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Performance Management is a course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the strategies and processes used to assess, improve, and sustain employee and organizational performance. The course covers key topics such as goal setting, performance appraisals, feedback mechanisms, coaching, and development plans. Students will explore the alignment of individual objectives with organizational goals, the role of motivation and reward systems, and the legal and ethical considerations in managing performance. Through case studies, practical exercises, and current best practices, students will develop the skills necessary to design and implement effective performance management systems that drive organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 12th Edition by
John M Ivancevich
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Q1) When an organization is really concerned about people,its total philosophy,culture,and orientation will reflect this belief.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Identify five contributions that HRM makes to organizational effectiveness.Helping the organization reach its goals is an example.
Answer: Any five of the following.(a)Using the skills and abilities of the workforce efficiently.(b)Providing well-trained and motivated employees.(c)Helping employees achieve job satisfaction and self-actualization.
(d)Developing and maintaining a quality of work life that makes employment in the organization desirable.(e)Communicating HRM policies to all employees.(f)Helping to maintain ethical policies and socially responsible behavior.(g)Managing change to the mutual advantage of individuals,groups,the enterprise,and the public.
Q3) Satisfied employees are automatically more productive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Institutions that are museums,symphony orchestras,private schools and colleges,not-for-profit hospitals and nursing homes,and voluntary organizations such as churches and social clubs are considered to be in the ____________.
A) second sector
B) third sector
C) the "other sector"
D) None of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) Effective groups generally have all of the following except:
A) Stable membership
B) Members with similar backgrounds
C) Dictatorial leaders
D) Persons who depend on the group to satisfy their needs
Answer: C
Q3) Why does regulation encourage simplistic thinking on complicated issues?
Answer: Because small enterprises are treated like large ones and different industries are regulated alike.
Q4) What are the four stages of product development?
Answer: Conception,design,development,and manufacturing.
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Q1) The EEOC _____________________________.
A) has the power to bring lawsuits against employers in federal court
B) has the power to issue directly enforceable orders
C) may place leans on the properties of employers that it has found in violation
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Why did the Supreme Court find that the University of Michigan Law School could continue its consideration of race in the admissions while the University's undergraduate program was not?
Answer: The undergraduate program used a rigid point system while the Law school considered race as one of many criteria and did not use a specific point system.
Q3) Griggs v.Duke Power Company helped establish the concept of A) disparate treatment
B) disparate impact
C) non-equal treatment
D) business necessity
Answer: B
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Q1) Some experts suggest,that _____________ is the single most important aid the expatriate has for dealing with the multitude of business challenges that await.
A) prior international experience
B) inner awareness
C) technical skill
D) fluency in the host country's language
Q2) What kinds of things can a company do to motivate employees to take and do well in overseas assignments?
Q3) An employee from Canada who is employed by an American firm to work in their plant in Mexico is called a host country national.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recruitment ads should be written in ways that are consistent with the language and customs of the company's home office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the single greatest HR challenge facing any globally oriented corporation?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organizations have increased their use of contingent workers due to all of the following except:
A) Intense global competition
B) Rapid technological change
C) Fears caused by recent workforce reductions
D) Higher wages of contingent workers
Q2) The acknowledgment that HR policies and practices have critical linkages with an organization's overall strategy is generally termed ______________.
A) human resource plan
B) human resource master plan
C) human resource strategic plan
D) strategic human resource management
Q3) ___________ refers to an organization's decision about what it wants to accomplish (its mission)and how it wants to go about accomplishing it.
A) Planning
B) Mission Planning
C) Strategic Planning
D) Visioning
Q4) What are the costs of identity theft to a typical victim?
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Q1) All of the following are dimensions on which PAQ ratings are scored except:
A) Decision making
B) Social responsibilities
C) Operating vehicles or equipment
D) Performing unskilled activities
Q2) The FJA was originally conceived in the late _______.
A) 1930s
B) 1940s
C) 1960s
D) 1970s
Q3) Job analysis provides answers to all of the following questions except:
A) which candidate should be hired for a position.
B) what kind of behaviors are needed to perform a job.
C) how much time is taken to complete a task.
D) which tasks are grouped together and considered a job
Q4) The cornerstone of any organization is the human resources department.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does job enrichment differ from job enlargement?
Q6) Identify four hints for making a questionnaire easier to use.
Page 8
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Q1) Most executive search firms are ______,which means that the organization pays them a fee whether or not their efforts are successful.
A) on retainer
B) under contract
C) on commission
D) independent contractors
Q2) The differences between executive search firms and employment agencies include:
A) Employment agencies typically are paid more than search firms.
B) Search firms concentrate their efforts for managerial positions with salaries in excess of $50,000.
C) Employment agencies typically work on retainer.
D) All of the above.
Q3) When recruiting,referrals should be used __________,especially if the workforce is already racially or culturally imbalanced.
A) predominately
B) rarely
C) cautiously
D) in direct proportion to the incumbent workforce
Q4) List four items that government agencies can and do review.
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Q1) _______________ is the process by which an organization chooses from a list of applicants the person who best meets the selection criteria for the position available.
A) Selection
B) Rotation
C) Definition
D) Filtering
Q2) __________ refers to how stable or repeatable a measurement is over a variety of testing conditions.
A) Evaluation stability
B) Validity
C) Redundancy
D) Reliability
Q3) ____ items are based on an assumption that these prior behaviors and experiences will be strongly related to an applicant's future behavior.
A) BBI
B) BIB
C) BDI
D) DBI
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Q1) If a supervisor lets another employee's performance influence the ratings that are given to someone else,then a ________ has occurred.
