Pharmacy Practice
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice is a multidisciplinary course that introduces students to the foundational principles and professional responsibilities within the field of pharmacy. The course covers topics such as the roles of pharmacists in various healthcare settings, patient counseling, drug information dissemination, medication safety, regulatory standards, ethical considerations, and best practices for prescription processing. Emphasis is placed on developing effective communication skills, understanding the healthcare system, applying evidence-based practices, and fostering interprofessional collaboration to optimize patient outcomes. Through a mix of theoretical knowledge and practical exercises, students gain the competencies necessary to perform effectively in real-world pharmacy environments.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology for Pharmacy 1st Edition by Dennis Flaherty PhD
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26 Chapters
300 Verified Questions
300 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1356
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organs of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role does the T helper 1 (Th1) subset play in the immune response?
A) Inhibits viral replication
B) Causes target cell death of infected cells
C) Assists B cells in the production of antibody
D) Generates inflammatory responses to pathogens
Answer: D
Q2) The main function of _______________ is to ingest and destroy bacteria.
A) B cells
B) Eosinophils
C) Natural killer (NK) cells
D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
Answer: D
Q3) Immature thymocytes begin their initial cycle of proliferation in:
A) The thymic cortex
B) Hassall's corpuscles
C) The germinal center
D) The lymph node medulla
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toll-like receptors (TLRs) activate the adaptive immune system by stimulating production of:
A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B) Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
C) Interleukin-12 (IL-12)
D) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
Answer: B
Q2) Nitric oxide (NO) produced by phagocytes is cytotoxic to pathogens by inhibiting pathogen:
I- DNA synthesis
II- Mitochondrial respiration
III- Cell wall synthesis
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunogenicity and Antigenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you treat a mother with type A Rh-negative blood who is pregnant with a type O Rh-positive baby?
A) A dose of RhoGAM at 28 weeks and following delivery
B) A high dose of RhoGAM and then a low dose of RhoGAM
C) A dose of RhoGAM only if there is a trauma or premature termination of pregnancy
D) RhoGAM is not necessary in this situation because there is no compatibility issue
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the best immunogen?
A) Mannose
B) Viral DNA
C) Surface protein on a parasite
D) Lipid components of fungal membrane
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Antigen Presenting Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are HLA heterozygotes more resistant to disease than homozygotes?
A) They have more single nucleotide polymorphisms.
B) They have a more diverse range of minor HLA loci.
C) They have more diversity in the antibodies they produce.
D) They have a more varied repertoire of antigen-presenting HLA molecules.
Q2) In bare lymphocyte syndrome, individuals lack which surface molecules on their lymphocytes?
A) CD4
B) CD8
C) HLA class I molecules
D) HLA class II molecules
Q3) Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I molecules bind antigens:
A) At the ends and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
B) At the ends and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
C) In the middle and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
D) In the middle and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
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Chapter 5: Antigen Presenting Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kupffer cells are a type of macrophage located in the:
A) Liver
B) Bone
C) Brain
D) Connective tissue
Q2) The _________________ is the vacuole in a B cell where an endocytosed antigen is located.
A) Iccosome
B) Endosome
C) Phagosome
D) Phagolysosome
Q3) Which type of dendritic cell does not present antigen, but instead aids B cell maturation into plasma cells?
A) Langerhans cells
B) Follicular dendritic cells
C) Interstitial dendritic cells
D) Plasmacytoid dendritic cells
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Chapter 6: Surface Interactions Between T Cells and Antigen-Presenting
Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells with the g/d TCR are primarily located in the:
A) Bone marrow
B) Lymph nodes
C) Mucosal tissue
D) Peripheral blood
Q2) How are superantigens able to uniquely activate large amounts of T cells?
A) Superantigens secrete many toxins that are able to activate many different T cells.
B) Superantigens are able to travel to the lymph node to interact directly with more T cells.
C) Superantigens bind to the TCR and MHC class II molecule outside the binding groove.
