Pharmacology for Allied Health Exam Bank - 2155 Verified Questions

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Pharmacology for Allied Health Exam Bank

Course Introduction

Pharmacology for Allied Health provides an essential overview of the principles of pharmacology, focusing on drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and side effects relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore how medications interact with the human body, learn safe administration practices, and examine the responsibilities of allied health professionals in medication management. Emphasis is placed on understanding dosage calculations, routes of administration, and the impact of pharmacological principles on patient care within various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Pharmacology for Health Professionals 5th Edition by Susan M. Turley

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25 Chapters

2155 Verified Questions

2155 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology and the History of Drugs

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124 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jamie Alvarez is going to fly in an airplane for the first time.She is afraid she might experience motion sickness,so she has decided to take the over-the-counter drug Dramamine.This is an example of the ________ use of a drug.

A) preventive B) therapeutic

C) diagnostic

D) all of the above

Answer: A

Q2) Which drugs were introduced in the decade of the 1990s?

A) penicillin (first antibiotic drug), Benadryl (first antihistamine drug), cortisone (first corticosteroid drug)

B) Thorazine (first antipsychotic drug), hydrocortisone (first topical corticosteroid drug), polio vaccine

C) Inderal (first beta-blocker drug), Tagamet (first H blocker drug), levodopa (for Parkinson's disease)

D) Proscar (for benign prostatic hypertrophy), Nicoderm (for stopping smoking), Viagra (for erectile dysfunction)

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Drug Design, Testing, Manufacturing, and Marketing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly explain how a double-blind study is performed using a control group,a placebo,and drug group.

Answer: Double-blind studies with the drug and a placebo are performed,in which neither the patients nor the physician-investigators know which patients are receiving the drug and which patients (the control group)are receiving the drug.

Q2) What can the FDA do when it receives reports of adverse drug effects for a particular drug?

A) The FDA can red flag a drug.

B) The FDA can have the drug company expand the warning label on the drug.

C) The FDA can withdraw the drug from the market.

D) B and C

Answer: D

Q3) The chemical name of a drug ________.

A) is too lengthy and complicated for everyday use by healthcare professionals

B) is only used by researchers and consumers

C) is the same as the generic name of the drug

D) all of the above

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Drug Forms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some over-the-counter drugs come as a ________,a drug form that is never swallowed,but is allowed to slowly disintegrate into a liquid form that releases the drug topically in the mouth and throat.

Answer: lozenge

Q2) Your friend asks you if you can identify the name of the drug he is taking.He shows you a purple capsule with 3 gold bands around the end.You tell him that this is the drug

A) Fosamax

B) Zantac

C) Cialis

D) Nexium

Answer: D

Q3) The viscosity of a drug form refers to its ________.

Answer: thickness

Q4) All of the following are drug forms,EXCEPT ________.

A) pellets and beads

B) wafers and films

C) gases and T-shaped devices

D) binders and fillers

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Routes of Administration and the Drug Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first-pass effect describes the ________.

A) metabolism of drugs by the stomach

B) metabolism of drugs by the liver

C) absorption of drugs by the stomach

D) excretion of drugs by the kidneys

Q2) A tablet is not swallowed if it is given by the sublingual route.

A)True

B)False

Q3) While the nasal administration of a drug is done topically,some nasal spray drugs act systemically throughout the body.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sublingual administration of a drug involves placing it ________.

A) on the skin

B) under the tongue

C) in the vagina

D) under the skin

Q5) For subcutaneous administration of a liquid drug,the needle of the syringe is inserted at a ________ degree angle.

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Q6) Briefly explain the difference between water-soluble and fat-soluble drugs.

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Chapter 5: Using Drugs Therapeutically

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most drug doses in the United States are measured in the ________ system.

Q2) The abbreviation h.s.means ________.

A) before meals

B) after meals

C) at bedtime

D) nothing by mouth

Q3) Some drugs bind to a certain receptor but cannot actually unlock or activate the receptor to produce an effect.These drugs are known as ________ drugs or blocker drugs.

