Pharmacy Technician Training
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
The Pharmacy Technician Training course is designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and practical skills required for entry-level positions in pharmacy settings. The curriculum covers key areas such as pharmacy law and ethics, pharmaceutical calculations, medication dispensing procedures, drug classifications, and recordkeeping. Students receive instruction in pharmacology, inventory management, and customer service, as well as hands-on training in the proper handling of prescriptions, compounding, and preparing medications under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist. Through a combination of classroom learning and laboratory experience, this course prepares students for certification exams and successful integration into a professional pharmacy environment.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs.Breaux almost became comatose after receiving an overdose of morphine while in the hospital.In order to reverse this effect,the doctor ordered naloxone,which served as a(n)
A) Partial antagonist
B) Agonist
C) Partial agonist
D) Antagonist
Answer: D
Q2) What type of curve should be used for representing data when a proper dosing frequency is being determined?
A) Time-response curve
B) Scatter plot
C) Graded dose-response curve
D) Quantal dose-response curve
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to explain to a patient the possibility that he will experience drug interactions while taking his newly prescribed medications.Select the appropriate statement you will use when explaining "synergism" to the patient.
A) Drugs may increase each other's effect equal to the sum of their individual effects.
B) Drugs may increase each other's effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.
C) Drugs may cancel each other's effect or lead to a response that is less than the sum of their individual effects.
D) None of these are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Among the factors that affect drug distribution,the factor that plays the biggest role in how much drug penetrates the brain is:
A) Lipid solubility
B) Plasma protein binding
C) Blood circulation
D) GI absorption rate
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to improve compliance for a patient with arthritis would be to:
A) Encourage the patient to take medication on an empty stomach.
B) Suggest not using child safety caps on medication bottles.
C) Encourage the patient to read medication information literature.
D) Suggest drinking plenty of fluids when taking medications.
Answer: B
Q2) Morphine,which has a high first-pass metabolism,would require what type of dosing change in an elderly patient?
A) Higher dose
B) Same dose
C) Tapered dose
D) Lower dose
Answer: D
Q3) The pharmacokinetic process most affected by age is:
A) Absorption
B) Metabolism
C) Distribution
D) Elimination
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the set of examples to the definition of a ratio.
A) 2.1, 3.5, 2.9
B) 1:5, 4:10, 10:100
C) The 3 in 3/4 or the 9 in 9/11
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Recall the definition of an improper fraction,and identify the correct numerical equivalent.
A) 3/5
B) 2/4
C) 1/3
D) 5/5
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a numerator.
A) 13.14, 33.58, 21.92
B) 2:5, 1:4, 5:8
C) The 1 in 1/4, 4 in 4/11, 5 in 5/25
D) All of these are correct.
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons innervating increased digestion and urinary output originate from the:
A) Lumbar and sacral regions
B) Thoracic and lumbar regions
C) Cranial and lumbar regions
D) Cranial and sacral regions
Q2) Neurons innervating increased heart rate and breathing originate from the:
A) Cranial and sacral regions
B) Lumbar and sacral regions
C) Thoracic and lumbar regions
D) Cranial and lumbar regions
Q3) If the heart of a frog were placed in a petri dish filled with oxygenated Ringer's solution,what other chemical would be essential to make it contract?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Serotonin
D) None
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the physical effects of anaphylaxis caused by insect stings,drugs,or other allergens.
A) Difficulty breathing, decreased blood pressure, and symptoms of shock
B) Difficulty breathing, increased blood pressure, and symptoms of shock
C) Difficulty breathing, normal blood pressure, and symptoms of shock
D) Normal breathing, increased blood pressure, and symptoms of shock
Q2) Select the group of beta-adrenergic drugs that can be inhaled via a nebulizer in order to open the respiratory airway.
A) Isoetharine and salmeterol
B) Salmeterol and terbutaline
C) Isoetharine and levalbuterol
D) Levalbuterol and terbutaline
Q3) Identify the most common side effect of decongestant use.
