Pharmacology for Occupational Therapists Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course provides occupational therapy students with a foundational understanding of pharmacology, emphasizing the effects of commonly prescribed medications on physical and cognitive functioning relevant to occupational therapy practice. Students will explore basic pharmacological principles, major drug classifications, mechanisms of action, side effects, interactions, and the impact of medications on occupational performance. The course also covers considerations for medication management, client safety, and interdisciplinary collaboration, enabling future occupational therapists to support clients optimally within various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original,brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug. A) has the same type and amount of the active ingredient(s) B) uses the same administration route
C) has the same pharmacokinetic profile (drug absorption, plasma levels, and so forth) D) produces the same therapeutic effects
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
Q2) When two drugs are compared,the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to A) be more potent B) be impotent
C) have a great maximal efficacy
D) have a greater therapeutic index E) be pharmacosuperior
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as A) bioequivalence
B) biotransformation
C) bioavailability
D) biodistribution
E) last pass metabolism
Answer: C
Q2) Iontophoresis,phonophoresis,and medicated patches all use the _____ route to administer drugs.
A) oral
B) inhalation
C) injection
D) transdermal
E) rectal
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound,thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney.
A) polar; excreted
B) neutral; excreted
C) polar; reabsorbed
D) neutral; reabsorbed
E) none of the above; metabolism does not affect the polarity of drug byproducts
Answer: A
Q2) Variations in drug response may occur because of individual differences in the patient's
A) age
B) genetic background
C) gender
D) diet
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) The acetylcholine receptor located on the postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal neuromuscular junction is an example of a membrane receptor that
A) is linked directly to an intracellular enzyme
B) is linked directly to a regulatory G protein
C) functions as an ion channel or pore
D) moves (translocates) to the cell's nucleus when stimulated E) none of the above are true
Q2) A drug that fails to evoke a maximal response even though it occupies all available receptors is known as
A) a competitive antagonist
B) a noncompetitive antagonist
C) a partial agonist
D) a competitive agonist
E) an inverse antagonist
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6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
Q2) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as
A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Antidepressant drugs that selectively affect 5-hydroxytryptamine neurotransmission may also cause "serotonin syndrome" which is characterized by
A) sweating
B) shivering
C) movement disorders (severe restlessness, dystonias, dyskinesias)
D) muscle fasciculations
E) all the above are true
Q2) Patients who begin antidepressant drug therapy often experience a delay of at least ______ before they notice a decrease in depression.
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 1 to 2 hours
C) 1 to 2 days
D) 1 to 2 weeks
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
Q2) In addition to their ability to affect dopamine receptors,newer "atypical" antipsychotics also exhibit strong ability to ____ certain CNS _____ receptors.
A) block; serotonin
B) stimulate; serotonin
C) block; norepinephrine
D) stimulate; norepinephrine
E) block; dopamine
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturates are considered to be very safe and effective in the treatment of seizures,but their use is often limited because of their strong tendency to produce
A) sedation
B) myopathy
C) cardiac dysrhythmias
D) hair loss
E) glaucoma
Q2) Newer or "second-generation" antiseizure drugs are helpful in treating certain patients because
A) newer agents generally have milder side effects than traditional antiseizure drugs
B) newer agents have favorable pharmacokinetic characteristics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and so forth)
C) newer agents can be combined with a traditional antiseizure drug to provide adequate seizure control in patients who did not respond to a single traditional antiseizure agent
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics of dopamine agonists are true EXCEPT
A) dopamine agonists cross the blood brain barrier
B) all clinically useful dopamine agonists must be given by parenteral (nonoral) routes
C) the half-life of a dopamine agonist is typically longer than the half-life of levodopa
D) dopamine agonists tend to have a lower risk of dyskinesias and other motor side effects compared to levodopa
E) some dopamine agonists can be administered transdermally by a patch
Q2) Levodopa administration can help resolve the symptoms of Parkinson disease,but this drug can also cause
A) gastrointestinal problems
B) cardiac arrhythmias
C) postural hypotension
D) dyskinesias
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetics inhibit action potential propagation along neuronal axons by blocking the opening of ________ channels.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
Q2) In order to provide symptomatic relief of minor surface irritation and injury (minor burns,abrasions,and so forth),local anesthetics are typically applied
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) topically
D) by inhalation
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle relaxant effects of botulinum toxin appear to diminish or wear off after several months because
A) the immune system destroys the toxin
B) the muscle hypertrophies and generates more muscle fibers
C) a new presynaptic terminal "sprouts" from the axon was originally affected by the toxin
D) the liver metabolizes the toxin
E) the toxin is excreted intact in the urine
Q2) Long term use of diazepam (Valium)as a muscle relaxant is often limited due to problems with
A) sedation
B) tolerance
C) physical dependence
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic)analgesics is
A) the foxglove plant
B) the opium poppy
C) St Johns wort
D) leaves from the gingko tree
E) opioid analgesics cannot be derived from natural sources