Q4) When the antibiotic drug tetracycline is taken with an antacid,these two drugs

A) form an insoluble compound that prevents a therapeutic effect

B) cause a side effect of severe diarrhea

C) produce an allergic reaction with each other

D) have synergism and an increased therapeutic effect of each drug

Q5) Which of the following increases the likelihood of a drug-drug interaction?

A) pharmacogenetics

B) polypharmacy

C) side effects

D) therapeutic effects

Page 7

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Chapter 6: The Prescription

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Unused drugs can be flushed down the toilet.

B) Unused narcotic drugs can be taken to a hospital emergency room.

C) Mixing unused drugs with kitty liter or coffee-grounds is a good way to dispose of them.

D) Pharmacies will not accept unused drugs that need to be disposed of.

Q2) The abbreviation Sig.in a prescription refers to the signature line where the physician signs.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs are valid for how long from the date on the prescription form?

A) seven days

B) three months

C) six months

D) one year

Q4) The use of computerized physician order entry has reduced drug errors related to ________ handwriting.

Q5) Describe four ways to prevent the theft of prescription pads from the medical office.

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Chapter 7: Urinary Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Finasteride is used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (as the trade name drug Proscar),but is also used to treat male pattern baldness (as the trade name drug Propecia).

A)True

B)False

Q2) BPH is common in men over age 50,with the incidence increasing with age.The abbreviation BPH stands for ________.

Q3) Prostaglandin E drugs cause vasodilation to treat erectile dysfunction,but they are also used to keep open a patent ductus arteriosus to sustain life in a newborn with a congenital heart defect.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Combination diuretic drugs combine a/an ________.

A) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic drug with a potassium supplement

B) loop diuretic drug with a folic acid antagonist drug

C) antispasmodic drug with an antibiotic drug

D) thiazide diuretic drug with a potassium-sparing diuretic drug

Q5) Potassium chloride drugs doses are measured in mEq.The abbreviation mEq stands for ________.

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Chapter 8: Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the phrase antiemetic drug,the combining form emet/o- means to ________.

Q2) Anticholinergic drugs block the action of acetylcholine and this ________.

A) decreases the rate of peristalsis in the intestine

B) stimulate the rate of peristalsis to move food through the intestine

C) absorbs excess water from the intestine

D) stimulate the release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach

Q3) Cimetidine is the generic name for the trade name drug ________.

A) Maalox

B) Nexium

C) opium

D) Tagamet

Q4) Ulcerative colitis is a chronic disease of the esophagus and stomach.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which category of laxative drug has the most natural and safest action?

A) bulk-producing laxative drugs

B) chloride channel laxative drugs

C) osmotic laxative drugs

D) stool softener laxative drugs

Q6) An ________ is another name for a drug that blocks a receptor.

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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drugs used to treat osteoarthritis reduce pain and inflammation by inhibiting the production of ________.

A) antibodies

B) osteoblasts

C) prostaglandins

D) progesterone

Q2) ________,also known as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA),is the most well-known drug in the salicylate category.

Q3) Two types of bone cells are constantly at work: Osteoclasts deposit new bone and osteoblasts break down and remove areas of old or damaged bone.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A drug category used to treat osteoporosis is called SERM.The abbreviation SERM stands for ________ drugs.

Q5) The endings -dronate and -dronic are common to generic bone resorption inhibitor drugs that are used to treat osteoporosis.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Respiratory Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The corticosteroid drug prednisolone (Oraped,Pediapred)is given ________.

A) orally

B) by inhaler

C) subcutaneously

D) all of the above

Q2) A ________ is a long plastic chamber attached to a metered-dose inhaler.

Q3) All of the following are categories of bronchodilator drugs,EXCEPT ________.

A) monoclonal antibody

B) sympathomimetic

C) xanthine

D) anticholinergic

Q4) Expectorant drugs are prescribed for a nonproductive cough.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which of the following is a combination drug used to treat asthma?

