Perinatal Nursing Exam Preparation Guide - 812 Verified Questions

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Perinatal Nursing Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Perinatal Nursing focuses on the care of women and their families throughout pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course covers topics such as maternal and fetal assessment, labor and delivery management, pain relief options, complications during the perinatal period, and newborn care. Special emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, patient education, family-centered care, and cultural competence. Students will develop skills necessary to provide holistic and safe nursing interventions, recognize and manage common and complex perinatal challenges, and support the physical and emotional needs of parents and infants.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray

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27 Chapters

812 Verified Questions

812 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today

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24 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which nursing intervention is written correctly?

A) Force fluids as necessary.

B) Observe interaction with the infant.

C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.

D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.

Answer: D

Q2) The patient makes the statement: "I'm afraid to take the baby home tomorrow."

Which response by the nurse would be the most therapeutic?

A) "You're afraid to take the baby home?"

B) "Don't you have a mother who can come and help?"

C) "You should read the literature I gave you before you leave."

D) "I was scared when I took my first baby home, but everything worked out."

Answer: A

Q3) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse?

A) Administering oral analgesics

B) Requesting diagnostic studies

C) Teaching the patient perineal care

D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is working with an active labor patient who is in preterm labor and has been designated as high risk. The patient is very apprehensive and asks the nurse, "Is everything going to be all right?" The nurse replies, "Yes, everything will be okay."

Following delivery via an emergency cesarean birth, the newborn undergoes resuscitation and does not survive. The patient is distraught over the outcome and blames the nurse for telling her that everything would be okay. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?

A) Autonomy

B) Fidelity

C) Beneficence

D) Accountability

Answer: B

Q2) While teaching an Asian patient regarding prenatal care, the nurse notes that the patient refuses to make eye contact. Which is the most likely cause for this behavior?

A) A submissive attitude

B) Lack of understanding

C) Embarrassment about the subject

D) Cultural beliefs about eye contact

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postpartum patient who has had a vaginal birth asks the nurse, "I was wondering if my cervix will return to its previous shape before I had the baby?" Which is the best response by the nurse?

A) The cervix will now have a slit-like shape.

B) The cervix will be round and smooth after healing occurs.

C) The cervix will remain 50% effaced now that you have had a baby.

D) The cervix will be slightly dilated to 2 cm for about 6 months.

Answer: A

Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?

A) Maturation of ova

B) Production of sperm

C) Female breast development

D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching prenatal patients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A) Elimination of use of alcohol

B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement

C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic patient with insulin

D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy

E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8°C (100°F) or higher

Q2) The nurse receives report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. Which additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?

A) Cleft palate

B) Protruding tongue

C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)

D) Intellectual developmental delay

Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%

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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) An expectant mother, diagnosed with oligohydramnios, asks the nurse what this condition means for the baby. Which statement should the nurse provide for the patient?

A) Oligohydramnios can cause poor fetal lung development.

B) Oligohydramnios means that the fetus is excreting excessive urine.

C) Oligohydramnios could mean that the fetus has a gastrointestinal blockage.

D) Oligohydramnios is associated with fetal central nervous system abnormalities.

Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant patient. Which statement indicates to the nurse that further clarification is necessary?

A) "My baby gets oxygen from the placenta."

B) "The placenta functions to help excrete waste products."

C) "The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta."

D) "The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby."

Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?

A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum

B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division

C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge

D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum

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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient in her 37th week of pregnancy for the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears. Which psychological responses should the nurse expect to evaluate? (Select all that apply.)

A) The patient is excited to see her baby.

B) The patient has not started to prepare the nursery for the new baby.

C) The patient expresses concern about how to know if labor has started.

D) The patient and her spouse are concerned about getting to the birth center in time.

E) The patient and her spouse have not discussed how they will share household tasks.

Q2) An expectant patient in her third trimester reports that she developed a strong tie to her baby from the beginning and now is really in tune to her baby's temperament. The nurse interprets this as the development of which maternal task of pregnancy?

A) Learning to give of herself

B) Developing attachment with the baby

C) Securing acceptance of the baby by others

D) Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby

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8

Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?

A) Avoidance of an episiotomy

B) Determining the outcome of the birth

C) Assuming complete control of the situation

D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience

Q2) What is the rationale for a woman in her first trimester of pregnancy to expect to visit her health care provider every 4 weeks?

A) Problems can be eliminated.

B) She develops trust in the health care team.

C) Her questions about labor can be answered.

D) The conditions of the expectant mother and fetus can be monitored.

Q3) Which is the method of childbirth that helps prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle by using slow abdominal breathing in early labor and rapid chest breathing in advanced labor?

A) Bradley

B) Lamaze

C) Leboyer

D) Dick-Read

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9

Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?

A) Before pregnancy

B) In the first trimester

C) In the third trimester

D) In the second trimester

Q2) A pregnant patient's diet may not meet her need for folate. Which food choice is an excellent source of this nutrient?

A) Chicken

B) Cheese

C) Potatoes

D) Green leafy vegetables

Q3) A pregnant patient would like to know which foods, other than dairy products, contain the most calcium. Which food group would the nurse recommend?

