Physical Examination and Assessment
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Physical Examination and Assessment is a foundational course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and practical skills necessary to conduct comprehensive health assessments. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on practice, students learn systematic techniques for obtaining accurate health histories and performing head-to-toe physical examinations across diverse patient populations. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical reasoning, recognizing normal and abnormal findings, effective communication, and documentation. By the end of the course, students are prepared to integrate assessment data into clinical decision-making, supporting accurate diagnosis and patient-centered care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the:
A) CAGE.
B) CRAFFT.
C) PACES.
D) HITS.
Answer: B
Q2) JM has been seen in your clinic for 5 years. She presents today with signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis. The type of history that is warranted is a(n) _________ history.
A) complete
B) inventory
C) problem or focused
D) interim
Answer: C
Q3) Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as:
A) allowing the clinician to catch up on documentation.
B) promoting calm.
C) providing time for reflection.
D) increasing the length of the visit.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Abdul is a 40-year-old Middle Eastern man who presents to the office for a first visit with the complaint of new abdominal pain. You are concerned about violating a cultural prohibition when you prepare to do his rectal examination. The best tactic would be to:
A) forego the examination for fear of violating cultural norms.
B) ask a colleague from the same geographic area if this examination is acceptable.
C) inform the patient of the reason for the examination and ask if it is acceptable to him.
D) refer the patient to a provider more knowledgeable about cultural differences.
Answer: C
Q2) An example of a cold condition is:
A) a fever.
B) a rash.
C) tuberculosis.
D) an ulcer.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the:
A) shoulder.
B) forearm.
C) wrist.
D) interphalangeal joint.
Answer: C
Q2) The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone?
A) The more dense the medium, the louder the percussion tone.
B) The less dense the medium, the louder the percussion tone.
C) The more hollow the area percussed, the quieter the percussion tone.
D) Percussion over muscle areas produces the loudest percussion tones.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Utilitarianism can be described as:
A) balancing interests.
B) preventing harm.
C) choosing wisely.
D) doing good.
Q2) Which is an accepted method of making a diagnosis?
A) Relying on intuition
B) Making maximal use of laboratory tests
C) Using first assumptions
D) Using algorithms
Q3) Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to:
A) history and physical findings.
B) therapeutic options.
C) attitudes, values, and feelings.
D) differential diagnoses.
Q4) Medical decision making requires a balance between:
A) trust and suspicion.
B) ethical and unethical behavior.
C) remembering and superstition.
D) mechanism and probabilism.
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Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting:
A) a grading scale of 0 to 4.
B) color and consistency.
C) demographic data and risk factors.
D) associated symptoms in alphabetic order.
Q2) The review of systems is a component of the:
A) physical examination.
B) health history.
C) assessment.
D) past medical-surgical history.
Q3) Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical examination. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):
A) progress note.
B) accident report.
C) problem-oriented medical record.
D) triage note.
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occurs with malignant hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blurred vision
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Tachycardia
D) Dyspnea
E) Encephalopathy
Q2) The fifth vital sign is:
A) pain.
B) orientation.
C) waist-to-hip ratio.
D) body mass index (BMI).
Q3) Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the cuff's width covers:
A) less than half of the upper arm.
B) less than 5 inches of the lower arm.
C) more than two-thirds of the upper arm.
D) more than 4 inches of the lower arm.
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Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flight of ideas or loosening of associations is associated with:
A) aphasia.
B) dysphonia.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) psychiatric disorders.
Q2) Appropriateness of logic, sequence, cohesion, and relevance to topics are markers for the assessment of:
A) mood and feelings.
B) attention span.
C) thought process and content.
D) abstract reasoning.
Q3) Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q4) Under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat forward a series of _____________ numbers.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus?
A) Less than 5 pounds
B) 6 to 8 pounds
C) 9 to 12 pounds
D) 13 to 30 pounds
Q2) Skeletal mass and organ systems double in size during:
A) infancy.
B) early childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) early adulthood.
Q3) During adolescence, the head size normally increases as a result of: A) sinus development.
B) brain mass increase.
C) evolution of lymphatic tissue.
D) hypertrophy of myelin.
Q4) The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation.
Q5) Infants normally increase their birth length by ____% during the first year of life.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi?
A) Native Americans
B) African Americans
C) Mexican Americans
D) Asians
Q2) Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n):
A) incandescent lamp.
B) magnifying glass.
C) transilluminator.
D) Wood's lamp.
Q3) A 5-year-old child presents with discrete vesicles on an erythematous base that began near her scalp and are spreading to the trunk. The child has a low-grade fever and feels tired. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Teach infectious control measures.
B) Inquire about other patterns of physical abuse.
C) Inspect the buccal mucosa for Koplik spots.
D) Inform the parent that this will resolve within a couple of days.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The harder and more discrete a node, the more likely that there is a(n):
A) innocent cause.
B) infection.
