Pharmacology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Pharmacology is the scientific study of drugs and their effects on living organisms. This course explores the principles of drug action, including how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body. Students will learn about different classes of drugs, mechanisms of therapeutic and adverse effects, dosage calculations, and drug interactions. Emphasis is placed on understanding the physiological and biochemical basis of drug action, as well as the clinical implications for treatment of various diseases. The course provides foundational knowledge essential for careers in medicine, pharmacy, nursing, and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generic name of a medication is the:
A) name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) chemical name of the medication.
D) shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is once-daily dosing preferred for Australian Indigenous peoples?
A) Because Indigenous people generally have a poor memory.
B) Indigenous people have a culturally different concept of time, therefore minimising the number of doses is aimed at promoting compliance.
C) Because once-daily dosing is less likely to cause side effects such as renal disease.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B
Q3) The brand name of a medication is provided by the:
A) government.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prohibited substances are substances that:
A) are available to the public from a pharmacist without a prescription.
B) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
C) are available only to specialised or authorised users who have the skills necessary to handle them safely.
D) may be abused or misused. Their manufacture, possession, sale or use should be prohibited by law except when required for medical or scientific research, or for analytical teaching or training purposes.
Answer: D
Q2) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Voluntary euthanasia involves the:
A) client's next-of-kin agreeing to an intervention that leads to the client's death.
B) client voluntarily and freely choosing to receive an intervention that leads to their death.
C) client being incapable of giving consent.
D) health professionals involved with the client's care choosing to administer an intervention that leads to the client's death.
Answer: B
Q2) Passive euthanasia involves:
A) the intentional act that leads to the client's death.
B) allowing the client to die by deliberately withholding or withdrawing life-supporting measures.
C) health care professionals carrying out actions that lead to the client's death without the client's consent.
D) the client voluntarily and freely choosing to die.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q2) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway,breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations,and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Q2) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The evolution of nurses into practitioners with prescribing abilities is an example of how roles have changed in relation to drug therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
7
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following use of a nebuliser unit:
A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.
Q2) Which of the following injections involves drug administration to a highly vascular area of the body?
A) Subcutaneous injection
B) Intradermal injection
C) Intrathecal injection
D) Intramuscular injection
Q3) The shelf life of eye drops after opening the container is:
A) 12 days.
B) 24 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 36 days.
Q4) There is a risk of damage to the large sciatic nerve when administering a drug by intramuscular injection into the gluteus muscle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q3) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:
A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double-checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type A adverse drug reaction is:
A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology of a medication.
Q2) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q3) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture. B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture. D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
Q2) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is: A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q3) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q2) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q2) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q3) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
Q4) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
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16
Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q2) In general,a medicine that acts by chemical or physical means can be identified by its dose,which is considerably higher than that required by medicines that act by interacting with a receptor or enzyme system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q4) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins.The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q2) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q3) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q2) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
Q3) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following principles of emergency management is matched appropriately
A) Life support-gathering as much information as possible about the poison
B) Clinical assessments-ensuring a clear airway, maintaining effective respiration and circulation and addressing fluid or metabolic imbalances
C) Decontamination and detoxification-reducing the amount of poison absorbed
D)Neutralisation and elimination-providing hydration and electrolyte management
Q2) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
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23
Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination
Q2) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q2) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q3) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q2) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
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26
Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\alpha _{1}\) receptor stimulation?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Vasodilation
C) Increased bile secretion
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following adverse events are seen with dopamine administration?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Nausea
D) All of the above
Q3) The second messenger system associated with \(\beta\) -adrenergic receptor stimulation involves the:
A) activation of inositol triphosphate production.
B) inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
C) inhibition of inositol triphosphate production.
D) activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A) Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines
B) Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention
D) Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q2) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q3) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q2) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q2) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q3) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
Q2) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
Q3) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q2) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q4) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) An adverse effect profile of antimuscarinic and antiadrenergic activity and potentially lethal cardiac dysrhythmias is characteristic of which antidepressant drug group?
A) Non-selective MAO inhibitors
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants
Q2) All of the following antidepressants are suitable forms of therapy for a woman with postpartum depression who is breastfeeding,EXCEPT for:
A) paroxetine.
B) fluoxetine.
C) sertraline.
D) fluvoxamine.
Q3) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression.Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sweating
D) Euphoria or drowsiness
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
Q2) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
Q3) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa, increasing distribution to the central nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q3) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) myoclonic seizure.
B) absence seizure.
C) psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q2) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Q3) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q4) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
41
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q2) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q3) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q4) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q5) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q2) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q3) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Q2) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
Q3) Which of the following are not considered good strategies to combat high cholesterol levels and reduce the need for medications?
A)Increasing salt intake
B)Using low- or no-fat dairy products
C)Exercising
D)Increasing consumption of fruits and vegetables
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Endothelin-1
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a person with depression?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Centrally acting agents
C) Angiotensin II antagonists
D) ACE inhibitors
Q3) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a client with constipation?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Centrally-acting agents
C) Angiotensin II antagonists
D) ACE inhibitors
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q2) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q3) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q4) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using aspirin as an antiplatelet agent,how many days before any planned surgery or dental procedures should it be stopped?
A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q2) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q3) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q3) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological change associated with heart failure?
