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Pediatric Nursing focuses on the specialized care of infants, children, and adolescents within the context of their families and communities. The course emphasizes developmental stages, common pediatric illnesses and disorders, growth and development assessment, health promotion, and age-appropriate communication techniques. Students will learn the principles of family-centered care, pediatric medication administration, pain management, and the psychological impact of illness and hospitalization on children and their families. Clinical and theoretical components are integrated to develop critical thinking, compassion, and professional skills necessary to deliver holistic nursing care to pediatric populations.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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35 Chapters
1814 Verified Questions
1814 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4161
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching parents about the types of behaviors children exhibit when living with chronic violence. Which statement made by the parents indicates further teaching is needed?
A) "We should watch for aggressive play."
B) "Our child may show lasting symptoms of stress."
C) "We know that our child will show caring behaviors."
D) "Our child may have difficulty concentrating in school."
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is preparing to complete documentation on a patient's chart. Which should be included in documentation of nursing care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reassessments
B) Incident reports
C) Initial assessments
D) Nursing care provided
E) Patient's response of care provided
Answer: A, C, D, E
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is presenting a staff development program about understanding culture in the health care encounter. Which components should the nurse include in the program? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cultural humility
B) Cultural research
C) Cultural sensitivity
D) Cultural competency
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Which family theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
A) Interactional theory
B) Family stress theory
C) Erikson's psychosocial theory
D) Developmental systems theory
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is interviewing a prenatal client about specific risk factors that are indications for prenatal testing. Which specific risk factors should the nurse note? (Select all that apply.)
A) Previous twins
B) Inherited disorder
C) Previous preterm birth
D) Cytomegalovirus infection
E) Previous stillbirth or neonatal death
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance. Which are true about these characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Most affected persons are males.
B) Males and females are equally affected.
C) All daughters of an affected male are carriers.
D) Carrier parents have a 25% chance of producing an affected child.
E) Carrier parents have a 50% chance of producing a carrier child in each pregnancy.
Answer: B, D, E
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Q1) Which is considered a block to effective communication?
A) Using silence
B) Using clichés
C) Directing the focus
D) Defining the problem
Q2) During an otoscopic examination on an infant, in which direction is the pinna pulled?
A) Up and back
B) Up and forward
C) Down and back
D) Down and forward
Q3) The nurse is assessing breath sounds on a child. Which are expected auscultated breath sounds? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wheezes
B) Crackles
C) Vesicular
D) Bronchial
E) Bronchovesicular
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to administer a nonopioid for pain relief to a child. Which timing should the nurse plan so the nonopioid takes effect?
A) 15 minutes until maximum effect
B) 30 minutes until maximum effect
C) 1 hour until maximum effect
D) 1 1/2 hours until maximum effect
Q2) Alternative medical system
A)Vitamins
B)Massage
C)Reiki
D)Hypnosis
E)Homeopathy
Q3) What is a significant common side effect that occurs with opioid administration?
A) Euphoria
B) Diuresis
C) Constipation
D) Allergic reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2) includes which?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Oral griseofulvin
C) Oral antiviral agent
D) Topical or systemic antibiotic
Q2) Which is described as an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid?
A) Cyst
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
Q3) Pertussis vaccination should begin at which age?
A) Birth
B) 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse use when assessing the physical maturity of a newborn?
A) Length
B) Apgar score
C) Posture at rest
D) Chest circumference
Q2) What is most descriptive of the shape of the anterior fontanel in a newborn?
A) Circle
B) Square
C) Triangle
D) Diamond
Q3) The nurse is conducting discharge teaching to parents regarding care of the umbilical cord. Which should the nurse include in the instructions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cover the umbilical cord with the diaper.
B) The cord will fall off in 5 to 15 days.
C) Clean around the umbilical cord stump with water.
D) Watch for redness and drainage around the umbilical cord stump.
E) A tub bath can be done every other day.
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Q1) What is an important nursing intervention for a full-term infant receiving phototherapy?
A) Observing for signs of dehydration
B) Using sunscreen to protect the infant's skin
C) Keeping the infant diapered to collect frequent stools
D) Informing the mother why breastfeeding must be discontinued
Q2) A 4-month-old infant is discharged home after surgery for the repair of a cleft lip. What should instructions to the parents include?
A) Provide crib toys for distraction.
B) Breast- or bottle-feeding can begin immediately.
C) Give pain medication to the infant to minimize crying.
D) Leave the infant in the crib at all times to prevent suture strain.
Q3) Which birth injuries should the nurse assess for if an infant was born with the use of a vacuum extractor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Torticollis
B) Brachial palsy
C) Fractured clavicle
D) Cephalhematoma
E) Subgaleal hemorrhage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a priority of care for an infant with an intraventricular hemorrhage?
A) Avoid use of analgesia.
B) Keep the infant's head to the right side.
C) Minimize interventions that cause crying.
D) Encourage the staff and parents to hold the infant.
Q2) A preterm infant of 33 weeks of gestation is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. Approximately 2 hours after birth, the neonate begins having difficulty breathing, with grunting, tachypnea, and nasal flaring. What should the nurse recognize?