A) halo effect
B) contrast effect
C) recency of events error
D) central tendency error
Q2) Why were forced-choice evaluation methods developed?
Q3) Recent efforts to improve performance evaluations have centered on helping raters more accurately _______________ behavior.
A) observe
B) recall
C) observe and report
D) observe,recall,and report
Q4) Training programs that focus on observation and recording skills offer fewer improvements in rating accuracy than those that simply focus on errors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are TQM and MBO incompatible?
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Q1) Why do some managers believe that paying higher wages and salaries is the best policy in the long term?
Q2) When filing a claim under the Equal Pay Act,all the plaintiff has to do is to prove that _____ making more for doing the same job.
A) one man
B) one woman
C) one man or one woman
D) the average man
Q3) About 92 percent of nonsupervisory farm workers are covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ developed a model based on equity theory to help explain dissatisfaction and satisfaction with pay.
A) Edward Lawler
B) Fredrick Herzberg
C) Adam Smith
D) Walsh and Healy
Q5) Essentially three pay-level strategies can be chosen.Describe these strategies.
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Q1) Managers take the role of Idea coordinators in which form of gainsharing plan?
A) Lincoln Electric
B) Scanlon
C) Rucker
D) InfoShare
Q2) In a unionized firm where wages are established by collective bargaining,a particular job is usually assigned a single,flat rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Commonly used organization wide gainsharing plans include all of the following except:
A) Lincoln Electric
B) Scanlon
C) Rucker
D) InfoShare
Q4) ImproShare ties economic rewards to performance __________________.
A) based on employee participation
B) without any attempt at meaningful participation by employees.
C) based upon implementation of employee suggestions
D) using the same linkages developed in the Taylor plan
Page 13
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Q1) ___________ accounts provide funds from which employees pay for expenses not covered by the regular benefits package.
A) Reimbursement
B) Extraordinary spending
C) Cafeteria
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q2) The cost of workers' compensation insurance premiums is tied directed to the employer's:
A) Size
B) Number of employees
C) Past experience with job-related accidents and illnesses
D) Location
Q3) ________ must pay a payroll tax to fund Social Security benefits.
A) Employers
B) Employees
C) Trade unions
D) Both A and B
Q4) What is the ultimate goal of a "managed disability" approach to worker injuries?
Q5) All HMOs have one element in common.What is it?
Q6) Briefly describe the Pregnancy Discrimination Act.
Page 14
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Q1) What is Locke's view of reinforcements and the impact of a person's beliefs?
Q2) In the ________ method of training,just the bare outlines of a problem are given initially,and the students are assigned a role in which to view the incident.
A) Case
B) Incident
C) Critical incident
D) Role-play
Q3) A behaviorist,told that an employee is not performing well,would probably ask,"_____________?"
A) How has the task impacted the employee's self-esteem
B) What specific behaviors led to this conclusion
C) What motivates the employee
D) All of the above are correct.
Q4) What criticism does using operating managers as trainers overcome?
Q5) There is extensive research proving the effectiveness of outdoor-oriented training programs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) There are four steps in the process of behavior modeling.What are they?
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Q1) Applying Holland's personality types,the ___________ individual is expressive,nonconforming,original,and introspective
A) realistic
B) investigative
C) artistic
D) social
Q2) Many corporations are relying heavily on filling job vacancies from within.The key to success is filling these vacancies is _______________.
A) having many employees
B) information flow
C) cross-training
D) a company bulletin board
Q3) In a successful mentoring relationship,the junior person's career is enhanced by the _______________ that the senior person facilitates.
A) coaching
B) protection
C) visibility
D) All of the choices are correct
Q4) Explain the "7-percent rule."
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Q1) Why are sitdown strikes illegal in the United States?
Q2) In 2007,_______________ accounted for the highest percentage of union membership.
A)African-Americans
B)whites
C)Asians
D)Hispanics
Q3) Secondary boycotts ___________.
A)are regulated by the Landrum-Griffin Act
B)are generally illegal under the Wagner Act
C)are generally illegal under the Taft-Hartley Act
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q4) Picketing can be used,without a strike,to publicize a union's viewpoints about an employer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three ways that having computers in the negotiating room can help negotiators.
Q6) What is featherbedding?
Q7) Identify five characteristics of a successful mediator.
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Q1) Giving alcohol tests as part of the selection process,prior to making a conditional job offer,is ____________.
A) generally permissible
B) permissible only when part of a larger drug screen
C) precluded
D) precluded unless specific consent is given by the candidate
Q2) Impairment testing measures whether or not an employee is _______________ enough for work.
A) alert
B) smart
C) flexible
D) sober
Q3) Miner developed a checklist of possible causes for deficient employee behavior.Identify 5 of the 9 possible causes.
Q4) Smoking on the job is an example of a(n)_______________ rule violation.
A) time
B) insubordination
C) illegal behavior
D) safety
Q5) Explain what a progressive pattern of discipline is.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly orders the injuries/illness from highest to average lowest missed work days?
A) Amputations,Fractures and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (tie)
B) Amputations,Fractures,Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
C) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome,Amputations,Fractures
D) Fractures,Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Amputations (tie)
Q2) What are the four characteristics of employees who are likely to be accident repeaters?
Q3) OSHA has many requirements,but the ones that most directly affect most employers include:
A) Meeting safety standards set by OSHA.
B) Submitting to OSHA inspections.
C) Keeping records and reporting accidents and illnesses.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Examples of ____________ include poorly maintained equipment,unsafe machinery and exposure to hazardous chemicals.
A) safety hazards
B) health hazards
C) environmental hazards
D) general hazards

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