B) Normal fault.
C) Reverse fault.
D) Strike-slip fault.
Q2) Seismic activity in the Pacific Northwest is associated with A) Faults.
B) Folds.
C) Divergence.
D) Subduction.
Q3) Unusual animal behavior precedes some,but not all,earthquakes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Liquefaction is
A) Flooding of coastal areas due to tectonic subsidence.
B) A quicksand-like condition arising in some wet soils during earthquakes.
C) Flooding caused by tsunamis.
D) Flooding caused by dam failure resulting from an earthquake.
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Q1) The passage of magma up through the lithosphere may be traced by the shallowearthquake focal depths over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increased thermal activity (fumaroles,hot springs)in a volcanic area may signal the presence of hot magma at shallow depths in the crust.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A phreatic volcanic eruption
A) Involves ash only.
B) Is the same type of eruption as a nuée ardente.
C) Only occurs at rift zones.
D) Results from groundwater that becomes steam upon magmatic heating.
Q4) The rock type that forms at new seafloor spreading centers is
A) Andesitic.
B) Rhyolitic.
C) Granitic.
D) Basaltic.
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Q1) Tile drainage systems and city storm sewers
A) Reduce flood hazards by removing water quickly.
B) Have no effect on flood hazards; they do not drain into streams.
C) Increase flood hazards by preventing infiltration.
D) Reduce flooding where they are installed but may increase it along a stream into which the discharge flows.
Q2) When flood recurrence intervals are estimated from historic records,the estimated intervals depend strongly on the length of time represented by the records.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Artificial levees built along a stream
A) Effectively stop all flooding, as along the Mississippi River.
B) May, if breached, trap floodwaters behind them.
C) Reduce stream stages by moving water faster.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Maximum stage is used to describe the magnitude of the flood and when the maximum stage is reached the stream is said to trough.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Littoral drift,which results in gradual sand movement down the beach in the same direction is also referred to as
A) Long shore drift.
B) Saltation.
C) Traction.
D) The Gulf Stream.
Q2) The ideal setting for constructing buildings in close proximity to an island or beach is at an elevation of approximate 5 meters or more higher than the normal high tide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where ocean meets a steep rocky cliff,erosion is most rapid far below the water line,where the pressure of deep water is great.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Construction on barrier islands is highly desirable because it stabilizes these islands.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the most important process for the loosening and braking up of consolidated rock in high,mountainous regions?
A) Increasing effective stress
B) Repetitive freezing of water and thawing of ice in cracks
C) Increasing the consolidation parameter
D) Erosion by rivers
Q2) Which is/are true?
A) Curved tree trunks and tilted utility poles may be signs of soil creep
B) In a true slide, movement of a coherent mass of material occurs along a well-defined plane
C) Surfaces of ancient landslides often have a lumpy (hummocky) appearance
D) All of the choices are true.
Scrambling: Locked.
Q3) Debris flows
A) May move rapidly and transport rock materials of greatly different size.
B) Are common in semi-arid regions.
C) Are not fluids in their behavior, but are dry flows of material.
D) Both may move rapidly and transport rock materials of greatly different size and are common in semi-arid regions are correct.
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Q1) Loess derived from glacial rock flour is rich in soluble plant nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The presence of polar ice caps reflects unusually heavy precipitation from the cold air at the poles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Arête,horn,cirque,are features observed as a result of A) Glacial erosion.
B) Glacial deposition.
C) Glacial accumulation.
D) Glacial ablation.
Q4) Removal of sediment on a large scale is a process best describes as A) Ventifacts.
B) Inflation.
C) Deflation.
D) Dune formation.
Q5) Moraine is a landform that is made up by the deposition of till.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Many Pacific Island nations consist of a collection of atolls.Some of these nations have appealed to the United Nations claiming that rising sea level is causing coastal flooding.Another explanation for coastal flooding on these islands other than rising sea level is
A) Atolls are ringed by coral reefs and these reefs are dying.
B) Atolls are susceptible to more beach erosion than other types of islands.
C) Atolls are former volcanoes that are slowly sinking (subsiding).
D) Atolls are composed of limestone that is slowly dissolving.
Q2) This gas is a more efficient greenhouse gas in comparison to carbon dioxide,but it has a far lesser presence in earth's atmosphere
A) Water vapor.
B) Methane.
C) Carbon monoxide.
D) Ozone.
Q3) United Nations studies suggest that the impacts of global climate change are likely to be most severe in the highly industrialized countries.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Water use for irrigation in the region of the Aral Sea has resulted in
A) Decreased water salinity.
B) Increased crop yields because of nutrient salts deposited on fields.
C) Health problems from blowing toxic dust.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Groundwater withdrawal that exceeds recharge really has no impact on the water table.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Obstacles to interbasin water transfer schemes commonly include cost and political conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Aral Sea provides a good illustration of international cooperation in water-resource management,with the additional benefit of enhancing commercial fishing opportunities.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Soil formation is dependant upon A) Climate.
B) Nature of the parent material and organic matter.
C) Topography.
D) Time.
E) All the choices are correct.
Q2) The color of a soil reflects
A) Organic matter content (brown or black) and iron content (red).
B) Type of vegetation growing on the soil.
C) Development of peds.