A) This is a normal finding.
B) Further evaluation is needed.
C) Improvement should occur within 24 hours.
D) This is not significant unless cyanosis is present.
Q3) What is a characteristic of most neonatal seizures?
A) Clonic
B) Generalized
C) Well organized
D) Subtle and barely discernible
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Q1) By which age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position?
A) 5 to 6 months
B) 7 to 8 months
C) 11 to 12 months
D) 14 to 15 months
Q2) The nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to parents of a 6-month-old on preventing an accidental poisoning injury. Which should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) Place plants on the floor.
B) Place medications in a cupboard.
C) Discard used containers of poisonous substances.
D) Keep cosmetic and personal products out of the child's reach.
E) Make sure that paint for furniture or toys does not contain lead.
Q3) According to Piaget, a 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage?
A) Use of reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Coordination of secondary schemata
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Q1) The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse's response should be based on remembering what?
A) This is acceptable to encourage head control and turning over.
B) This is acceptable to encourage fine motor development.
C) This is unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
D) This is unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones.
Q2) Which term refers to the relative lactase deficiency observed in preterm infants of less than 34 weeks of gestation?
A) Congenital lactase deficiency
B) Primary lactase deficiency
C) Secondary lactase deficiency
D) Developmental lactase deficiency
Q3) Where do eczematous lesions most commonly occur in an infant?
A) Abdomen, cheeks, and scalp
B) Buttocks, abdomen, and scalp
C) Back and flexor surfaces of the arms and legs
D) Cheeks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs
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Q1) The parents of a 2-year-old child tell the nurse they are concerned because the toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Ignore the baby talk.
B) Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now."
C) Explain to the toddler that baby talk is for babies.
D) Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.
Q2) The developmental task with which the child of 15 to 30 months is likely to be struggling is a sense of which?
A) Trust
B) Initiative
C) Intimacy
D) Autonomy
Q3) The nurse is assessing a toddler's visual acuity. Which visual acuity is considered acceptable during the toddler years?
A) 20/20
B) 20/40
C) 20/50
D) 20/60
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents of a 4-year-old child about fine motor developmental milestones. What milestones should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Can lace shoes
B) Uses scissors successfully
C) Builds a tower of nine or 10 cubes
D) Builds a bridge with three cubes
E) Adeptly places small pellets in a narrow-necked bottle
Q2) A child age 4 1/2 years sometimes wakes her parents up at night screaming, thrashing, sweating, and apparently frightened, yet she is not aware of her parents' presence when they check on her. She lies down and sleeps without any parental intervention. This is most likely what?
A) Nightmare
B) Sleep terror
C) Sleep apnea
D) Seizure activity
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Q1) What can the nurse suggest to families to reduce blood lead levels? (Select all that apply.)
A) Do not store food in open cans.
B) Ensure the child eats regular meals.
C) Mix formula with hot water from the tap.
D) Vacuum hard-surfaced floors and window wells.
E) Wash and dry the child's hands and face frequently.
Q2) The nurse is teaching parents of a preschool child strategies to implement when the child delays going to bed. What strategy should the nurse recommend?
A) Use consistent bedtime rituals.
B) Give in to attention-seeking behavior.
C) Take the child into the parent's bed for an hour.
D) Allow the child to stay up past the decided bedtime.
Q3) What is an important nursing consideration when a child is hospitalized for chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning?
A) Maintain bed rest.
B) Maintain isolation precautions.
C) Keep an accurate record of intake and output.
D) Institute measures to prevent skeletal fracture.
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Q1) What growth and development milestones are expected between the ages of 8 and 9 years? (Select all that apply.)
A) Can help with routine household tasks
B) Likes the reward system for accomplished tasks
C) Uses the telephone for practical purposes
D) Chooses friends more selectively
E) Goes about home and community freely, alone or with friends
F) Enjoys family time and is respectful of parents
Q2) The school nurse is discussing after-school sports participation with parents of children age 10 years. The nurse's presentation includes which important consideration?
A) Teams should be gender specific.
B) Organized sports are not appropriate at this age.
C) Competition is detrimental to the establishment of a positive self-image.
D) Sports participation is encouraged if the type of sport is appropriate to the child's abilities.
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The management of a child who has just been stung by a bee or wasp should include applying what?
A) Cool compresses
B) Antibiotic cream
C) Warm compresses
D) Corticosteroid cream
Q2) The nurse is admitting a child with frostbite. What health care prescription should the nurse question and verify?
A) Massage the injured tissue.
B) Apply a loose dressing after rewarming.
C) Avoid any application of dry heat to the area.
D) Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for discomfort.
Q3) A health care provider prescribes paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg, PO, daily for a child with depression. The medication label states: "Paroxetine (Paxil) 10 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tablet(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
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Q1) The school nurse is teaching an adolescent about social networking and texting on phones. What statement by the adolescent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Social networking can help me develop interpersonal skills."
B) "I will have an opportunity to interact with people like myself."