A) Legumes

B) Lean meat

C) Whole grains

D) Yellow vegetables

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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus

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Sample Questions

Q1) A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when she got pregnant. Scheduling an ultrasound is a standing prescription for the patient's health care provider. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient's ultrasound?

A) Immediately

B) In 2 weeks

C) In 4 weeks

D) In 6 weeks

Q2) For which patient would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered abnormal?

A) A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation

B) A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes

C) A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term

D) An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term

Q3) Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?

A) Biophysical profile

B) Multiple-marker screening

C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio

D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate

A) gastrointestinal upset.

B) effects of magnesium sulfate.

C) anxiety caused by hospitalization.

D) worsening disease and impending convulsion.

Q2) Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?

A) Magnesium sulfate

B) Delivery of the fetus

C) Antihypertensive medications

D) Administration of aspirin (ASA) every day of the pregnancy

Q3) A laboratory finding indicative of DIC is one that shows

A) decreased fibrinogen.

B) increased platelets.

C) increased hematocrit.

D) decreased thromboplastin time.

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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of healthy grieving?

A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.

B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.

C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.

D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."

Q2) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?

A) Home schooling

B) Alternative education program

C) School-based mothers' program

D) Continuing mainstream high school classes

Q3) Which action should the nurse take when counseling a teenaged patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?

A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.

B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.

C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.

D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.

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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?

A) On her back

B) On her left side

C) On her right side

D) On her hands and knees

Q2) The nurse assesses a laboring patient's contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 seconds, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern?

A) Stage 1, latent phase

B) Stage 2, latent phase

C) Stage 1, active phase

D) Stage 2, active phase

Q3) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent during labor?

A) A full bladder

B) Decreased peristalsis

C) Rupture of membranes

D) Reduction in internal uterine size

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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth

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39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management is A) a more rapid labor is likely.

B) more complete pain relief is possible.

C) the woman remains fully alert at all times.

D) there are no side effects or risks to the fetus.

Q2) A patient in labor reports a feeling of burning pain during the second stage of labor. This type of pain is associated with A) visceral pain.

B) tissue ischemia.

C) somatic pain.

D) cervical dilation.

Q3) Childbirth pain is different from other types of pain in that it is A) less intense.

B) associated with a physiologic process.

C) more responsive to pharmacologic management.

D) designed to make one withdraw from the stimulus.

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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance

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38 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the position of a fetus in a cephalic presentation is right occiput anterior, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate in which quadrant of the maternal abdomen?

A) Right upper

B) Left upper

C) Right lower

D) Left lower

Q2) Which statement correctly describes the nurse's responsibility related to electronic monitoring?

A) Report abnormal findings to the physician before initiating corrective actions.

B) Teach the woman and her support person about the monitoring equipment and discuss any of their questions.

C) Document the frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions measured by the external device.

D) Inform the support person that the nurse will be responsible for all comfort measures when the electronic equipment is in place.

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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a patient in labor who is considered to be at low risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

A) Check the DTR each shift.

B) Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor.

C) Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns.

D) Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done.

E) Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor.

Q2) The nurse notes that a patient who has given birth 1 hour ago is touching her infant with her fingertips and talking to him softly in high-pitched tones. Based on this observation, which action should the nurse take?

A) Request a social service consult for psychosocial support.

B) Observe for other signs that the mother may not be accepting of the infant.

C) Document this evidence of normal early maternal-infant attachment behavior.

D) Determine whether the mother is too fatigued to interact normally with her infant.

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17

Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) A labor patient has been diagnosed with cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) following attempts at pushing for 2 hours with no progress. Based on this information, which birth method is most appropriate?

A) Vaginal birth with vacuum extraction

B) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) to improve contraction pattern and strengthen contractions

C) Cesarean section

D) Insertion of Foley catheter into empty bladder to provide more room for fetal descent

Q2) Emergency measures used in the treatment of a prolapsed cord include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Administration of oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 L/minute

B) Maternal change of position to knee-chest

C) Administration of tocolytic agent

D) Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin)

E) Vaginal elevation

F) Insertion of cord back into vaginal area

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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which measure is optimal in order to prevent abdominal distention following a cesarean birth?

A) Rectal suppositories

B) Carbonated beverages

C) Early and frequent ambulation

D) Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles

Q2) Which situation would require the administration of Rho(D) immune globulin?

A) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive

B) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative

C) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive

D) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative

Q3) The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?

A) Pulse rate of 50

B) Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)

C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia

D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position

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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which information should the nurse recognize as contributing to mastitis in the breastfeeding mother? (Select all that apply.)

A) Insufficient emptying

B) Feeding every 2 hours

C) Supplementing feedings

D) Blisters on both nipples

E) Alternating breastfeeding positions

Q2) If the nurse suspects a complication of a low forceps birth labor, she should immediately

A) administer a strong oral analgesic.

B) assess the perineal and vaginal areas.

C) assess the position of the uterine fundus.

D) review the labor record for duration of second stage.