D) Superantigens bind to the TCR in the binding groove like other antigens but they have more epitopes than other antigens.
Q3) CD4 molecules on T cells bind to:
A) CD40
B) B7 molecules
C) MHC class I molecules
D) MHC class II molecules
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Intracellular Signaling and T Cell Activation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The downstream signaling target of CD28/B7 activation is:
A) NF-kB
B) PIP2/IP3
C) Rac/JNK
D) PLCg1/DAG/PKC
Q2) Which of the following is an example of autocrine signaling?
A) An NK cell responding to IL-12 produced by a macrophage.
B) A macrophage responding to TNF made by the same macrophage.
C) A T helper cell responding to IL-2 produced by a neighboring T cell.
D) A neutrophil responding to IL-1 produced by vascular endothelial cell.
Q3) The major defect in X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is:
A) Inability to produce IL-2
B) Lack of ZAP-70 protein kinase
C) Inability to produce B or T cells
D) Lack of g-chain in interleukin receptors
Q4) What is the purpose of adaptor proteins in signal transduction?
A) Activate transcription
B) Facilitate dimerization of receptors
C) Anchor the receptor to the membrane
D) Carry the signal from the membrane into the cytoplasm
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Chapter 8: B Cell Activation and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most long-lived plasma cells reside in the:
A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Lymph node
D) Bone marrow
Q2) Which two cytokines are the main stimuli for B cell differentiation into plasma cells?
A) TNF and IL-1
B) TACI and BLyS
C) BLyS and APRIL
D) TLR-4 and Lipid A
Q3) Belimumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against:
A) BLyS
B) CD22
C) Bruton's kinase
D) BLyS and APRIL
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Chapter 9: Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The monomeric form of this antibody inserted into the B cell membrane serves as the B cell receptor (BCR):
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Q2) An IgG2 subclass response is important for proper immunization with the meningococcal vaccine because:
A) IgG2 responds better to protein antigens
B) IgG2 responds better to carbohydrate antigens
C) Other IgG subclasses do not activate complement as efficiently
D) Other IgG subclasses are not always induced following vaccination
Q3) Which class of antibody causes the release of histamine-containing granules of basophils and mast cells?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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11
Chapter 10: Antibody Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents possible antibody conformations?
I. One l light chain, one k light chain, two g heavy chains
II. Two l light chains, one g heavy chain, one m heavy chain
III. Two k light chains, two m heavy chains
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Small nuclear RNA and small nuclear riboprotein are involved in which process?
A) Opening of hairpins
B) Ligation of V and J genes
C) Addition of P- and N-nucleotides
D) Attachment of C genes to V and J genes
Q3) The addition of N-nucleotides has which effect on antibody structure?
A) Determines if the light chain is a l-chain or k-chain
B) Allows for removal of amino acids in the open hairpins
C) Adds the C4 region to the heavy chain of some antibodies
D) Changes the amino acid sequence in the hypervariable CDR3
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Complement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component is common to all three complement pathways?
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C4
Q2) Which of the following complement components acts as a chemoattractant?
A) C2a
B) C3a
C) C4b
D) C5b
Q3) The role that C3bBb3b plays in the complement pathway is to:
A) Cleave C2 to C2a and C2b
B) Cleave C3 to C3a and C3b
C) Cleave C4 to C4a and C4b
D) Cleave C5 to C5a and C5b
Q4) Which of the following components can act as an opsonin?
A) C1q
B) C3b
C) C4a
D) C5b
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Chapter 12: Phagocytosis and Intracellular Killing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with this disease are at greater risk for fungal infections than patients with other phagocytosis-related deficiencies:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
C) Chronic granulomatous disease
D) Complement receptor deficiency
Q2) Some bacteria can avoid oxygen-dependent phagocytic killing by producing:
A) Catalase
B) Defensins
C) Singlet oxygen
D) Superoxide dismutase
Q3) Which is a key component in oxygen-independent phagocytic killing?