A) Irritation of the nasal sinuses or eyes due to excessive dryness
B) Excessive secretion of mucus, causing itchy, watery eyes and runny nose
C) Headache due to increased vasoconstriction
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A middle-stage Alzheimer's patient susceptible to side effects would benefit best from which medication?
A) Tacrine
B) Memantine
C) Galantamine
D) Rivastigmine
Q2) Pyridostigmine is useful in treating patients with myasthenia gravis because:
A) Increased formation of acetylcholine occurs
B) Increased production and secretion of acetylcholine occur
C) Irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase decreases levels of acetylcholine
D) Reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase increases levels of acetylcholine
Q3) Since quaternary amines do not cross the blood-brain barrier,one would expect these indirect-acting cholinergic drugs to have:
A) No effect
B) Potentiated effects
C) Increased side effects
D) Decreased side effects
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Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selection of the ganglionic blockers for the treatment of severe hypertension in males can lead to:
A) Increased urination
B) Decreased intestinal secretions
C) Impotence
D) Increased bladder contractions
Q2) Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine is indicative of a diagnosis of:
A) Smoking addiction
B) Severe hypertension
C) Depression
D) Constipation
Q3) When integrating a smoking cessation treatment with the Nicotrol inhaler,it should be used with caution because:
A) Use of the inhaler may cause nervousness.
B) Use of the inhaler may cause heartburn.
C) Use of the inhaler may cause minor breathing difficulties.
D) None of these are correct.
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10
Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication can potentiate the effects of succinylcholine due to shifting the levels of potassium in the body?
A) Narcotics
B) NSAIDs
C) Antiemetics
D) Diuretics
Q2) A patient with breathing problems has been given a muscle relaxant and begins to experience bronchospasms,which may lead to an asthmatic attack.This can be attributed to the release of:
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Histamine
Q3) The duration of action of many nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants will differ according to which pharmacokinetics property?
A) Excretion
B) Metabolism
C) Absorption
D) Distribution
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Intradermal anesthesia
D) Cryoanesthesia
Q2) Using the Physicians' Desk Reference available in the office,you determine that the amide local anesthetics have a moderate to long duration of action and that the drug group that falls into this category includes:
A) Procaine, benzocaine, and tetracaine
B) Lidocaine, bupivacaine, and mepivacaine
C) Ethyl chloride, GumEase, and EMLA cream
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Because of the contraindications of use of the amide local anesthetics,patients who have any form of liver disease should be monitored for:
A) Rapid metabolism of the amide anesthetic agent
B) Accumulation of the amide metabolites
C) Decreased amide anesthetic clearance
D) None of these are correct.
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12
Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia will lead to
A) Stroke
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Schizophrenia
D) Parkinson's disease
Q2) What are the two main components to the central nervous system?
A) Brain and spinal cord
B) Brain and spinal nerves
C) Cranial nerves and spinal cord
D) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
Q3) All of the following are vital centers located in the medulla oblongata except
A) Thermoregulatory
B) Cardiac
C) Vasomotor
D) Respiratory
Q4) A gambling addict may need a medication affecting which part of the brain?
A) Reticular formation
B) Limbic system
C) Basal ganglia
D) Thalamus
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Q1) Differentiate between the recommended therapies for insomnia and sedation,and select the therapy of choice for patients suffering from insomnia that is complicated with anxiety or stressful situations.
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Barbiturates
C) Miscellaneous hypnotic drugs
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Explain the effects of the barbiturates on the sleep cycle.
A) Barbiturates decrease stage 2 sleep, increase stages 3 and 4 sleep, and suppress REM sleep.
B) Barbiturates decrease stage 2 sleep, decrease stages 3 and 4 sleep, and suppress REM sleep.
C) Barbiturates increase stage 2 sleep, decrease stages 3 and 4 sleep, and suppress REM sleep.
