Personnel Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Personnel Management explores the foundational concepts and practical approaches involved in managing an organization's human resources. The course examines key areas such as recruitment and selection, training and development, performance appraisal, compensation, employee relations, and legal issues affecting the workplace. Students will gain an understanding of how effective personnel management contributes to organizational success by maximizing employee potential, ensuring compliance with labor laws, and creating a positive work environment. Through case studies and real-world examples, learners will develop the skills necessary for addressing personnel challenges in diverse organizational settings.
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Human Resource Management 10th Edition by Lloyd Byars
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: A Strategic Function
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Q1) Which of the following major HR functions would include building effective teams within the organization?
A)Development
B)Employee and labor relations
C)Research
D)Safety and health
Answer: A
Q2) Explain the term empowerment.
Answer: Empowerment is a form of decentralization that involves giving subordinates substantial authority to make decisions.Under empowerment,managers express confidence in the ability of employees to perform at high levels.Employees are also encouraged to accept personal responsibility for their work.
Q3) The laying off of large numbers of managerial and other employees is known as:
A)downsizing.
B)outsourcing.
C)rightsizing.
D)reengineering.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Equal Employment Opportunity: The Legal Environment
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Q1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 permits women,persons with disabilities,and persons who are religious minorities to have a jury trial and sue for punitive damages if they can prove they are victims of intentional hiring or workplace discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA),eliminates mandatory retirement at age 70 for employees of companies with 20 or more employees.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Disparate treatment refers to unintentional discrimination involving employment practices that appear to be neutral but adversely affect a protected class of people. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Implementing Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the right-to-sue letter?
A)It is a statutory notice issued by the EEOC to the charging party.
B)It is a part of the conciliation agreement sent to the respondents.
C)It is issued by EEOC if it decides to file a lawsuit on behalf of the charging party.
D)It is a document which contains the charges to be filed with the EEOC.
Answer: A
Q2) The charging party must file a civil action suit in the appropriate court within _____ days of receipt of the statutory notice of right to sue.
A)20
B)50
C)90
D)120
Answer: C
Q3) Courts have uniformly held that adverse action against individuals who undergo or announce an intention to undergo sex-change surgery violates Title VII.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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5
Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Job Design
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Q1) Recruitment refers to the process of:
A)learning during which the employees acquire specific skills needed for the job.
B)choosing employees from the available individuals who are most likely to perform successfully in a job.
C)seeking and attracting a pool of people from which qualified candidates can be chosen for job vacancies.
D)introducing new employees to the organization,work unit,and job.
Q2) Define the terms job description and job specification.
Q3) A type of observation method based on taking statistical samples of job actions throughout the workday,as opposed to continuous observation of all actions:
A)Work sampling
B)Time study
C)Motion studies
D)Functional job analysis
Q4) What are the various flexible work arrangements?
Q5) Write a short note on job analysis.
Q6) Explain the observation method of job analysis.
Q7) Explain the terms micromotion,element,and task.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning
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Q1) List various areas that represent specific potential applications for an HRIS.
Q2) Which of the following approaches for reducing human resource costs results in employees being forced to leave the organization?
A)Reclassification
B)Transfer
C)Termination
D)Work sharing
Q3) Discuss the basic steps in the human resource planning process.
Q4) _____ use(s)Web-based communities and hosted services such as social networking sites,blogs,and wikis.
A)Virtualizations
B)Web 2.0
C)Private clouds
D)Application programming interfaces
Q5) A(n)_____ defines the organization's current and future business.
A)HRP
B)operational strategy
C)long-term business plan
D)statement of mission
Q6) Discuss strategy-linked HRP.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Recruiting Employees
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Q1) Job posting and bidding is an external method of recruitment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When recruitment is done from internal sources,it increases the likelihood of employees having inaccurate expectations from the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Professional employer organizations (PEOs)place people in short-term jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally,research in recruiting:
A)has not identified a single best source of recruitment.
B)validates newspaper advertising as consistently effective.
C)confirms employee referrals as a poor source of recruitment.
D)discourages the use self-initiated contacts for recruitment.
