Pharmacology for Exercise Science
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Pharmacology for Exercise Science explores the fundamental principles of pharmacology as they apply to exercise, physical activity, and sports performance. The course examines the actions, therapeutic uses, and potential side effects of various drug classes commonly encountered in exercise science settings, such as analgesics, anti-inflammatory agents, cardiovascular drugs, and performance-enhancing substances. Students will learn how pharmacological agents can influence metabolism, muscle function, recovery, and adaptation to exercise, as well as the ethical and legal aspects of drug use in sport. Emphasis is placed on understanding drug-exercise interactions and practical considerations for exercise professionals working with individuals taking medications.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that can be purchased directly by the consumer without a prescription are also known as
A) nonproprietary medications
B) Schedule I controlled substances
C) Schedule II controlled substances
D) Schedule III controlled substances
E) over-the-counter drugs
Answer: E
Q2) The use of specific drugs to prevent,treat,or diagnose disease is known as
A) toxicology
B) pharmacokinetics
C) pharmacotherapeutics
D) toxicokinetics
E) dynamic equilibrium
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osmosis refers to the special case of diffusion where the diffusing substance is
A) a lipid soluble drug
B) a non-lipid soluble drug
C) a protein
D) a carbohydrate
E) water
Answer: E
Q2) The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.
A) malabsorptive
B) first pass
C) Bohr
D) bioequivalence
E) pharmacodynamic
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of time required for 50 percent of the drug remaining in the body to be eliminated is known as the
A) median effective dose
B) median toxic dose
C) median efficacy
D) median threshold dose
E) half-life
Answer: E
Q2) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by
A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as
A) an agonist
B) an antagonist
C) a synergist
D) a compliment
Q2) Signals from the surface receptor are transduced into the appropriate response within the cell via intermediate regulatory proteins that are activated by binding guanine nucleotides,hence they are often termed ______ proteins.
A) activating
B) binding
C) controlling
D) nucleotide
E) G
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
Q2) Drugs can alter CNS neurotransmission by affecting neurotransmitter
A) synthesis in the presynaptic terminal
B) release from the presynaptic terminal
C) degradation or breakdown at the synapse
D) reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antidepressants such as paroxetine or venlafaxine can also be used to treat anxiety because
A) they may be an effective substitute for people who cannot tolerate the side effects of traditional antianxiety drugs
B) they may resolve certain cases of anxiety with less chance of addiction
C) many patients with anxiety also have symptoms of depression
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
Q2) Antidepressant drugs that inhibit the ______ enzyme allow more amine neurotransmitters to remain in the synaptic cleft and continue to exert an effect in CNS synapses involved in depression.
A) cholinesterase
B) sodium-potassium ATPase
C) monoamine oxidase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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9
Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tardive dyskinesia is often the most feared motor side effect of antipsychotic drugs because
A) it is associated with muscle atrophy
B) it is associated with osteoporosis
C) it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias
D) it can cause peripheral neuropathies
E) it may be irreversible
Q2) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of
pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q3) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Levodopa administration can help resolve the symptoms of Parkinson disease,but this drug can also cause
A) gastrointestinal problems
B) cardiac arrhythmias
C) postural hypotension
D) dyskinesias
E) all the above are true
Q2) All of the following characteristics of dopamine agonists are true EXCEPT
A) dopamine agonists cross the blood brain barrier
B) all clinically useful dopamine agonists must be given by parenteral (nonoral) routes
C) the half-life of a dopamine agonist is typically longer than the half-life of levodopa
D) dopamine agonists tend to have a lower risk of dyskinesias and other motor side effects compared to levodopa
E) some dopamine agonists can be administered transdermally by a patch
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12
Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During many surgeries,a skeletal neuromuscular junction blocker is given in conjunction with the general anesthetic so that
A) a lower dose of anesthetic can be used while still ensuring skeletal muscle paralysis
B) the patient can be positioned easily on the operating table
C) the thoracic wall is more compliant and does not offer as much resistance to mechanical ventilation
D) all the above are true
E) skeletal neuromuscular junction blockers are never given in conjunction with general anesthetics
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block)is achieved by
A) injecting a local anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
B) injecting a general anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
C) injecting a local anesthetic into the superior vena cava
D) injecting a local anesthetic into the inferior vena cava
Q2) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
Q3) Differential nerve block occurs because small diameter,unmyelinated neurons that convey _______ are the most sensitive to local anesthetics.