A) Lysozyme
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Hypochlorous acid
D) Superoxide dismutase
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14
Chapter 13: Antibodies and in Vivo Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A monoclonal antibody used as a drug has a name that ends in what suffix?
A) U
B) Ab
C) Mab
D) Imm
Q2) The main pathological target for autoantibodies found in patients with Kawasaki disease is:
A) Skin
B) Kidneys
C) Platelets
D) Vascular endothelial cells
Q3) Hybridomas are fusion cells composed of:
A) B cells and T cells
B) Two different myeloma cells
C) Splenic B cells and myeloma cells
D) Lymph node B cells and splenic B cells
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Chapter 14: Antibodies and in Vitro Research and Diagnostic Assays
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Sample Questions
Q1) To identify different surface markers on a population of cells, flow cytometry requires the use of:
A) Enzymes
B) Colorimetric dyes
C) Radioactive isotopes
D) Fluorescent antibodies
Q2) A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is having lab work, and the doctor orders flow cytometry. What is flow cytometry used to detect most often in AIDS patients?
A) B cell levels
B) NK cell levels
C) CD4 T cell levels
D) CD8 T cell levels
Q3) In flow cytometry, side scatter is a measure of:
A) Cell size
B) Protein content
C) Granularity of a cell
D) Expression of CD markers
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Chapter 15: Immediate Allergic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?
A) Anaphylaxis causes more serious symptoms.
B) Anaphylactoid reactions do not involve mast cells or basophils.
C) Anaphylactoid reactions cannot be prevented and anaphylactic reactions are preventable.
D) Anaphylaxis is caused by IgE and anaphylactoid reactions are caused by complement.
Q2) Which of the following is/are responsible for class switching to IgE production in allergic reactions?
I. IL-5
II. IL-4
III. IL-13
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 17: Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main immune response in a case of chronic rejection of a transplanted organ is:
A) B cell activation
B) Both B and T cell activation
C) Allospecific T cell activation
D) Attack of organ by pre-existing antibodies
Q2) One of the steps taken to avoid graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is:
A) Immunostimulation
B) Matching minor histocompatibility
C) Removing all T cells from the graft
D) Removing all B cells from the graft
Q3) Direct antigen presentation occurring during allogeneic graft rejection occurs when:
A) Donor APCs present antigen to the donor T cells
B) A recipient's T cells recognize donor cells as foreign
C) Donor antibodies bind to recipient cell surface molecules
D) A recipient's T cells recognize foreign antigen processed on the recipient's APCs
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Chapter 18: Antigen Presentation for Cell-Mediated Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an immune response following cross-priming?
I. An NK cell killing a tumor cell.
II. A CD8 cell killing a tumor cell.
III. A macrophage ingesting a tumor cell.
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) What is the purpose of b -microglobulin associated with MHC class I molecules?
A) Stabilization
B) Interacts with T cell
C) Anchors to membrane
D) Scaffolding molecule between TAP and MHC class I molecule
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to generate a CD8 T cell response?
A) Tapeworm infection
B) Influenza virus infection
C) Fungal infection causing athlete's foot
Page 20
D) Group A Streptococcus infection (Strep throat)
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Chapter 19: Delayed Type Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defects in NRAMPs cause:
A) Phagosome dysfunction
B) Disruption of protein synthesis
C) Inability to package and release antibodies
D) Defective interactions between CD4 T cells and antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
Q2) What role does lipoarabinomannan play in the immune response triggered by tuberculosis (TB) infection?
A) Stimulates production of IL-10
B) Stimulates production of TNF-a
C) Stimulates production of interferon-g
D) Stimulates production of reactive oxygen species (ROS)
Q3) In which stage of TB infection does lung necrosis caused by macrophage-derived reactive oxygen species (ROS) begin?
A) The first phase
B) The second phase
C) The third phase
D) The final phase
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Chapter 20: Cytotoxic T Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a CTL with FasL interacts with a target cell possessing Fas, what happens to the target cell?