Q5) When a temporary help agency is used for recruitment,the agency pays the salary and benefits of the temporary help provided to the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Selecting Employees
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Q1) The Americans with Disabilities Act stipulates that a physical exam cannot be conducted until after a job offer has been extended to a job candidate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While hiring people to fill assembly-line jobs,which of the following tests is most likely to be administered?
A)Perception speed test
B)Verbal-aptitude test
C)Psychomotor test
D)Reasoning test
Q3) The type of validity in which a test is given to current employees and correlated to job performance scores immediately is called:
A)predictive validity.
B)concurrent validity.
C)construct validity.
D)content validity.
Q4) Psychomotor tests measure the job-related knowledge possessed by the applicant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Orientation and Employee Training
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Q1) A needs assessment is a systematic analysis of the specific training activities the organization requires to achieve its objectives.
A)True B)False
Q2) Training objectives should state what impact training will have on the employee and the organization when the training is completed.
A)True B)False
Q3) Training needs must be established first,before training objectives are determined. A)True B)False
Q4) Explain the two distinct levels of orientation.
Q5) A job specification concentrates on describing the job as it is currently being done. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the four areas of evaluation of a training program.
Q7) Outline the steps leading to effective on-the-job training.
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Chapter 9: Management and Organizational Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about a training needs survey?
A)It is expensive
B)It is precise and specific
C)It is easy to validate
D)It has low visibility
Q2) A weakness of lectures is that students are often passive learners.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The incident method is a variation of the case study method.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a common outdoor activity called "The Wall," a team has to get over a 12- to 14-foot structure by working together.The wall is viewed as a symbol for any business challenge.This is an example of which training method?
A)Business simulation
B)Adventure learning
C)Role playing
D)Incident method
Q5) Describe assessment centers.
Q6) Define management development.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Career Development
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Q1) Who is responsible for career planning?
Q2) Explain why career planning is necessary.
Q3) Which of the following is true about career development versus career planning?
A)Career development is the process by which an individual formulates career goals and develops a plan for reaching those goals.
B)Career development looks at careers through the eyes of individual employees.
C)Career development and career planning should reinforce each other.
D)Career planning looks at individual careers from the viewpoint of the organization.
Q4) In the context of the four principal career categories,the term _____ denotes individuals whose present performance is satisfactory but whose chance for future advancement is small.These people make up the bulk of the employees in most organizations.
A)deadwood
B)learners
C)solid citizens
D)stars
Q5) Explain why it is necessary for employees to review career progress.
Q6) List five career-related myths held by employees.
Q7) What is outplacement?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Performance Management Systems
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Q1) The most common practice in the checklist method of performance appraisals requires the evaluator to rank a set of statements describing how an employee carries out the duties and responsibilities of the job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following employee ranking systems assumes the performance level in a group of employees will be distributed according to a bell-shaped,or "normal," curve?
A)Forced distribution
B)Free determination
C)Paired comparison
D)Alternation
Q3) Generally,one of the responsibilities of managers in performance appraisals is to maintain a reporting system to ensure that appraisals are conducted on a timely basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the essay performance appraisal.
Q5) Describe potential errors in performance appraisals.
Q6) Describe ways of overcoming errors in performance appraisals.
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Chapter 12: The Organizational Reward System
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Q1) The Davis-Bacon Act was passed in 1931.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ theory of motivation holds that employees have a strong need to maintain a balance between what they perceive as their inputs to their jobs and what they receive from their jobs in the form of rewards.
A)intrinsic
B)extrinsic
C)comparable worth
D)equity
Q3) All the following are reasons that rewards-to-performance practices are not more widespread EXCEPT that:
A)union contracts often require that rewards be based on totally objective variables.
B)the practice of rewards-to-performance lacks evidence of practical benefit to companies.
C)discipline is required to facilitate such practices.
D)across-the-board allocation of rewards is simple and popular among administrators.
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Chapter 13: Base Wage and Salary Systems
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Q1) The _____ method of determining job value is objective and quantitative.
A)ranking
B)job classification
C)point
D)factor comparison
Q2) The most widely acknowledged shortcoming of wage and salary surveys is that it is difficult to find jobs that are directly comparable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most wage and salary systems establish pay ranges for jobs based on the relative worth of the job to the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between skill-based pay and competency-based pay.