C) malignancy.
D) metabolic disease.
Q2) The most important clue to the diagnosis of immunodeficiency disease in a child is:
A) family history.
B) illness in siblings.
C) previous hospitalizations.
D) serious recurring infections.
Q3) Which nodes are most often associated with inflammation?
A) Shotty
B) Movable
C) Fixed
D) Tender
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12
Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?
A) Coronal sutures
B) Hyoid and cricoid cartilages
C) Mandible and maxilla bones
D) Nose and thyroid cartilages
Q2) Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region, at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:
A) parotid gland tumor.
B) branchial cleft cyst.
C) Stensen duct stone.
D) thyroglossal duct cyst.
Q3) Observation during history taking is the best way to examine for:
A) head position.
B) scalp lice.
C) thyroid size.
D) tracheal alignment.
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13
Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of:
A) migraine headaches.
B) diabetes.
C) glaucoma.
D) dehydration
Q2) When drusen bodies are noted to be increasing in number or in intensity of color, the patient should be further evaluated with a(n):
A) Amsler grid.
B) Snellen E chart.
C) litmus test.
D) confrontation test.
Q3) Mr. C's visual acuity is 20/50. This means that he:
A) can see 50% of what the average person sees at 20 feet.
B) has perfect vision when tested at 50 feet.
C) can see 20% of the letters on the chart's 20/50 line.
D) can read letters while standing 20 feet from the chart that the average person could read at 50 feet.
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14
Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
A) Air conduction shorter than bone conduction
B) Lateralization to the affected ear
C) Loss of high-frequency sounds
D) Speaks more loudly
E) Disorder of the inner ear
F) Air conduction longer than bone conduction
Q2) When hearing is evaluated, which cranial nerve is being tested?
A) III
B) IV
C) VIII
D) XII
Q3) For best results, an otoscopic and oral examination in a child should be:
A) conducted at the beginning of the assessment.
B) done after inspection.
C) performed at the end of the examination.
D) performed before palpation.
Q4) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ms. Rudman, age 74 years, has no known health problems or diseases. You are doing a preventive healthcare history and examination. Which symptom is associated with intrathoracic infection?
A) Barrel chest
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Funnel chest
D) Malodorous breath
Q2) To count the ribs and the intercostal spaces, you begin by palpating the reference point of the:
A) distal point of the xiphoid.
B) manubriosternal junction.
C) suprasternal notch.
D) acromion process.
Q3) An Apgar score of __________ is given to the infant who demonstrates irregular respiratory effort.
Q4) When auscultating the apex of the lung, you should listen at a point:
A) even with the second rib.
B) 4 cm above the first rib.
C) higher on the right side.
D) on the convex diaphragm surface.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a common symptom of cardiovascular disorders in the older adult?
A) Fatigue
B) Joint pain
C) Poor night vision
D) Weight gain
Q2) The most helpful finding in determining left-sided heart failure is:
A) dyspnea.
B) orthopnea.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) an S<sub>3</sub> heart sound.
Q3) A lift along the left sternal border is most likely the result of:
A) aortic stenosis.
B) atrial septal defect.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular hypertrophy.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) When examining arterial pulses the thumb may be used:
A) especially if vessels have a tendency to move.
B) never for palpating pulses.
C) checking the jugular venous pressure.
D) during the Allen test.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of venous ulcers in older adults?
A) The major symptom is severe leg pain, especially when walking.
B) The affected leg is commonly pale and hairless, and pulses are difficult to palpate.
C) Diabetes, peripheral neuropathy, and nutritional deficiencies are causative factors.
D) The ulcers are generally located on the tips of toes.
Q3) When palpating the carotid artery, which of the following is most important? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rotate the patient's head to the side being examined to relax the sternocleidomastoid.
B) Excessive carotid sinus massage can compromise blood flow to the brain.
C) Excessive carotid sinus massage can cause slowing of the pulse.
D) Palpate both sides simultaneously.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your response to this finding is to:
A) instruct her that this is a side effect of birth control injection therapy.
B) suggest pregnancy testing.
C) question her use of tanning beds.
D) schedule an appointment with a surgeon.
Q2) Mrs. Weber is a 65-year-old patient who has presented at the clinic with a complaint of a tender breast mass that she discovered during breast self-examination. You have completed a physical examination on Mrs. Weber and have palpated a mass of the right breast in the lower outer quadrant. When providing patient education to Mrs. Weber regarding the breast mass, you will explain that the characteristics of a cancerous mass would be which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Immobile and firm
B) Pain on palpation
C) Irregular border edges
D) Mobile and rubbery
E) Nontender
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly caused by:
A) malabsorption.
B) parasitic diarrhea.
C) fecal impaction.
D) fistula formation.
Q2) When percussing a spleen, Traube's space is a:
A) semilunar region.
B) splenic percussion sign.
C) left-sided pleural effusion.
