Perioperative Practice
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Perioperative Practice is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills required for safe and effective patient care before, during, and after surgical procedures. Emphasizing interdisciplinary teamwork, the course covers patient assessment, preparation, infection control, anesthesia considerations, surgical techniques, and post-operative monitoring. Students will explore evidence-based practices, ethical considerations, and the use of technology in the operating room, preparing them to support surgical teams and ensure positive patient outcomes in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following membership organizations would the circulating RN in the operating room likely join as a member?
A) ACS
B) AMA
C) AAMI
D) AORN
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following pioneers of medicine and surgery first developed techniques for surgical antisepsis?
A) Billroth
B) Galen
C) Halsted
D) Lister
Answer: D
Q3) AST's mission statement is, "Enhancing the profession to ensure quality patient care."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel?
A) civil
B) criminal
C) federal
D) statutory
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following pertains to a patient's wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate?
A) advance directive
B) deposition
C) informed consent
D) sentinel event
Answer: A
Q3) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a normal human emotion that surgical team members may feel for their patients, but must not interfere with their abilities to maintain focus on their jobs, particularly in all-hazards situations?
A) empathy
B) eustress
C) repression
D) reconciliation
Answer: A
Q2) The patient statement " I know I will be in a better place" is part of:
A) a coping mechanism
B) the hierarchy of needs
C) a physiological stressor
D) the acceptance stage of grief
Answer: D
Q3) For what type of research was Sister Callista Roy best known?
A) adaptation model
B) hierarchy of needs
C) patient care partnership
D) five stages of grief
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common response of pediatric patients to injury and may result in gastric dilatation?
A) assuming a fetal position
B) hyperventilation
C) projectile vomiting
D) syncope and collapse
Q2) Enlargement of the spleen, which may result in debilitating fevers
A)Torticollis
B)Glasgow Coma Scale
C)Adolescent
D)Septic
E)CVP line
F)Splenomegaly
G)PTSD
H)Hypovolemic
I)Diabetic retinopathy
J)Myocardial hypertrophy
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6
Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?
A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring
Q2) Locker rooms, administrative offices, and the departmental main desk are examples of semirestricted areas in the OR suite.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 10 cm
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Programs that operate a computer system; includes Internet access and word processing
A)Internet
B)Modern
C)Electrons
D)Alternating
E)Font
F)Insulator
G)Resistance
H)Software
I)Power
J)Ground
K)Port
L)Matter
M)Battery
N)Hardware
O)Scanner
Q2) The bipolar mode of the ESU can be used only to cut tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?
A) ammonia
B) bleach
C) peroxide
D) vinegar
Q2) Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed:
A) saturation
B) strike-through
C) solubilization
D) sequestration
Q3) The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:
A) DART
B) Bowie-Dick
C) Bacillus atrophaeus
D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
Q4) Sterilization process monitors include mechanical, chemical, and biological methods to ensure all parameters were met.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are chemical agents EXCEPT:
A) nerve
B) mustard gas
C) phosgene
D) tularemia
Q2) All of the following are examples of man-made disasters EXCEPT:
A) chemical or radiation release
B) hurricane
C) infrastructure incidents
D) transportation accidents
Q3) What does the letter D stand for in reference to the chain-of-survival concept in cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A) death reduction
B) definitive treatment
C) depth of compression
D) destination planning
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic processing of a drug within the body; includes absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion
A)Induction agents
B)Ringer's solution
C)Volatile agents
D)Pharmacokinetics
E)Narcotic antagonists
F)Histamine antagonists
G)Indications
H)Calibrations
I)Depolarizing agents
J)Benzodiazepines
K)Over-the-counter
L)Inhalation agents
M)Pharmacodynamics
N)Drug actions
O)Fresh frozen plasma
Q2) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the intestines in a laparotomy?
A) Baron
B) Frazier
C) Poole
D) Yankauer
Q2) What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item?
A) radiofrequency
B) radiographic
C) radiolucent
D) radiopaque
Q3) Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical dressing?
A) one-layer
B) pressure
C) rigid
D) three-layer
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is CORRECT regarding monofilament sutures?
A) They have high capillarity.
B) They cause increased tissue drag.
C) They are braided, twisted, and coated.
D) They may be used in infected wounds.
Q2) Which organization specifies diameter ranges for sutures?
A) American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B) Brown and Sharpe (B&S)
C) U.S.Pharmacopeia (USP)
D) U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Q3) How will the surgeon manipulate skin edges of a wound before the surgical technologist places an approximating skin staple?
A) evert the edges outward
B) invert the edges inward
C) overlap the edges tightly
D) rotate the edges slightly
Q4) The tensile strength of suture material should equal the tensile strength of the tissue into which suture is placed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?
A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.
B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.