A) Advair

B) Breo Ellipta

C) IsonaRif

D) A and B

Q6) The ending -phylline is common to generic xanthine ________ drugs.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digoxin immune Fab,which is used to treat digitalis toxicity,is an antigen-binding fragment drug obtained from ________ that have been treated to produce antibodies against the molecular structure of the drug digoxin.

Q2) Match the name of the drug for hypertension in Column 1 to its drug category in Column 2.

A)ACE inhibitor drug

B)angiotensin II receptor blocker drug

C)beta-blocker drug

D)calcium channel blocker drug

E)peripheral vasodilator drug

1)diltiazem (Cardizem)

2)hydralazine (Apresoline)

3)losartan (Cozaar)

4)propranolol (Inderal)

"5)quinapril (Accupril)

Q3) When the drug atropine is used to treat bradycardia,its action is to ________.

A) block the movement of calcium to allow the coronary arteries to dilate

B) block acetylcholine receptors in the heart so that the heart rate increases

C) have a negative chronotropic effect

D) lower the cholesterol level

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Chapter 12: Hematologic Drugs

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67 Verified Questions

67 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of the drug effect of antagonism?

A) changing from intravenous heparin in the hospital to an oral anticoagulant drug upon discharge home

B) giving a vitamin K drug to a newborn after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease

C) taking an anticoagulant drug with a meal of leafy green vegetables

D) all of the above

Q2) The tPA drugs can ________ (break apart)a blood clot once it has formed.

Q3) Heparin inhibits clotting factor X in the liver,which stops the series of steps needed to form a blood clot.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The abbreviation tPA stands for ________.

Q5) The drug Coagulin-B is the actual cellular gene that directs the liver to produce clotting factor IX.

A)True

B)False

Q6) A drug-food interaction in which the food decreases the therapeutic effect of the drug is known as ________.

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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Drugs

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The well-known generic drug oxytocin that is a uterine stimulant drug used to stimulate the uterus and induce labor is related to the trade name drug ________.

A) Cervidil

B) Estrostep

C) Prempro

D) Pitocin

Q2) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases are treated with antibiotic drugs?

A) HIV and AIDS

B) genital herpes

C) candidiasis

D) gonorrhea and syphilis

Q3) Seasonique belongs to what category of drugs? Also explain why patients taking it only have four menstrual periods a year.

Q4) PMDD includes all the symptoms of PMS plus an added symptom of endometriosis.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe each of the three phases associated with triphasic contraceptive drugs.

Q6) The abbreviation STD stands for ________.

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Chapter 14: Endocrine Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) All insulin drugs on the market today are created by recombinant DNA technology.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A syringe calibrated in units can be used to administer ________.

A) any antidiabetic drug if it is in a liquid form

B) any type of drug in a liquid form.

C) only insulin

D) only rapid-acting insulin drugs

Q3) Antithyroid drugs used to treat hyperthyroidism act by ________.

A) inhibiting the production of T and T in the parathyroid gland

B) inhibiting the production of T and T in the thyroid gland

C) stimulating the production of T and T in the parathyroid gland

D) stimulating the production of T and T in the thyroid gland.

Q4) Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus inject insulin once or several times a day at various sites in which of these places on the body?

A) the upper arms

B) thighs

C) abdomen

D) all of the above

Q5) Anabolic steroid drugs are classified as Schedule ________ drugs.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Neurologic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Certain drugs for Alzheimer's disease inhibit the enzyme ________ (which normally breaks down acetylcholine); this raises the amount of acetylcholine.

Q2) Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat bacterial infections,although the sulfonamide drug Zonegran is only used as an anticonvulsant drug to treat epilepsy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The cholinesterase inhibitor drug galantamine (Razadyne)was originally derived from what flower bulb?

Q4) ________ is the only drug for Alzheimer's disease that comes in the form of a transdermal patch.