D) Barbiturates increase stage 2 sleep, increase stages 3 and 4 sleep, and suppress REM sleep.
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Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Q1) A beneficial side effect of phenothiazine antipsychotics would be for the treatment of what condition?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q2) An important inhibitory neurotransmitter that keeps emotion and behavior under control is:
A) Dopamine
B) GABA
C) Norepineprine
D) Serotonin
Q3) A special formulation of which type of atypical antipsychotic would be available for a difficult patient needing immediate treatment from a psychotic episode?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Clozapine
C) Risperidone
D) Olanzapine
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Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and Lithium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between mania and depression,and select the correct statement.
A) Depression is a mental state characterized by feelings of hopelessness, frustration, and depressed mood, whereas mania is characterized by excitement, hyperactivity, and elevated mood.
B) Depression is treated with SSRIs, and mania is treated with lithium.
C) Depression is associated with low levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin, while high levels of norepinephrine and/or serotonin are involved in mania.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of disorder that responds to treatment with lithium.
A) Disorders characterized by alternating cycles of depression and mania
B) Disorders characterized by hyperactivity and excessive elevation of mood
C) Disorders characterized by wide shifts in mood
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Explain the pharmacologic actions of bupropion (Wellbutrin).
A) Bupropion increases the release of epinephrine and dopamine.
B) Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine.
C) Bupropion has minimal effect to inhibit the reuptake of serotonin.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for hallucinogenic drug intoxication may include the administration of which medications?
A) Benzodiazepines or opioids
B) Benzodiazepines or barbituates
C) Opioids or barbituates
D) Opioids or muscle relaxers
Q2) Treatment of amphetamine intoxication can be achieved through all of the following except:
A) Administering an anticholinergic
B) Acidifying the urine
C) Administering adrenergic blockers and vasodilators
D) Administering diazepam
Q3) The consumption of larger doses of a drug to prevent onset of psychological and physical withdrawal symptoms.
A) Drug tolerance
B) Cross tolerance
C) Drug dependency
D) Drug addiction
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17
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Q1) Using the available treatments for seizures,determine the recommended treatment for a patient with partial seizures who must be prescribed a liquid medication.
A) Carbamazepine, phenytoin, or valproic acid
B) Lamotrigine, phenytoin, or levotiracetam
C) Diazepam, lacosamide, and phenytoin
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the groups of drug agents listed,and select the first-line treatment for generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
A) Phenytoin (Dilantin), valproic acid (Depakene), and carbamazepine (Tegretol)
B) Ethosuximide (Zarontin), valproic acid (Depakene), and lamotrigine (Lamictal)
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin) and lorazepam (Ativan)
D) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
Q3) Using the available treatments for seizures,determine the recommended treatment that can be administered by IV or IM for status epilepticus.
A) Clonazepam
B) Diazepam
C) Lorazepam
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Q1) All of the following are advantages of dopamine receptor agonists over levodopa except
A) Better able to cross blood brain barrier
B) Longer duration of action
C) Lower incidence of dyskinesias
D) Less incidence of on-off phenomenon
Q2) The addition of carbidopa to levodopa is beneficial because it _____ the amount of dopamine being produced in the periphery and decreases the _____ seen with higher levels of levodopa.
A) Decreases, side effects
B) Increases, side effects
C) Maintains, toxic effects
D) Increases, toxic effects
Q3) Antipsychotic medications may _____ the effectiveness of levodopa because they _____ dopamine receptors.
A) Increase, block
B) Increase, activate
C) Decrease, block
D) Decrease, activate
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Page 19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Identify the part of the brain that influences mood,motivation,and the ability to perceive pain.
A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
Q2) Using the physiological effects of the inhaled anesthetic agents on the CNS,select the true statement.
A) All nervous tissue is not depressed by inhalation anesthetics.
B) The inhaled anesthetic agents constrict cerebral blood vessels.