A) pain
B) temperature
C) touch
D) proprioception
E) motor impulses
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Centrally-acting antispasm drugs such as cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)and carisoprodol (Soma)were originally thought to inhibit polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord (polysynaptic inhibitors)but these drugs most likely work by producing
A) decreased acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
B) decreased calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) generalized sedation in the CNS
D) inhibition of myosin ATPase activity
E) increased vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
Q2) If botulinum toxin reaches the systemic circulation,it can cause toxic effects as indicated by
A) generalized muscle weakness
B) difficulty speaking
C) difficulty swallowing
D) respiratory distress
E) all the above
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15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q2) Drugs such as butorphanol,nalbuphine,and pentazocine may stimulate certain opioid receptors while blocking or only partially activating other receptors.These drugs
A) may produce adequate analgesia with less risk of side effects such as respiratory depression
B) may have fewer addictive qualities than strong opioids such as morphine
C) may produce more psychotropic effects (hallucinations, vivid dreams) than other opioids
D) are known as mixed agonist-antagonists
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects,it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent
A) heart attacks
B) ischemic strokes
C) colorectal cancer
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following conditions is not normally treated with aspirin or other NSAIDs?
A) mild to moderate pain
B) mild to moderate inflammation
C) fever in adults
D) asthma
E) recurrent heart attacks
Q3) NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
B) stimulating; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
E) inhibiting; monoamine oxidase type A
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) When treating an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis in a specific joint,anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)can be injected directly into the joint,but the number of injections should be limited to _____ per year.
A) 2-3
B) 5-6
C) 8-10
D) 12-15
Q2) NSAIDs are effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis because these drugs inhibit the _______ enzyme that initiates ______synthesis.
A) cyclooxygenase; prostaglandin
B) cyclooxygenase; steroid
C) monoamine oxidase; dopamine
D) monoamine; norepinephrine
E) choline acetyltransferase; acetylcholine
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)device is known as the
A) loading dose
B) demand dose
C) background infusion rate
D) minimal dosage rate
E) maximal dosage rate
Q2) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q2) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q3) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q2) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic heat (e.g.Hubbard tank)should be avoided in patients taking ______ drugs because the combination of these two interventions will cause excessive A) vasodilators
B) alpha-2 antagonists
C) beta-1 agonists
D) beta-2 agonists
E) all the above are true
Q2) Diuretics ______ the excretion of water by _______ sodium reabsorption at the kidneys.
A) increase; inhibiting B) decrease; inhibiting C) increase; stimulating
D) decrease; stimulating
Q3) Beta blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to A) beta-1 receptors
B) beta-2 receptors
C) beta-3 receptors
D) all the above are true
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrates such as nitroglycerin exert their primary beneficial effects in people with angina pectoris because these drugs ______ myocardial oxygen demand by vasodilating the ______.
A) decrease; coronary arteries
B) increase; coronary arteries
C) decrease; peripheral vasculature
D) increase; peripheral vasculature
E) decrease; cerebral vasculature
Q2) Nitroglycerin patches are typically used intermittently (e.g.,12 hours on,12 hours off)to prevent
A) skin irritation from the patch
B) liver toxicity
C) kidney damage
D) pulmonary toxicity
E) tolerance to the drug
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His D) excitation; bundle of His E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the effective refractory period of the cardiac action potential
A) will speed up repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
B) will generally increase heart rate
C) will decrease the time interval between cardiac action potentials
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac glycosides such as digitalis are used to treat heart failure because these drugs exert
A) a positive inotropic effect
B) a negative inotropic effect
C) a positive dromotropic effect
D) a negative dromotropic effect
E) a positive chronotropic effect
Q2) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as inamrinone and milrinone may help increase myocardial contraction in heart failure by ______ breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),which leads to a(n)______ in calcium in cardiac cells.
A) inhibiting; increase
B) stimulating; increase
C) inhibiting; decrease
D) stimulating; decrease
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the process of having a heart attack due to the sudden formation of an arterial thrombus in his coronary artery.To break up the clot and save the patient's life,the best drug to use is
A) a low-molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin)
B) a fibrinolytic drug (e.g. streptokinase or tPA)
C) a fibrinolysis inhibitor (e.g., aminocaproic acid)
D) warfarin (Coumadin)
E) vitamin K
Q2) Statin drugs such atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme,thereby ______ the production of ______.
A) increasing; cholesterol
B) decreasing; cholesterol
C) increasing; low-density lipoproteins
D) decreasing; high-density lipoproteins
E) increasing; triglycerides
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs will promote bronchodilation?
A) drugs that stimulate acetylcholine receptors on airway smooth muscle
B) drugs that block (antagonize) beta-2 receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) xanthine derivatives such as theophylline
D) all of these drugs cause bronchodilation
E) none of these drugs cause bronchodilation
Q2) Drugs that decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions are known commonly as _______,whereas drugs that facilitate the production and ejection of mucus are known commonly as ________.