Q3) Which nursing measure would be most appropriate to prevent thrombophlebitis in the recovery period following a cesarean birth?

A) Limit the patient's oral intake of fluids for the first 24 hours.

B) Assist the patient in performing leg exercises every 2 hours.

C) Ambulate the patient as soon as her vital signs are stable.

D) Roll a bath blanket and place it firmly behind the patient's knees.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A multiparous patient arrives to the labor unit and urgently states, "The baby is coming RIGHT NOW!" The nurse assists the patient into a comfortable position and delivers the infant. To prevent infant heat loss from conduction, what is the priority nursing action?

A) Dry the baby off.

B) Turn up the temperature in the patient's room.

C) Pour warmed water over the baby immediately after birth.

D) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen after the cord is cut.

Q2) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least likely to develop?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Respiratory distress

C) Infection

D) Jaundice

Q3) The infant's heat loss immediately at birth is predominantly from A) radiation.

B) conduction.

C) convection.

D) evaporation.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)

A) Low-set ears

B) Yellow sclera

C) A doll's eye sign

D) Edema of the eyelids

E) Absence of the grasp reflex

Q2) The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a newborn and notes retractions, nasal flaring, and tachypnea. The nurse will continue to perform a focused assessment on which system?

A) Respiratory

B) Cardiovascular

C) Gastrointestinal

D) Musculoskeletal

Q3) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?

A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute

B) Cyanosis of the extremities

C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds

D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations

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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student has been caring for a patient and newborn all morning. After taking the newborn to the nursery for hearing screening, the student is returning the infant to his mother. Which procedure is correct for identifying the newborn?

A) Ask the mother to state her name and the name of her infant.

B) Call out the mother's full name before leaving the infant with her.

C) Have the mother read her printed band number and verify that it matches the infant's number.

D) Return the infant with no special procedure because the student knows the mother and infant.

Q2) During a prenatal education class regarding infant home care, the nurse is reviewing the simulated setting created by new mothers for putting the baby to bed. Which observation indicates to the nurse that the new mothers understood the nurse's teaching about infant safety?

A) The crib is lined with a bumper pad.

B) Stuffed animals are placed in the crib.

C) The baby mannequin is in the supine position.

D) The baby mannequin is covered with a handmade quilt.

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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A breastfeeding patient who was discharged yesterday calls to ask about a tender hard area on her right breast. What should the nurse's first response be?

A) "This is a normal response in breastfeeding mothers."

B) "Notify your doctor so he can start you on antibiotics."

C) "Stop breastfeeding because you probably have an infection."

D) "Try massaging the area and apply heat; it is probably a plugged duct."

Q2) A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum because it is not "real milk." The nurse's best answer includes which information?

A) Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.

B) Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals.

C) Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula.

D) Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breast-feed before she goes home.

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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants is most accurate?

A) They weigh more than 3500 G

B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.

C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.

D) Postmaturity syndrome is the most common complication.

Q2) An infant presents with lethargy in the newborn nursery on the second day of life. On further examination, vital signs are stable and muscle tone is slightly decreased, with sluggish reflexes noted. Other physical characteristics are noted as being normal. Lab tests reveal a decreased hematocrit and increased blood sugar. The nurse suspects that the infant may be exhibiting signs and symptoms of A) RDS.

B) PIVH.

C) BPD.

D) ROP.

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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shortly after a cesarean birth, a newborn begins to exhibit difficulty breathing. Nasal flaring and slight retractions are noted. The newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for closer observation, with a diagnosis of transient tachypnea of the neonate (TTN). The parents are notified and become anxious because they have no understanding of what this means for their infant. The best action that the nurse can take at this time is to

A) refer them to the neonatologist for more information.

B) reassure them not to worry. The infant will be monitored closely by trained staff.

C) explain to them that this often occurs following a birth and it will most likely resolve in the next 24 to 48 hours.

D) tell them that they will be able to come and see their baby, which will help make calm their anxiety.

Q2) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of A) a lack of surfactant.

B) hypoinflation of the lungs.

C) inadequate absorption of fetal lung fluid.

D) a delayed vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Family Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) The major difference between the diaphragm and the cervical cap is that the diaphragm

A) is more effective.

B) requires spermicide.

C) applies pressure on the urethra.

D) has no contribution to toxic shock syndrome.

Q2) Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important since some of the methods

A) may not be reliable.

B) require a surgical procedure to insert.

C) have potentially dangerous side effects.

D) are invasive procedures that require hospitalization.

Q3) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?

A) Requires extensive education to use

B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use

C) Costs the least

D) Is permanent

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Chapter 26: Infertility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is

A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).

B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).

C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).

D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).

Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?

A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy

B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor

C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation

D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy

Q3) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is A) "You should confront him about this."

B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."

C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."

D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."

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28

Chapter 27: Womens Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which specific instruction should the nurse teach to assist a patient to regain control of her urinary sphincter?

A) Perform Kegel exercises.

B) Void every hour while awake.

C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.

Q2) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include

A) initiating hormone therapy.

B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.

C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.

D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.

Q3) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?

A) Kidneys

B) Bones and liver

C) Heart and blood vessels

D) Skin

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