A) Memantine (Namenda)

B) Galantamine (Razadyne)

C) Rivastigmine (Exelon)

D) Donepezil (Aricept)

Q5) Describe the unusual adverse effect associated with the nonbarbiturate hypnotic/sedative drug zolpidem (Ambien)?

Q6) Describe how a physician decides what drug therapy to use for a patient with epilepsy.

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Chapter 16: Psychiatric Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following was a drawback of methylphenidate (Ritalin)?

A) Its therapeutic effect only lasted four hours.

B) A dose had to be taken at breakfast, lunch, and in the afternoon.

C) It was embarrassing to children to have to take a dose during school.

D) All of the above were drawbacks.

Q2) Although it doesn't seem to make sense to give an amphetamine drug to a patient who is hyperactive,it works because the amphetamine stimulant drug has a paradoxical effect and actually reduces impulsive behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)is best treated with ________.

A) antianxiety and antidepressant drugs

B) antianxiety and anticonvulsant drugs

C) anticonvulsant and antipsychotic drugs

D) antidepressant and antipsychotic drugs

Q4) Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by mood swings between two poles.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Drugs used to treat psychosis and schizophrenia are known as ________ drugs.

Q6) Antidepressant drugs are also known as ________-elevating drugs.

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Chapter 17: Dermatologic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Topical vitamin D-type drugs for psoriasis stimulate vitamin D receptors in the keratinocytes and this increases the abnormal cell growth.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following generic dermatologic drugs is correctly matched to its trade name?

A) coal tar: Retin-A

B) miconazole: Xylocaine

C) fluticasone: Cutivate

D) botulinum toxin type A: Topicort

Q3) All of the following are considered to be filler drugs that are used to plump the skin and minimize wrinkles,EXCEPT ________.

A) hyaluronic acid (Juvederm, Restylane)

B) botulinum toxin type A (Botox, Dysport)

C) human collagen (CosmoDerm, CosmoPlast)

D) poly-L-lactic acid (Sculptra)

Q4) Widespread use of antibacterial compounds and the routine use of antibiotic drugs in animal feed are believed to have contributed to the rise of antibiotic-resistant

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Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) NSAIDs are used after cataract or corneal surgery to treat the pain and ________ associated with surgery.

Q2) Topical antibiotic drugs for eye infections are useful in treating both bacterial infections of the eye and viral infections of the eye.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Miotic drugs for glaucoma have the same effect as the neurotransmitter

A) aqueous humor

B) acetylcholine

C) epinephrine

D) vitreous humor

Q4) Brinzolamide (Azopt)is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor drug that blocks the enzyme that produces ________ humor.

Q5) The drug ganciclovir (Vitrasert)is an implant that is placed within the lens of the eye.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The eye disease of xerophthalmia is also known as ________ eyes syndrome.

Q7) Describe the effect of miotic drugs to that of mydriatic drugs.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Ears, Nose, and Throat Entdrugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Antitussive drugs decrease ________.

A) coughing

B) sneezing

C) sputum production

D) edema and inflammation

Q2) The drug dextromethorphan (Robitussin,Vicks 44)is categorized as a/an ________ drug.

Q3) The label of the antiyeast drug nystatin (Mycostatin)says "Shake well before using" because it is in the drug form of a ________.

A) liquid

B) nasal spray

C) suspension

D) topical ointment

Q4) Which of the following pairs does NOT contain two trade name decongestant drugs?

A) Afrin and Duration

B) Dimetapp and Triaminic

C) Sudafed and Otrivin

D) Astelin and Tavist Allergy

Q5) The abbreviation DM stands for ________.

Q6) The abbreviation ENT stands for ________.

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Analgesic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ending ________ is common to generic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

Q2) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)for migraine headaches comes in which of these drug forms?

A) a tablet

B) a liquid to be injected subcutaneously

C) a nasal spray

D) A and C

Q3) The abbreviation NSAID stands for ________.

Q4) Which of the following combination analgesic drugs does NOT contain an antacid?