C) The inhaled anesthetic agents might not be a good choice for use in patients who already have increased intracranial pressure from cerebral edema or tumors.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Describe the therapeutic objective of the use of anesthesia during surgical procedures.
A) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage IV
B) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage III
C) Rapid, smooth induction and maintenance of the patient in Stage II
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) Oral formulations of opioid drugs should never be _____ in order to avoid _____.
A) Chewed, an enhanced degradation in the stomach leading to side effects
B) Chewed, an enhanced effect leading to side effects
C) Taken with food, decreased absorption
D) Taken with food, food-drug interactions
Q2) Why would injections of opioids be better than oral administration?
A) Lower bioavailability of injected medications
B) Increased metabolism from hepatic drug microsomal metabolizing system
C) Poor absorption in acidic environment of stomach
D) Poor absorption in alkaline environment of the intestines
Q3) One advantage of administering an opioid analgesic over an NSAID drug for dental pain would be to:
A) Reduce risk of tolerance
B) Reduce risk of dependence
C) Reduce risk of bleeding
D) Reduce risk of toxicity
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21
Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal
Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
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Q1) Select the correct statement about the enzymes referred to as cyclooxygenase (COX).
A) Cyclooxygenase (COX) increases uric acid production and deposition in the joints, leading to gout.
B) Cyclooxygenase makes various prostaglandins needed from arachidonic acid.
C) Cyclooxygenase production is stimulated with NSAID use.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the physiological signs that indicate the presence of inflammation.
A) Swelling and edema
B) Pain and warmth
C) Redness and loss of body function
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Using your knowledge of the pediatric dosing guidelines for acetaminophen,select the correct dose for an 11-month-old child.
A) 40 mg every 4 to 6 hours
B) 160 mg every 4 to 6 hours
C) 80 mg every 4 to 6 hours
D) 240 mg every 4 to 6 hours
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Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
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Q1) What regulates the rate and force of contraction of the heart?
A) Autorhythmicity of cardiac nerve supply
B) Central nervous system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Peripheral nervous system
Q2) What condition occurs when there is insufficient blood in the coronary arteries?
A) Angina pectoris
B) Arteriosclerosis
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Myocardial infarction
Q3) The P wave on an ECG corresponds to
A) Atria depolarization
B) Atria repolarization
C) Ventricle depolarization
D) Ventricle repolarization
Q4) What region of the heart is responsible for cardiac muscle contraction?
A) Myocardium
B) Epicardium
C) Endocardium
D) Purkinje fibers
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Q1) Differentiate between angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs),and select the correct statement related to the mechanism of action of the ARBs.
A) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors, except that ARBs do not increase bradykinin.
B) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors, except that ARBs do not decrease pre- and afterload.
C) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors, except that ARBs do not increase cardiac output.
D) The effect of using ARBs is similar to the effect of using the ACE inhibitors, except that ARBs only decrease preload.
Q2) Select the preferred beta-blockers used for the treatment of CHF.
A) Ramipril (Altace) and Lisinopril (Zestril)
B) Metoprolol (Lopressor) and carvedilol (Coreg)
C) Atenolol (Tenormin) and metoprolol (Lopressor)
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) Ectopic foci are often caused by
A) Increased activity by the SA node
B) Increased activity by the AV node
C) Delayed or blocked conduction of electrical impulses
D) Decreased cholinergic innervation of neurons
Q2) All of these are drugs that will slow AV conduction to protect the ventricles in atrial fibrillation except
A) Beta blockers
B) Atropine
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Digoxin
Q3) Calcium channel blockers work by
A) Increasing myocardial conduction
B) Increasing myocardial contractility
C) Reducing myocardial conduction
D) Reducing myocardial contractility
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) Use critical thinking to determine the correct nitrate drug that is used prophylactically to prevent the occurrence of anginal attacks.
A) Isosorbide dinitrate
B) Nitroglycerin for IV infusion
C) Sublingual nitroglycerin
D) Nitroglycerin extended-release capsules
Q2) Identify the term used to describe the fatty degeneration of the coronary arteries.