D) solid mass.
Q3) Your patient is complaining of acute, intense, sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula, with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to:
A) percuss for ascites.
B) assess for rebound tenderness.
C) inspect for ecchymosis of the flank.
D) auscultate for abdominal bruits.
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Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnancy-related cervical changes include:
A) flattening and lengthening.
B) thinning and reddening.
C) hardening and pallor.
D) softening and bluish coloring.
Q2) Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?
A) Endometriosis
B) Low parity
C) Multiple sex partners
D) Obesity
Q3) Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
A) Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open.
B) Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum.
C) Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely.
D) Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally.
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enlarged painless testicle in an adolescent or adult male may indicate:
A) epididymitis.
B) testicular torsion.
C) a tumor.
D) an undescended testicle.
Q2) While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that his penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:
A) within normal limits.
B) suggestive of a skin fungus.
C) suggestive of psoriasis.
D) caused by excessive progesterone.
Q3) Expected genitalia changes that occur as men age include that:
A) the ejaculatory volume decreases with age.
B) erections develop more quickly.
C) the viability of sperm increases.
D) the scrotum becomes more pendulous.
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22
Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother brings her 4-year-old to the clinic because the child complains of perianal itching. As part of your examination you complete a cellulose tape test. The cellulose tape test is used for the detection of:
A) enterobiasis.
B) carcinoma.
C) amebiasis.
D) steatorrhea.
Q2) The effects of aging on the gastrointestinal system lead to more frequent experiences of:
A) constipation.
B) prolonged satiety.
C) diarrhea.
D) prostate glandular atrophy.
Q3) The caliber of the urinary stream is routine information in the history of: A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) older adults.
D) sexually active young men.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:
A) a negative Tinel sign.
B) a negative Phalen test.
C) reduced abduction of the thumb.
D) palm tingling.
Q2) The temporomandibular joint is palpated:
A) under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) above the mandible at midline.
C) anterior to the tragus.
D) at the mastoid process.
Q3) When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that:
A) there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
B) one of the clavicles has been fractured.
C) there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
D) one shoulder is dislocated.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sign is associated with meningitis and intracranial hemorrhage?
A) Babinski sign
B) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C) Doll's eye movement
D) Nuchal rigidity
Q2) To assess a cremasteric reflex, the nurse strokes the:
A) sole of the foot and observes whether the toes fan down and out.
B) abdomen and observes whether the umbilicus moves away from the stimulus.
C) inner thigh and observes whether the testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side.
D) palm and observes whether the fingers attempt to grasp.
Q3) You are most concerned for the infant who has a:
A) weak palmar grasp at 3 months.
B) strong stepping reflex at 2 months.
C) weak plantar reflex at 9 months.
D) strong tonic neck at 6 months.
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation is critical because at this point:
A) all completed forms are distributed.
B) parental signatures are obtained.
C) the relevant history is obtained.
D) the coordination of follow-ups is reviewed.
Q2) One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is:
A) muscle contraction.
B) flexibility.
C) symmetry.
D) balance.
Q3) You are auscultating heart tones as part of a sports physical examination. You hear a murmur at the right second intercostal space (aortic area). The murmur increases in intensity when this teenager goes from a sitting to standing position. The subsequent recommendation should be to:
A) consult a cardiologist as soon as possible.
B) have a stress test before completion of the form.
C) participate in low-static, high-dynamic sports.
D) limit contact sports and have an echocardiogram.
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests?
A) The gold standard test has 100% sensitivity and specificity.
B) Sensitivity and specificity are inversely correlated.
C) Sensitivity and specificity are directly correlated.
D) No test has 100% sensitivity and specificity.
Q2) Palpation of the epitrochlear nodes is part of the:
A) examination of the upper extremities.
B) assessment of the chest and thorax.
C) palpation of the abdomen.
D) examination of the head and neck.
Q3) Ms. Stein visits the nurse practitioner for an annual examination. The nurse practitioner tests Ms. Stein's tongue for movement and strength. The nurse practitioner is assessing CN _______.
Q4) At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
A) "Let's get to the point."
B) "I hope you will learn to trust me."
C) "Let me tell you what I can do for you."
D) "Tell me about yourself."
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ABCs of a primary survey would be interrupted to:
A) complete the assessment record.
B) manage life-threatening conditions.
C) reassess the patient's temperature.
D) transport the patient via airlift.
Q2) You have gone by ambulance to a construction site where an adult male is lying on the street. The only information you have is that he fell three stories. His neck is immobilized with sacks of concrete mix on either side. Your first action should be to determine:
A) airway patency.
B) bleeding sites.
C) cranial nerve function.
D) limb position.
Q3) When calculating the force of impact of a penetrating object, use:
A) the size of the missile and size of the patient.
B) the time of the incident and depth of the wound.
C) the amount of blood loss and level of consciousness.
D) the velocity of the missile and distance from the source.
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