D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of blunt dissection of tissue?
A) Gloved finger against tissue.
B) Dissection sponge (peanut)
C) Surgeon and assistant pull open peritoneum bilaterally.
D) Endo Shears are used through laparoscopic trocar to separate tissue.
Q3) In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?
A) dentures
B) hearing aids
C) nail polish
D) makeup
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Real-time radiographic imaging that allows the actions of joints or organs to be viewed directly
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
Q2) What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?
A) electroencephalography
B) nuclear medicine
C) capnography
D) spirometry
Q3) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cholangiography, bubbles in the contrast media would likely:
A) cause a pulmonary embolus
B) give the appearance of a stone on x-ray
C) pass undetected through the biliary system
D) rupture the cystic duct from pressure exerted during injection
Q2) Which type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids?
A) anoscope
B) colonoscope
C) laparoscope
D) sigmoidoscope
Q3) Conversion from a laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure is always a possibility that the surgical technologist should be prepared for.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III-b
D) Stage IV
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pistol-grip type of instrument might be found in a D&C tray for cervical biopsy?
A) Kerrison
B) pituitary
C) Takahashi
D) Tischler
Q2) How many stages of labor and delivery does the patient go through?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q3) What is the preferred method of anesthesia for a cesarean section delivery?
A) Bier block
B) epidural
C) general
D) spinal
Q4) Adhesion formation is a normal physiologic inflammatory response to abdominal surgery that cannot be prevented or minimized.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the condition of the lens that is treated by cataract extraction?
A) abraded
B) detached
C) lacerated
D) opacified
Q3) Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?
A) chalazion repair
B) dacryocystorhinostomy
C) entropian repair
D) recession/resection
Q4) Which procedure surgically treats glaucoma?
A) enucleation
B) iridectomy
C) keratoplasty
D) scleral buckle
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the paranasal sinuses are numerous, small, and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes?
A) ethmoid
B) frontal
C) maxillary
D) sphenoid
Q2) Which gas can cause expansion of the middle ear and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?
A) argon
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrous oxide
D) oxygen
Q3) In myringotomy procedures, what does "PE" stand for?
A) pus exudate
B) partial expulsion
C) pressure equalizing
D) peripheral examination
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of nonabsorbable maxillofacial implant used in fracture fixation is lightweight, noncorrosive, and strong?
A) copper
B) plastic
C) titanium
D) tungsten
Q2) Surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion?
A) jaw
B) nose
C) orbit
D) palate
Q3) Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dermis and epidermis are components of which body system?
A) cardiovascular
B) integumentary
C) musculoskeletal
D) respiratory
Q2) Abdominoplasty procedures cannot be performed on patients who have undergone cesarean sections, due to excessive adhesions in the lower abdomen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:
A) epinephrine
B) mineral oil
C) phenylephrine
D) thrombin
Q4) Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?
A) blepharoplasty
B) cheiloplasty
C) mentoplasty
D) rhytidectomy
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males?
A) rectum
B) prostate
C) scrotum
D) symphysis pubis
Q2) What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant?
A) cooling with Collins solution or ice slush
B) spraying with reconstituted topical thrombin
C) warming with sterile isotonic saline solution
D) infusion with warmed lactated Ringer's solution
Q3) Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?
A) hydrocelectomy
B) orchiectomy
C) TURBT
D) TURP
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?
A) flat
B) irregular
C) long
D) short
Q2) Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?
A) above knee amputation (AKA)
B) below knee amputation (BKA)
C) bunionectomy
D) triple arthrodesis
Q3) Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?
A) cushioning
B) lubrication
C) nutrition
D) stability
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus?
A) Bailey
B) Doyen
C) Mixter
D) Sarot
Q2) How many pulmonary veins are there?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q3) What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction?
A) hilum
B) mediastinum
C) pleural space
D) pericardial window
Q4) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time?
A) femoral
B) iliac
C) popliteal
D) radial
Q2) Unpaired artery arising anteriorly from aorta just above the bifurcation; supplies lower abdominal organs
A)Aortic bodies
B)Superior mesenteric
C)Left common carotid
D)Thoracic
E)Vascular clamp
F)Inferior mesenteric
G)Vasa vasorum
H)Abdominal
I)Vena cava
J)External iliac
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) From which area is an autologous bone graft usually procured for anterior cervical fusion procedures?
A) fibula
B) cervical spinous process
C) iliac crest
D) lumbar spinous process
Q2) What is the largest part of the human brain?
A) brain stem
B) cerebellum
C) cerebrum
D) diencephalon
Q3) What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?
A) atlas
B) axis
C) cauda equine
D) odontoid
Q4) Herniated nucleus pulposus is a congenital disorder that must be treated surgically in the neonate to prevent quadriplegia.
A)True
B)False
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