A) Angina pectoris
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Ischemia
D) Hypercholesterolemia
Q3) Select the mechanism of action of the calcium channel blockers in the treatment of angina and CAD.
A) Prevention of influx of calcium ions into vascular smooth muscle
B) Reversal of the effects of sympathetic activation
C) Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 25: Diuretics
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Q1) The buffering capacity of blood utilizes which ion to neutralize cellular waste products?
A) Bicarbonate
B) Sodium
C) Chloride
D) Ammonium
Q2) Spironolactone would benefit a patient needing a diuretic who was also experiencing:
A) Certain types of epileptic seizures
B) Open-angle glaucoma
C) Hypokalemia
D) Acute mountain sickness
Q3) Which type of diuretic would be recommended for a patient who was very sensitive to electrolyte imbalances?
A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Organic acid diuretic
D) ADH antagonists
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27
Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) Using the adverse-effects profile of the diuretic drug agents,select the true statement related to the thiazide and loop diuretics.
A) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the synthesis of renin.
B) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the metabolism of sodium.
C) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the renal excretion of uric acid.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use mechanism of antihypertensive action to determine the treatment options when the desired effect is blocking of the beta-1 receptors in the heart to decrease cardiac output and blood pressure;
A) Clonidine (Catapres), guanabenz (Wytensin), and guanfacine (Tenex)
B) Doxazosin (Cardura), prazosin (Minipress), and terazosin (Hytrin)
C) Atenolol (Tenormin), metoprolol (Lopressor), and nadolol (Corgard)
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the factor pair that determines cardiac output.
A) Heart rate and peripheral resistance
B) Heart rate and stroke volume
C) Peripheral resistance and stroke volume
D) Heart rate and blood pressure
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28
Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) What are the two groups in which heparin can be classified?
A) Standard heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin
B) Standard heparin and high-molecular-weight heparin
C) Low-molecular-weight heparin and high-molecular-weight heparin
D) Low-molecular-weight heparin and fractionated heparin
Q2) In arterial thrombosis or deep vein thrombosis,platelets will _____ production of
A) Increase, prostacyclin
B) Increase, thromboxane
C) Decrease, prostacyclin
D) Decrease, thromboxane
Q3) One disadvantage of cellulose hemostatic sponges compared to gelatin sponges would be:
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Anaphylactic shock
D) Bone regeneration interference
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Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
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Q1) Differentiate between Ringer's solution and Lactated Ringer's solution to determine the true statement related to their use.
A) Ringer's solution is used for fluid replacement and replacement of sodium and potassium. Lactated Ringer's solution is the same as Ringer's solution plus calcium, which provides buffer action in alkalosis.
B) Ringer's solution is used for fluid replacement and replacement of sodium, chloride, calcium, and potassium. Lactated Ringer's solution is the same as Ringer's solution plus lactate, which provides buffer action in acidosis.
C) Ringer's solution is used for fluid replacement and replacement of sodium and calcium. Lactated Ringer's solution is the same as Ringer's solution plus potassium, which provides buffer action in acidosis.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of patient who would benefit from the administration of a TPN.
A) Cancer patient having difficulty with excessive weight loss
B) Diabetic patient having difficulty keeping his or her blood sugar level down
C) Pregnant patient who has been vomiting excessively and is dehydrated
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following activities would not result in an elevation of HDL levels?
A) Vigorous exercise
B) Starvation
C) Consuming a diet high in fish
D) Moderate alcohol consumption
Q2) How is cholesterol transported from the liver to the gall bladder?
A) Directly through the hepatic portal system
B) By apoproteins
C) By endocytosis
D) By chylomicrons
Q3) Lipoprotein electrophoresis will obtain a direct measurement of all of these except A) Total cholesterol
B) Triglycerides
C) HDL
D) LDL
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Chapter 30: Antianemics
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Q1) Explain what is meant by the term intrinsic factor.