A) expectorants; mucolytics
B) mucolytics; expectorants
C) antihistamines; bronchodilators
D) bronchodilators; antihistamines
E) antitussives; anticholinergics
Q3) Most common nasal decongestants act by _____ receptors in the nasal mucosa.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating beta-1
D) inhibiting beta-1
E) stimulating histamine
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many people with gastric ulcers,antibacterial drugs are often combined with proton pump inhibitors to help eliminate ________ infection as a potentiating factor in ulcer formation.
A) h. pylori
B) streptococcal
C) e. coli
D) girardia
E) p. aeruginosa
Q2) Daily or indiscriminate use of laxatives should be avoided because excessive use of these drugs can cause
A) excessive loss of fluids and electrolytes
B) irritation of the lower GI tract
C) impairment of loss of normal mechanisms governing evacuation and defecation
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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29
Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
Q2) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q3) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucocorticoids should be withdrawn slowly after several weeks or months of use,because the ______ needs time to resume normal function when these drugs are discontinued.
A) liver
B) kidneys
C) adrenal gland
D) thyroid gland
E) pancreas
Q2) Cortisol and other glucocorticoids exert a paradoxical or contradictory effect on glucose metabolism because they _____ circulating levels of glucose at the same time that they ______ glycogen storage in the liver.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; decrease
D) decrease; increase
E) none of the above are true; glucocorticoids do not affect glucose metabolism
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Q1) In certain older men,small doses of testosterone (testosterone replacement)may produce beneficial effects on body composition,strength,bone mineralization,mood,and libido,but may also cause an increased risk of A) anemia
B) osteoporosis
C) prostate hypertrophy and cancer
D) skin breakdown
E) hereditary angioedema
Q2) Men and women athletes should be discouraged from taking male androgens (anabolic steroids)because
A) they may damage their liver
B) they may experience increased aggression
C) their blood pressure may increase
D) they may sustain damage to the myocardium
E) all of the above are true
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32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Q1) Small amounts of _____ must be ingested in the diet so that the thyroid gland can synthesize thyroid hormones.
A) riboflavin
B) selenium
C) iodine
D) manganese
E) magnesium
Q2) Parathyroid hormone ______ plasma calcium levels by ______ calcium resorption from bone.
A) increases; increasing
B) increases; decreasing
C) decreases; decreasing
D) decreases; decreasing.
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that stimulate insulin secretion (e.g.,sulfonylureas)or increase tissue sensitivity to insulin (e.g.metformin)
A) are used to treat patients with poor glucagon production
B) are effective in some patients with Type I diabetes.
C) are effective in some patients with Type II diabetes.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true; these drugs have no clinical indications
Q2) Certain forms of biosynthetic insulin are absorbed more rapidly than regular human insulin because
A) other substances such as acetate or protamine have been added to the insulin molecule in increase absorption
B) zinc has been added to the insulin molecule to increase absorption
C) newer forms of biosynthetic insulin can be administered orally via slow-release or sustained-release preparations
D) the amino acid sequence of the insulin molecule has been altered to allow more rapid absorption
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true
Q2) Tendon pain and inflammation (tendinopathy)that can be severe and ultimately lead to tendon rupture may be caused by
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) vancomycin
D) aminoglycosides such as gentamicin and streptomycin
E) fluoroquinolones such as ofloxacin
Q3) Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of
A) bacterial intracellular calcium release
B) bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
C) bacterial protein synthesis
D) bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
E) none of the above are true; antibacterial drugs use all the mechanisms listed
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19983
Sample Questions
Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Tapeworms (cestodes),roundworms (nematodes),and flukes (trematodes)are treated with
A) antifungal drugs
B) antiprotozoal drugs
C) anthelmintic drugs
D) antibacterial drugs
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-cancer drugs are classified as cell-cycle-nonspecific if they exert antineoplastic effects on the cell only when it is in the _______ phase of the cell cycle.
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) M
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
A) create a strong alkyl reaction with the DNA molecule
B) directly inhibit the topoisomerase enzyme responsible for DNA synthesis
C) are attracted directly to the cancer cell, without an appreciable affect on healthy tissues
D) directly inhibit the mitotic apparatus that is responsible for controlling cell division (mitosis)
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sirolimus,a relatively new immunosuppressant,is especially helpful following kidney transplants because
A) it causes sodium retention
B) it increases renin release from the kidneys
C) it does not reduce glomerular filtration and other aspects of kidney function
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are often used to suppress immune function following organ transplant,but long-term use of these drugs can also cause
A) hypertension
B) increased chance of infection
C) adrenocortical suppression
D) breakdown of muscle, bone, skin, and various other tissues
E) all the above are true
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