A) The target cell dies via apoptotic cell death.
B) Nothing; the target cell is healthy and remains intact.
C) The target cell goes into cell cycle arrest and repairs damage.
D) Nothing, but the interaction with the target cell causes death of the CTL.
Q2) Tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) found in a solid tumor or melanoma may indicate:
A) A good prognosis due to small tumor size
B) A bad prognosis due to an aggressive cancer
C) A good prognosis due to a vigorous immune response
D) A bad prognosis due to damage to surrounding tissue by the immune system
Q3) What role does perforin perform in the death of target cells?
A) Perforin activates caspases.
B) Perforin creates a pore in the host cell.
C) Perforin disrupts mitochondrial function.
D) Perforin cleaves and activates granzymes.
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Chapter 21: Natural Killer Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) NKT cells require antigen presentation by:
I- CD1
II- MHC class I molecules
III- MHC class II molecules
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following cell types may play a role in allergic reactions, particularly in relation to asthma?
A) NK CD56dim cells
B) NK CD56bright cells
C) NKT type I cells
D) NKT type II cells
Q3) NK cells produce which cytokine that activates macrophages?
A) IL-1
B) IL-13
C) TNF-a
D) Interferon-g
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Chapter 22: Factors That Influence the Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immune responses to idiotypes located outside the complementarity-determining regions (CDRs) result in:
A) Increases in autoantibody production
B) Downregulation of autoreactive B cells
C) Increases in activated regulatory T cells
D) Downregulation of MHC class II molecules on APCs
Q2) What is the immune response to high doses of antigen?
A) T cells are inactivated.
B) B cells are inactivated.
C) NK cells are inactivated.
D) Macrophages are inactivated.
Q3) Which methods of antigen administration elicit a vigorous immune response?
I. Intravenous
II. Intramuscular
III. Subcutaneous
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 23: Cytokines and Biological Modifiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) A defect in production of cryopyrin leads to:
A) Increased synthesis of IL-2
B) Increased synthesis of TNF
C) Increased synthesis of IL-1b
D) Increased synthesis of IL-1a
Q2) Which of the following may be administered to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
I. Infliximab
II. Adalimumab
III. Canakinumab
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) Oprelvekin increases levels of:
A) Platelets
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) Red blood cells
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Vaccines in Theory and Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peyer's patches are located in the:
A) Bronchial tree
B) Urogenital tract
C) Back of the throat
D) Gastrointestinal (GI) tract
Q2) Which of the following adjuvants is/are capable of enhancing mucosal immunity?
I. Squalene
II. Cholera toxin
III. Monophosphoryl lipid A
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) What is the purpose of adding an adjuvant to a vaccine?
A) To reduce side effects
B) To enhance the immune response
C) To lower risk of allergic reactions
D) To prevent microbial contamination
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Chapter 25: Vaccine-Preventable Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following infectious agents are capable of forming spores?
I. Clostridium tetani
II. Bordetella pertussis
III. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Following resolution of the lesions of shingles, patients may continue to experience what symptom for months?
A) Pain
B) Arthritis
C) Immunosuppression
D) Swollen lymph nodes
Q3) Why is the oral polio vaccine no longer used in the United States?
A) A more effective form was developed.
B) The oral form did not stimulate mucosal immunity.
C) Contaminated vaccines were removed from the market.
D) Risk of transmission of or infection with reverted virulent polio virus.
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Chapter 26: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
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Q1) After the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds to CD4 on a T cell, what other molecule does it need to bind for entry into the host cell?
A) H-1
B) H-2
C) CCR5
D) CXCR4
Q2) Which of the following drugs binds directly to HIV reverse transcriptase to inhibit activity?
A) Nevirapine
B) Zalcitabine
C) Raltegravir
D) Didanosine
Q3) Which class of drug results in the formation of disorganized viral capsids that form noninfectious viral progeny?
A) Fusion inhibitors
B) Protease inhibitors
C) Integrase inhibitors
D) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
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