A) Intrinsic factor is a protein that is necessary for intestinal absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>; lack of intrinsic factor leads to pernicious anemia.
B) Intrinsic factor is an enzyme that is necessary for metabolism of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>; lack of intrinsic factor leads to pernicious anemia.
C) Intrinsic factor is a protein that is necessary for intestinal absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>; lack of intrinsic factor leads to megaloblastic anemia.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe a physiological situation that can lead to the development of anemia.
A) Anemia may be caused by deficiency in the amount of hemoglobin, occurring when the number of circulating red blood cells is decreased.
B) Anemia may be caused by an excessive loss of blood or an increased destruction of RBCs.
C) Anemia may be caused by a decreased production of RBCs, which reduces the amount of circulating hemoglobin.
D) All of these are correct.
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32
Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
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Q1) Why would Dr.Smith not prescribe an antihistamine for his patient with asthma?
A) Antihistamines produce more disturbances in intestinal activity, rather than a therapeutic response.
B) Antihistamines are not therapeutically useful in the treatment of asthma.
C) Antihistamines allow for the production of nasal and bronchial mucus.
D) A life-threatening reaction called the Response of Lewis can occur.
Q2) What type of antibody is produced the first time a person is sensitized by tree pollen?
A) IgA
B) IgB
C) IgE
D) IgF
Q3) Eczematoid dermatitis can occur with antihistamines as a result of:
A) A severe allergic reaction
B) Overstimulation of mast cell degranulation
C) A hypersensitivity reaction from overuse
D) None of these result in dermatitis.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
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Q1) Select the mechanism of action of omalizumab (Xolair).
A) Omalizumab potentiates the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
B) Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and increases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
C) Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) A patient complains of hoarseness and changes in his voice.Using your knowledge of steroids and leukotriene inhibitors,you advise the patient that the best way to avoid these adverse effects is to:
A) Switch to an intravenously administered steroid or leukotriene inhibitor.
B) Rinse his mouth with water after inhaling the medication to reduce the amount of steroid that remains in his mouth and throat.
C) Suck on a throat lozenge immediately after inhaling the medication.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers,
gerd, and Vom
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Q1) Acid secretion and gastrin-induced secretion is inhibited by blocking which receptors?
A) Cholinergic and H1 receptors
B) Adrenergic and H1 receptors
C) Cholinergic and H2 receptors
D) Adrenergic and H2 receptors
Q2) Omeprazole works by
A) Inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in mucosal cells
B) Inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in mucosal cells
C) Inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in parietal cells
D) Inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in parietal cells
Q3) To completely stop acid secretion between meals would put a person at increased risk of
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) GI infections
D) Constipation
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Using your knowledge of the treatments for constipation,explain to a patient how laxatives and cathartics stimulate defecation.
A) Both laxatives and cathartics produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation.
B) Cathartics produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation, whereas laxatives produce a more intense action on the bowel.
C) Laxatives produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation, whereas cathartics produce a more intense action on the bowel.
D) Both laxatives and cathartics produce a more intense action on the bowel, causing defecation.
Q2) Using onset of action as the basis,select the group of laxatives listed in the order of increasing onset-of-action times.
A) Bowel evacuants, emollients, stool softeners
B) Emollients, bowel evacuants, swelling agents
C) Osmotic laxatives, emollients, bowel evacuants
D) Stimulants, stool softeners, emollients
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) The two main systems of the body that function in regulating other systems are the
A) Nervous system and endocrine system
B) Nervous system and muscular system
C) Endocrine system and exocrine system
D) Endocrine system and muscular system
Q2) Octreotide is a synthetic protein used for
A) Stimulating growth hormone production
B) Inhibiting somatostatin production
C) Treating patients with acromegaly who are unresponsive to surgery
D) Treating patients with gigantism who are unresponsive to surgery
Q3) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are produced in the _____ and are controlled by _____.
A) Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary
B) Hypothalamus, hypothalamus
C) Posterior pituitary, hypothalamus
D) Posterior pituitary, anterior pituitary
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Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
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Q1) Select the reason why alternate-day therapy is used in cases where prolonged use of steroids is necessary.
A) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the adverse effects of prolonged steroid treatment.
B) Alternate-day therapy is intended to facilitate treatment for patients with hectic or busy lifestyles.
C) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the stress on the liver that must metabolize the glucocorticoids.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Select the adverse effect of high doses or long-term treatment with prednisone or hydrocortisone.
A) Redistribution of fat in the body, primarily localized in the face and shoulder region
B) Redistribution of fat in the body, primarily localized in the hips and buttocks region
C) Redistribution of fat in the body, primarily localized in the chest and stomach region
D) All of these are correct
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Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and
Erectile Dysfunction Dru
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Q1) In order for proper HRT combinations to be determined,physicians will _____ in postmenopausal women.
A) Conduct fasting blood glucose testing
B) Conduct bone mineral density testing
C) Monitor hormone blood levels
D) Monitor symptoms experienced
Q2) The potential for adverse events from HRT depends on which two factors?
A) Dose and increased prothrombin levels
B) Increased prothrombin levels and length of treatment
C) Dose and length of treatment
D) Hypertension and hypercholesterolemia
Q3) Which hormone would be expected to have an inhibitory effect on endometrial muscle contractions?
A) Estriol
B) Estradiol
C) Estrone
D) Progesterone
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
and Bone Degener
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Q1) Identify the condition characterized by a significant reduction in bone mass.
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Cretinism
Q2) Identify the condition characterized by a significant reduction in the number of white blood cells.
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Cretinism
Q3) Select the statement that best explains the results of excessive use of calcium and vitamin D in the treatment of hypocalcemia.
A) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to convulsions and parasthesia.
B) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to hypercalcemia and kidney stone formation.
C) All of these are correct.
D) Excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to carpopedal spasms.
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Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) Cells that secrete GIP and GLP-1,which promote insulin secretion,are located in the:
A) Small intestines
B) Large intestines
C) Pancreas
D) Liver
Q2) Insulin will cause a majority of the blood glucose to be taken up in:
A) The liver
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Cardiac muscle
Q3) Glucagon is secreted:
A) When GIP and GLP-1 are released
B) When blood glucose levels are above normal
C) When blood glucose levels are below normal
D) After consuming a large meal
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Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic
Hormone and Oxytocin
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Q1) Use the Physicians' Desk Reference to determine the proper dosage of misoprostone (Mefiprex) given to induce abortion.
A) The dose given of misoprostone (Mefiprex) to induce abortion is 600 mg or 3 tablets (200 mg each) given orally as a single dose.
B) The dose given of misoprostone (Mefiprex) to induce abortion is 300 mg or 3 tablets (100 mg each) given orally as a single dose.
C) The dose given of misoprostone (Mefiprex) to induce abortion is 600 mg given as an IM injection.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use the adverse-effect profile of the oxytocics to explain the reason why these agents are contraindicated in patients with asthma.
A) The oxytocics cause vomiting and diarrhea.
B) The oxytocics cause headache and dizziness.
C) The oxytocics cause constriction of bronchial smooth muscle.
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) What type of antibiotic action inhibits the reproduction of bacteria?
A) Bactericidal
B) Bacteriostatic
C) Culture and sensitivity testing
D) Chemoprophylaxis
Q2) A decrease in rifampin effectiveness with other medications may be due to:
A) Increased acetylation
B) Increased beta-lactamase activity
C) Enterohepatic cycling
D) Bacterial resistance
Q3) What are two methods used to determine antibiotic susceptibility?