Q2) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q3) Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone
A) is a strong opioid antagonist
B) has much more severe withdrawal symptoms than other opioids
C) has opioid-like effects even though methadone is not an opioid
D) methadone does not cross the blood-brain barrier
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common problem associated with NSAIDs such as aspirin is
A) fever
B) dizziness
C) gastrointestinal damage
D) sedation
E) suppression of adrenal cortex activity
Q2) NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) the ability to decrease inflammation
B) the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma
C) the ability to relieve mild-to-moderate pain (analgesia)
D) the ability to decrease the elevated body temperature associated with fever (antipyresis)
E) the ability to decrease blood clotting by inhibiting platelet aggregation (anticoagulation)
Q3) NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
B) stimulating; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
E) inhibiting; monoamine oxidase type A
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)are often effective in controlling inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis,but prolonged use of large,systemic doses can cause
A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) diabetes mellitus
E) all of the above are true
Q2) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
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Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient controlled epidural analgesia (PCEI)is achieved by administering drugs directly into the
A) superior vena cava
B) right atrium of the heart
C) third ventricle of the brain
D) subarachnoid space
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q2) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q3) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19968
Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q2) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q3) Bronchospasm associated with respiratory ailments such as asthma,bronchitis,and emphysema is often treated with
A) beta-1 adrenergic agonists
B) beta-1 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
C) beta-2 adrenergic agonists
D) beta-2 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
E) alpha-1 adrenergic agonists
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Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers can help reduce high blood pressure by
A) stimulating the sinoatrial node in the heart
B) stimulating the atrioventricular node in the heart
C) inhibiting the vasomotor control center in the brainstem
D) inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction
E) increasing renal sodium and water excretion
Q2) Nitric oxide can be used to reduce vascular resistance and decrease arterial pressure in specific hypertensive syndromes because nitric oxide
A) inhibits (blocks) beta-1 receptors on the heart
B) inhibits (blocks) beta-2 receptors on the heart
C) inhibits (blocks) alpha-1 receptors on arteriole smooth muscle
D) directly inhibits the contraction of vascular smooth muscle
E) none of the above are true; nitric oxide is not useful in reducing arterial pressure
Q3) Beta blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to
A) beta-1 receptors
B) beta-2 receptors
C) beta-3 receptors
D) all the above are true
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19970
Sample Questions
Q1) Sudden rupture of atherosclerotic plaques in the coronary artery is a characteristic of ______,and is typically treated with ____.
A) stable; sublingual nitroglycerin combine with a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker
B) unstable; beta blockers combined with nitrates, calcium channel blockers, and antithrombotic drugs
C) stable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
D) unstable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
E) variant; calcium channel blockers
Q2) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with
A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
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24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19971
Sample Questions
Q1) Beta blockers are effective in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they _____ the excitatory effects of ______ on the heart
A) increase; acetylcholine
B) decrease; acetylcholine
C) increase; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
D) decrease; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
E) increase; beta interferons
Q2) While attempting to control one type of arrhythmia,antiarrhythmic drugs can exert "proarrhythmic" effects,which are indicated by
A) a delay of 4 to 6 weeks before these drugs become effective
B) common musculoskeletal abnormalities such as skeletal muscle fasciculations
C) their ability to aggravate or initiate other cardiac rhythm abnormalities
D) their ability to aggravate the proton pump in the stomach, resulting in gastric ulcers
E) their ability to increase body temperature and cause fever
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25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19972
Sample Questions
Q1) Digitalis and the other cardiac glycosides increase the mechanical pumping ability of the heart by bringing about an increase in _________ concentration.
A) extracellular potassium
B) intracellular potassium
C) extracellular calcium
D) intracellular calcium
E) extracellular sodium
Q2) Digitalis exerts its primary mechanical effect by _____ the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane,which leads directly to an _____ intracellular sodium concentration.
A) stimulating; increase
B) inhibiting; increase
C) stimulating; decrease
D) inhibiting; decrease
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
Q2) Drug management in hemophilia consists of giving drugs that
A) inhibit thrombin formation.
B) inhibit Vitamin K activity
C) increase fibrinolysin activity
D) inhibit platelet function.
E) treatment consists of administering the missing clotting factor(s)
Q3) Thrombolytic drugs may be helpful in treating an acute cerebrovascular accident (stroke)if
A) they are administered 8 to 10 hours after the onset of symptoms
B) they are administered orally
C) the stroke is ischemic in nature
D) all the above are true
27
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of bronchospasm in conditions like asthma are often treated with commercial products that combine ____ with _____.
A) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
B) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor agonist
C) a beta-2 receptor agonist; an acetylcholine agonist
D) an acetylcholine agonist; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
E) a leukotriene blocker; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
Q2) High doses and prolonged or excessive use of nasal decongestants is potentially harmful because these drugs
A) can increase heart rate
B) can increase blood pressure
C) can mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Which of the following drugs will promote bronchodilation?
A) drugs that stimulate acetylcholine receptors on airway smooth muscle
B) drugs that block (antagonize) beta-2 receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) xanthine derivatives such as theophylline
D) all of these drugs cause bronchodilation
E) none of these drugs cause bronchodilation
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19975
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs such as cimetidine and ranitidine that selectively block histamine type 2 (H2)receptors on stomach parietal cells
A) prevent the histamine-activated release of gastric acid
B) are available only by prescription
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole (Prilosec)and esomeprazole (Nexium)are useful in reducing gastric acid secretion because they
A) contain a base that chemically neutralizes gastric acid
B) block the effects of histamine on stomach H2 receptors
C) inhibit the enzyme that secretes acid from gastric parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach
D) inhibit the enzyme that transports sodium out of gastric parietal cells, and transports potassium into these cells
E) none of the above are true; these drugs are not useful in reducing gastric acid secretion
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19976
Sample Questions
Q1) Increased release of a specific hormone ultimately serves to inhibit its own release,thus preventing the amount of the released hormone from becoming excessive.The self-control of hormonal release that occurs commonly in the endocrine system is an example of
A) autoregulation
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) modulation of positive outcomes
E) modulation of negative outcomes
Q2) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19977
Sample Questions
Q1) In general,steroids alter protein synthesis in responsive cells through a direct effect on the cell's
A) ribosomes
B) nucleus
C) golgi apparatus
D) mitochondria
E) lysosomes
Q2) Drugs with mineralocorticoid-like activity (aldosterone agonists)are typically administered
A) to treat hypertension
B) to treat inflammation
C) as replacement therapy in people with low renin-angiotensin system activity
D) as replacement therapy whenever the natural production of mineralocorticoids is impaired
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19978
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
Q2) At the onset of puberty,increased testosterone production from the testes typically produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) increased body mass
B) increased body hair
C) deeper voice
D) maturation of the external genitalia
E) inhibition of spermatogenesis
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32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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9 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19979
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
Q2) Vitamin D and several related metabolites enhance bone formation by _____ intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate,and _____ renal excretion of calcium and phosphate.
A) increasing; increasing B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing
D) decreasing; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glugagon-like peptide type 1 (GLP-1)receptor agonists such as exenatide (Byetta)and liraglutide (Victoza)sensitize pancreatic ____ cells so that a relatively greater amount of _____ is released when these cells sense a rise in blood glucose.
A) alpha; insulin
B) beta; insulin
C) alpha; glucagon
D) beta; glucagon
E) delta; somatostatin
Q2) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
Sample Questions
Q1) Tendon pain and inflammation (tendinopathy)that can be severe and ultimately lead to tendon rupture may be caused by
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) vancomycin
D) aminoglycosides such as gentamicin and streptomycin
E) fluoroquinolones such as ofloxacin
Q2) Penicillin,cephalosporins,and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______,which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
A) folic acid; nucleic acids
B) penicillin-binding proteins; ribosomes
C) folic acid; ribosomes
D) penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
E) nucleic acids; folic acids
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many antifungal drugs selectively affect fungal cells rather than human cells by impairing the synthesis or function of specific sterols and polysaccharides that are located in the fungal cell
A) membrane
B) mitochondria
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) DNA
Q2) Although several different drugs are available to treat malaria,many of these drugs are ineffective in certain parts of the world because
A) malaria is difficult to diagnose accurately
B) the organism that causes malaria has become resistant to these drugs
C) antimalarial drugs must all be given by continuous intravenous infusion
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels,thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients.Drugs that use this strategy are known as
A) topoisomerase inhibitors
B) angiogenesis inhibitors
C) aromatase inhibitors
D) antimetabolites
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following drug categories is not used to treat cancer?
A) alkylating agents
B) antimetabolites
C) interferons
D) drugs that increase mitosis
E) endocrines
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
Q2) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Cyclosporine and tacrolimus suppress immune function by inhibiting the ______ protein in lymphoid tissues which results in decreased production of _____.
A) calcineurin; interleukin-2
B) interleukin-2; immunoglobulin G
C) immunoglobulin G; prostaglandins
D) prostaglandins; interleukin-2
E) interleukin-2; calcineurin
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