A) Bufferin

B) Ascriptin

C) Alka-Seltzer with Aspirin

D) Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 3

Q5) In preventing or treating migraine headaches,ergotamine drugs stimulate all of the following receptors,EXCEPT ________.

A) dopamine

B) epinephrine

C) norepinephrine

D) serotonin

Q6) ________ is well known for its use in treating recovering narcotic drug addicts at outpatient clinics.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Anti-Infective Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe what damage tetracycline drugs can do to the teeth and what precautions are taken to prevent this from happening.

Q2) Aminoglycoside drugs are primarily effective against ________.

A) viruses

B) parasites

C) gram-negative bacteria and some gram-positive bacteria

D) fungi

Q3) The drug Augmentin ________.

A) is a combination drug

B) contains the generic drugs amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium

C) contains a substance that inactivates the enzyme penicillinase produced by some bacteria

D) all of the above

Q4) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) A person infected with HIV usually remains without symptoms for four to five years.

B) Drugs used to treat HIV inhibit the growth of the retrovirus, but are unable to kill it.

C) The viral load is the total number of viruses in the blood and lymphocytes.

D) All of the above statements are true.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Chemotherapy Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The generic drugs vinblastine,vincristine,and vinorelbine all belong to the category of ________ alkaloid chemotherapy drugs.

Q2) What happened when the drug thalidomide was used to treat morning sickness that almost ended any use of this drug?

Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The stage of the cancer indicates whether the cancer has spread beyond the original or primary site and metastasized to secondary sites.

B) Uncontrolled cell division and metastasis are identifying characteristics of cancer cells.

C) Benign and malignant neoplasms are classified as cancer.

D) A treatment that is appropriate for one type of cancer is usually not appropriate for a different type of cancer.

Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of antimetabolite chemotherapy drugs?

A) folic acid blocker chemotherapy drugs

B) nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs

C) purine analog chemotherapy drugs

D) pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drugs

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Vaccines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vaccines are drugs that are used to prevent certain ________ (easily transmitted)diseases that can be fatal or cause serious disabilities.

Q2) The Hib vaccine is related to the pathogen Haemophilus influenza type b.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The disease measles is caused by a ________.

Q4) According to the World Health Organization,vaccines are currently available to present 600 different diseases.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The immune response involves a coordinated effort between which body parts?

A) the blood

B) the brain

C) the lymphatic system

D) A and C

Q6) The hepatitis B surface antigen vaccine is an example of a vaccine form that contains one part of the virus,and that part is known as a ________.

Q7) The disease tetanus is caused by a ________.

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Q8) The only vaccine that is given by the intranasal route is the ________ vaccine.

Chapter 24: Anesthetic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The drugs diazepam,lorazepam (Ativan),and midazalom are ________ drugs given preoperatively to relieve anxiety and provide sedation.

Q2) Nitrous oxide was first used at social parties and known as laughing gas before it was recognized as an anesthetic drug.

A)True

B)False

Q3) For many years,synthetic substitutes for the topical anesthetic drug cocaine were sought.This ultimately led to the discovery of what drug that was the prototype of local anesthetic drugs?

A) chlorpromazine

B) fentanyl

C) procaine (Novacaine)

D) meperidine (Demerol)

Q4) Regional anesthesia is used during surgery on an extremity to provide anesthesia for that region.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The trade name of the well-known anesthetic generic name drug lidocaine is

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Chapter 25: Emergency Drugs, Intravenous Fluids, and Blood Products

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Sample Questions

Q1) Laypersons think that donating a unit of blood is about equal to donating a pint of blood,but they are not at all equal.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Describe how the endotracheal tube route of drug administration is used to give emergency drugs and how the drugs are able to move into the blood.

Q3) Intracardiac injection is used frequently to treat many different diseases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Another name for the intravenous fluid of physiologic salt solution is normal ________.

Q5) Intravenous lipids contain about 30 percent more calories per gram than intravenous dextrose.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Ipecac syrup can be a drug of abuse in patients with bulimia who use it to induce vomiting.

A)True

B)False

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