A) Disk test and agar plating
B) Disk test and serial dilution
C) Serial dilution and agar plating
D) Disk test and autoclaving
Q4) Susceptibility of bacterial resistance to penicillin can be attributed to:
A) The broad-spectrum nature of penicillin
B) The ineffective response toward gram-positive bacteria
C) Chemoprophylaxis
D) The beta-lactam ring structure of the antibiotic
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) Select the statement that describes the major site where antiviral action is blocked by NNRTIs.
A) NNRTIs block the ability of the human immunodeficiency virus to attach and enter the cell membrane.
B) NNRTIs block the uncoating process of the human immunodeficiency virus by binding to reverse transcriptase.
C) NNRTIs block the nucleic acid synthesis of the human immunodeficiency virus.
D) NNRTIs block the late protein synthesis and processing of the human immunodeficiency virus by binding the reverse transcriptase.
Q2) Use critical thinking to determine the answer you would give a patient when she asks you if she can take nelfinavir (Viracept) while taking oral contraceptives.
A) Nelfinavir counteracts oral contraceptive action by decreasing the levels of estrogen.
B) Use alternate or additional contraceptives to avoid failure and pregnancy.
C) All of these are correct.
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44
Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) A desirable feature of metronidazole is its ability to:
A) Limit its effect to certain regions of the body
B) Distribute over a wide range systemically
C) Be well tolerated in patients with liver problems
D) Not cross the placenta
Q2) A patient with a tapeworm infestation has been admitted to the hospital.The patient also has a low blood count.What should be suspected by the health care professional?
A) There is also a serious infection in addition to the tapeworm infestation.
B) The tapeworm is producing a toxin that is destroying red blood cells.
C) The tapeworm is robbing the body of cofactors needed to produce red blood cells.
D) The tapeworm may have perforated the intestines, causing hemorrhaging.
Q3) An example of a sexually transmitted protozoan would be:
A) Malaria
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Dysentery
D) Toxoplasmosis
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Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Using the mechanism of action of hexachlorophene,select the false statement related to its use.
A) Despite its selectivity, hexachlorophene is useful as a skin cleanser and surgical scrub because potential pathogens that reside on the skin surface are frequently gram-positive bacteria.
B) With repeated use, hexachlorophene accumulates in the skin and maintains its bacterial response.
C) Hexachlorophene is a bactericidal preparation that is primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and provides relatively weak activity against gram-negative bacteria, fungi, and mycobacteria.
D) Hexachlorophene should not be used for bathing or applying to burns because it will be absorbed into the circulation.
Q2) Summarize the physiological effects that characterize a hypersensitivity to antiseptics or disinfectants.
A) Skin dryness, irritation, rash, and hypersensitivity at the place of contact
B) Anaphylactic shock requiring medical treatment
C) Uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) This approach in cancer treatment will follow primary treatment in order to kill remaining cancer cells:
A) Dietary changes
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Radiation
Q2) A leukemia patient is currently not responding to cyclophosphamide despite having favorable results with the medication in the past.Where might an additional problem be taking place?
A) Pancreas
B) Kidneys
C) Gallbladder
D) Liver
Q3) Why would leucovorin need to be administered after methotrexate therapy?
A) To resume blood cell production
B) To reduce oxygen supply to cancer cells
C) To reestablish normal blood glucose levels
D) To reduce plasma cortisol levels
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Using immunomodulation and immunosuppression as the basis,select the correct information to give to a patient who does not understand their difference.
A) Immunosuppressing drugs are used after organ transplantation and in the treatment of severe inflammatory and allergic conditions when the immune system is hyperactive and causing harmful effects. Immunomodulating drugs are indicated for the B) treatment of various cancers, hepatitis, myelosuppression, and other conditions where increasing the activity of the immune system is beneficial.
C) Immunosuppression refers to drugs and biological factors that decrease immune activity. Immunmodulation refers to actions or drugs that stimulate the activity of the immune system.
D) Immunosuppressing drugs are administered orally or by injection, and immuno-modulating drugs are administered by injection.
E) All of these are correct.
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