D) Degree of soil horizon maturity.
Q3) Terracing of farmland
A) Is a very new soil-conservation method.
B) Reduces surface-water runoff velocity and thus the efficiency of soil erosion and transport.
C) Substantially reduces wind erosion by flattening field surfaces.
D) Is only used on very steep slopes.
Q4) Chemical and mechanical weathering are two processes,unrelated to each other.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Weathering in tropical climates can produce residual ores rich in A) Calcite and quartz.
B) Feldspar and mica.
C) Sulfur and sulfide ores.
D) Iron and aluminum.
Q2) Recycling of steel is relatively difficult because alloys of specific composition may be required for specific applications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If demand forces metal prices up,all of the following can be expected except
A) Development of lower-grade ore deposits.
B) Significant rapid increases in total world metal resources.
C) Disturbance of more land area for mineral extraction.
D) Reclassification of some resources as reserves.
Q4) All of the following are mined from evaporite deposits except A) Halite.
B) Gypsum.
C) Phosphates.
D) Quartz.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) There is sulfur in coal but not in oil or natural gas.
B) Much of the highest-quality U.S. coal, in terms of heat value is also high-sulfur coal.
C) Sulfur associated with coal can cause acid runoff from strip-mine spoils.
D) Scrubbers can remove sulfur gases from coal exhaust, but they consume considerable energy in so doing.
Q2) Most oil and natural gas is found in
A) Igneous rocks.
B) Metamorphic rocks.
C) Sedimentary rocks.
D) All of the above.
Q3) The highest grade of coal,in terms of heat value per unit weight is
A) Peat.
B) Anthracite.
C) Lignite.
D) Bituminous.
Q4) Process of liquefaction and gasification results in a cleaner burning coal.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The process by which large nuclei are split into smaller ones is called nuclear
A) Fission.
B) Fusion.
C) Breeding.
D) Cracking.
Q2) Traditional geothermal power generation
A) Involves using hot magma to run generating equipment.
B) Relies on the heat released at the surface by the cooling earth.
C) Uses water or steam heated by hot rocks near the surface.
D) Requires geysers and hot springs.
Q3) Worldwide,nations are dismantling their nuclear-fission plants because of the high levels of pollution they produce and concerns about resultant climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Passive solar technology features are usually more economical to design and build initially into new structures than incorporating them into homes that already exist.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Organic matter can be beneficial by a process known as A) Incinerating.
B) Fertilizing.
C) Composting.
D) Harvesting.
Q2) Because there is still disagreement about the best methods to use,no high-level radioactive wastes have been consigned to permanent disposal sites,anywhere in the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wastes dumped in the oceans at present are mainly
A) Highly toxic industrial wastes.
B) Radioactive wastes, to keep them away from people.
C) Organic wastes.
D) Dredge spoils.
Q4) Trash compaction reduces the volume of wastes in a landfill,but also reduces the rate of decomposition of organic matter.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nonpoint pollution sources are more diffuse and thus harder to monitor and control than are most point sources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Groundwater pollution can be reduced by introduction of microorganisms that may break down some of the wastes.
A)True B)False
Q3) Mercury
A) Is most toxic to humans in the form of methyl mercury.
B) Is bio-concentrated (concentrations increase up the food chain), with the result that large fish like tuna may contain unacceptable levels.
C) May be added to the atmosphere through the burning of coal, incineration of waste, smelting association with ore processing and processing of batteries.
D) Is transferred from the atmosphere into water, where microorganisms transform it to methyl mercury.
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Carbon monoxide concentrations in the upper atmosphere have been climbing for over a century due to increasing industrialization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As long as there is oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)in earth's atmosphere,there will always be ozone in the upper atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following cause rainwater to be acidic except A) Sulfur dioxide.
B) Nitrogen oxide.
C) Carbon dioxide.
D) Carbon monoxide.
Q4) A negative correlation between ClO and ozone concentrations in the stratosphere supports the idea that chlorofluorocarbons play a role in ozone destruction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The overwhelming majority of federal environmental impact statements are filed by just a few agencies,including the U.S.Army Corps of Engineers and the Department of Transportation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Surface and Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 pertains
A) Exclusively to coal and salt.
B) Exclusively to any minerals.
C) Excusively to salt.
D) Exclusively to coal.
Q3) The Doctrine of Prior Appropriation
A) Is most commonly applied where there is abundant surface water to appropriate.
B) Establishes a hierarchy of water rights among users based on the date of first water use by each.
C) Includes a provision that, in times of water shortage, all users are equally entitled to use water as needed.
D) All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Rapid development of dams for hydropower raises concerns about dam safety.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An important planning tool used in variety of applications for land-use and engineering geology involves
A) Weather data.
B) Geophysical data.
C) Maps.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The Rotterdam subway was built by
A) Raising the tunnel on stilts to keep it above the local water table.
B) Building the tunnel in segments which were flooded, sunk into position, then joined and pumped dry.
C) Draining water from below the city to allow excavation of a dry tunnel.
D) Baking the ground to harden the clays, then blasting the tunnel through.
Q4) Because Alaska is so cold,the Trans-Alaska Pipeline had to be heated along much of its length to keep the oil flowing and to avoid damage from freezing soil.
A)True
B)False
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