A) Increased myocardial oxygen demand
B) Myocardial remodelling
C) Decreased angiotensin II production
D) Decreased myocardial contractility
Q2) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
Q3) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
Q3) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Q1) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
Q2) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q3) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
Q2) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q3) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%
Q2) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of the respiratory stimulant doxapram?
A)It acts on the medulla.
B)It acts on the cerebellum.
C)It acts in the midbrain.
D)It acts in the cerebral cortex.
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because it can:
A) exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) lead to rebound acidosis.
C) lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) inactivate antimicrobial agents.
Q2) Which of the following pairs of proton pump inhibitors inhibit the cytochrome P450 system and have a number of clinically important drug interactions?
A) Esomeprazole and omeprazole
B) Rabeprazole and lansoprazole
C) Lansoprazole and pantoprazole
D) Esomeprazole and rabeprazole
Q3) Once ingested,how does sucralfate work?
A) It neutralises stomach acid.
B) It slows gastric emptying.
C) It creates a paste-like substance to coat the gastric mucosa.
D) It affects the proton pump.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
Q2) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
Q3) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q4) Treatment of diarrhoea with diphenoxylate may cause:
A) constipation.
B) dysphagia.
C) gastric reflux.
D) increased bowel sounds.
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58
Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
Q2) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
Q2) Which vein might be used for parenteral nutrition?
A) Subclavian
B) Antecubital
C) Basilic
D) Cephalic
Q3) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Q1) A serious adverse effect associated with drugs that act like or stimulate release of endogenous gonadotrophin is:
A) low levels of oestrogens in the blood.
B) ovarian cysts that may rupture.
C) colon cancer.
D) gonadal atrophy.
Q2) Which of the following pituitary hormones is a trophic hormone?
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Luteinising hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q3) Which group of drugs that act on the pituitary are given to prevent premature ovulation associated with assisted reproduction?
A) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonists
B) Partial oestrogen agonists
C) Dopamine agonists
D) Gonadotrophins
Q4) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
61
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q2) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
Q3) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Q1) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q2) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
Q3) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
Q2) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q3) Which one of the following effects is not associated with adrenocorticoid hormones?
A) An increase in blood glucose levels
B) Sodium and water retention
C) The enhancement of immune processes
D) The distribution of body hair
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q2) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q3) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q4) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) Colchicine has NSAID properties,but also has specific mechanisms including ________ to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) an overview of obesity
A) Statistics show 25 per cent of Australian children are obese.
B) The World Health Organization has declared obesity an epidemic.
C) Australia ranks third in obesity, behind New Zealand and the United States.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Q2) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q4) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:
A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.
Q2) Which anti-infective agent would have the highest risk if used in pregnancy?
A) Selected penicillins
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Q3) Individuals with antibiotic-associated colitis should be treated with:
A) codeine.
B) cholestyramine.
C) loperamide.
D) tetracycline.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q2) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered?
A) Once daily
B) Two times a day
C) Three times a day
D) Four times a day
Q2) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q3) An example of a broad-spectrum penicillin is:
A) amoxycillin.
B) clavulanic acid.
C) flucloxacillin.
D) procaine penicillin.
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q2) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:
A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.
Q4) A typical drug combination in the first-line treatment of leprosy is:
A) thalidomide and ofloxacin.
B) minocycline and prednisolone.
C) clofazimine and cycloserine.
D) dapsone and rifampicin.
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?
A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.
Q2) According to the World Health Organization,about how much of the world's population is at risk for contracting malaria?
A) 20 per cent
B) 50 per cent
C) 60 per cent
D) 90 per cent
Q3) An example of an antimalarial agent that alters mitochondrial function is:
A) chloroquine.
B) mefloquine.
C) primaquine.
D) proguanil.
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) The action of reverse transcriptase,the enzyme used by retroviruses,is:
A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.
Q2) Which illnesses can be treated with acyclovir?
A) Herpes simplex I
B) Herpes zoster
C) Varicella
D) All of the above
Q3) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
Q4) Which of the following reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause pancreatitis?
A) Didanosine
B) Zidovudine
C) Delavirdine
D) Nevirapine
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q2) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
Q3) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
Q2) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
Q3) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q4) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Q1) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
Q2) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
Q3) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Q1) SPF 15 sunscreens block about:
A) 94 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 6 per cent penetration.
B) 95 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 5 per cent penetration.
C) 96 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 4 per cent penetration.
D) 97 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 3 per cent penetration.
Q2) Which non-drug product is considered the mainstay of eczema treatment?
A) Colloidal oatmeal
B) Coal tar
C) Emollients
D) Baking soda
Q3) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
Q4) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q5) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
Q2) Which oral medication can cause a disturbance in colour vision?
A)Digoxin
B)Chloroquine
C)Thimerosal
D)Azelastine
Q3) One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:
A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.
Q4) The middle layer of the eye is called the:
A) fibrous tunic.
B) sclera.
C) vascular tunic.
D) choroid.
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q2) Which of the following statements about cranberry are true? Select all that apply.
A) It is safe in pregnancy.
B) Too much can cause renal calculi.
C) Patients should not drink more than 1 litre a day.
D) It is thought to acidify the urine.
Q3) Caffeine may potentiate the effect of ________ in causing insomnia:
A) kava
B) valerian
C) St John's wort
D) ginseng
Q4) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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