Q5) What is the primary objective of any wage and salary system?
Q6) What is the purpose of wage and salary surveys?
Q7) List the possible topics to be included in a wage survey.
Q8) Describe the point method of job evaluation.
Q9) What is the job ranking method?
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Chapter 14: Incentive Pay Systems
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Q1) Which of the following generally refers to incentive plans that involve employees in a common effort to achieve the company's productivity objectives,based on the concept that the resulting incremental economic gains are shared among employees and the company?
A)Gain sharing
B)Organizationwide incentives
C)Scanlon-type plans
D)Employee stock ownership plans
Q2) Stock option plans are generally designed to give managers an option to buy company stock at a variable price.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Top management executives constitute the vast majority of private-sector employees who hold stock options.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the major issues related to the executive pay controversy.
Q5) What is the primary advantage of an individual incentive plan? Also identify a related disadvantage.
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Chapter 15: Employee Benefits
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Q1) Major categories of benefits include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)retirement-related.
B)insurance-related.
C)legally required.
D)payment for time worked.
Q2) Common insurance-related employee benefits include:
A)social security.
B)retirement gratuity.
C)survivor benefits.
D)annuity plans.
Q3) Private pension plans can be funded solely by the organization or jointly by the organization and the employee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although it is sometimes extended,unemployment compensation usually expires after:
A)12 months.
B)12 weeks.
C)26 weeks.
D)30 days.
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Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health
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Q1) Wellness programs are company-implemented programs designed to prevent illness and enhance employee wellness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss what work/life programs and wellness programs are.
Q3) In most organizations,safety and accident prevention receive far more attention than employee health.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the common sources and suggested causes of job-related stress?
A)The threat of job loss is due to job demands skills or abilities that the employee does not possess.
B)Conflicting expectations involve situations where the employee is uncertain or unclear about how to perform on the job.
C)The requirements of the job may unnecessarily produce pacing problems,social isolation,and so forth,leading to fear and/or responsibility.
D)Role overload occurs when the employee is incompetent at his/her job.
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Chapter 17: Employee Relations
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Q1) What are the steps in the disciplinary process?
Q2) Explain what is meant by just cause.
Q3) Arbitrator impartiality is reflected in:
A)the even sharing of the arbitrator's fee by the company and the union.
B)subjecting the arbitrator to frequent audits.
C)making sure that the arbitrator has never ruled on a similar case.
D)selecting arbitrators who have been both union workers and managers.
Q4) Describe employment at will.
Q5) Explain what is meant by due process.
Q6) The disciplinary process includes all of the following steps EXCEPT:
A)negotiating employer/employee agreement on proper behavior.
B)communicating performance requirements and work rules.
C)applying corrective action.
D)establishing performance requirements and work rules.
Q7) When an employee has a complaint against management,the employee normally uses the organization's disciplinary procedure to resolve the problem.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the duty of fair representation.
Page 19
Q9) Describe grievance procedures.
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Chapter 18: The Legal Environment and Structure of Labor
Unions
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Q1) An injunction prohibits an employer from hiring anyone other than a union member.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ made yellow-dog contracts unenforceable and severely restricted the use of injunctions.
A)Railway Labor Act
B)Norris-La Guardia Act
C)Wagner Act
D)Taft-Hartley Act
Q3) A condition prohibiting an employer from hiring anyone other than a union member is called a:
A)collective agreement.
B)lockout.
C)closed shop.
D)right-to-work provision.
Q4) The Civil Service Reform Act was the first important piece of prolabor legislation in the United States.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 19: Union Organizing Campaigns and Collective Bargaining
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Q1) Strikes and lockouts are two names for the same type of job action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A form of bargaining in which several unions bargain jointly with a single employer is known as:
A)coordinated bargaining.
B)good-faith bargaining.
C)Gissel bargaining.
D)group bargaining.
Q3) Good-faith bargaining consists of sincere intentions of both parties,labor and management,to negotiate differences and reach a mutually acceptable agreement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the terms lockout,strike,and checkoff
Q5) The Federal Labor Relations Authority does for the federal government what the NLRB does in the private sector.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the various restrictions placed on soliciting support for the unions.
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