C) "My text messaging during class time in school will not cause any disruption."
D) "I should be cautious, as the online environment can create opportunities for cyberbullying."
Q2) The school nurse recognizes that adolescents should get how many hours of sleep each night?
A) 6 hours
B) 7 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 9 hours
Q3) In girls, what is the initial indication of puberty?
A) Menarche
B) Growth spurt
C) Breast development
D) Growth of pubic hair
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Q1) The nurse is caring for an adolescent male with gynecomastia. What groups of drugs can induce gynecomastia in male adolescents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral antibiotics
B) Oral ketoconazoles
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Histamine-2 receptor blockers
E) Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
Q2) Tretinoin (Retin-A) is a commonly used topical agent for the treatment of acne. What do nursing considerations with this drug include?
A) Sun exposure increases effectiveness.
B) Cosmetics with lanolin and petrolatum are preferred in acne.
C) Applying of the medication occurs at least 20 to 30 minutes after washing.
D) Erythema and peeling are indications of toxicity and need to be reported.
Q3) What are risk factors of testicular cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hispanic
B) Infertility
C) Alcohol use
D) Tobacco use
E) Family history
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Q1) A child with a serious chronic illness will soon go home. The case manager requests that the family provide total care for the child for a couple of days while the child is still hospitalized. How should the request be viewed?
A) Improper because of legal issues
B) Supportive because families are usually eager to get involved
C) Unacceptable because the family will have to assume the care soon enough
D) Important because it can be beneficial to the transition from hospital to home
Q2) The nurse is teaching coping strategies to parents of a child with a chronic illness. What coping strategies should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Listen to the child.
B) Accept the child's illness.
C) Establish a support system.
D) Learn to care for the child's illness one day at a time.
E) Do not share information with the child about the illness.
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Q1) A 7-year-old child is in the end stages of cancer. The parents ask you how they will know when death is imminent. What physical sign is indicative of approaching death?
A) Hunger
B) Tachycardia
C) Increased thirst
D) Difficulty swallowing
Q2) The sibling of a 4-year-old girl dies from sudden infant death syndrome. The parents are concerned because the 4-year-old girl showed more outward grief when her cat died than now. How should the nurse explain this reaction to the parents?
A) The child is not old enough to have a concept of death.
B) This suggests maladaptive coping, and referral is needed for counseling.
C) The death may be so painful and threatening that the child must deny it for now.
D) The child is not old enough to have formed a significant attachment to her sibling.
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Q1) A child has a slight (26-40 dB) degree of hearing loss. The nurse recognizes this amount of hearing loss can have what effect? (Select all that apply.)
A) No speech defects
B) Difficulty hearing faint speech
C) Usually is unaware of the hearing difficulty
D) Can distinguish vowels but not consonants
E) Unable to understand conversational speech
Q2) A 5-year-old child has bilateral eye patches in place after surgery yesterday morning. Today he can be out of bed. What nursing intervention is most important at this time?
A) Speak to him when entering the room.
B) Allow him to assist in feeding himself.
C) Orient him to his immediate surroundings.
D) Reassure him and allow his parents to stay with him.
Q3) What description applies to fragile X syndrome?
A) Chromosomal defect affecting only females
B) Second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment
C) Most common cause of uninherited cognitive impairment
D) Chromosomal defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders
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Q1) A 9-year-old boy has an unplanned admission to the intensive care unit (ICU) after abdominal surgery. The nursing staff has completed the admission process, and his condition is beginning to stabilize. When speaking with the parents, the nurse should expect what additional stressor to be evident?
A) Usual day-night routine
B) Calming influence of staff
C) Adequate privacy and support
D) Insufficient remembering of his condition and routine
Q2) What parents should have the most difficult time coping with their child's hospitalization?
A) Parents of a child hospitalized for juvenile arthritis
B) Parents of a child hospitalized with a recent diagnosis of bronchiolitis
C) Parents of a child hospitalized for sepsis resulting from an untreated injury
D) Parents of a child hospitalized for surgical correction of undescended testicles
Q3) What choice of words or phrases would be inappropriate to use with a child?
A) "Rolling bed" for "stretcher"
B) "Special medicine" for "dye"
C) "Make sleepy" for "deaden"
D) "Catheter" for "intravenous"
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Q1) Guidelines for intramuscular administration of medication in school-age children include what standard?
A) Inject medication as rapidly as possible.
B) Insert needle quickly, using a dartlike motion.
C) Have the child stand if at all possible and if the child is cooperative.
D) Penetrate the skin immediately after cleansing the site while the skin is moist.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to give acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a child who has a fever. What nursing action is appropriate?
A) Retake the temperature in 15 minutes after giving the Tylenol.
B) Place a warm blanket on the child so chilling does not occur.
C) Check to be sure the Tylenol dose does not exceed 15 mg/kg.
D) Use cold compresses instead of Tylenol to control the fever.
Q3) What disease processes require airborne precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Measles
B) Varicella
C) Pertussis
D) Meningitis
E) Tuberculosis
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Q1) What type of dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit?
A) Isotonic dehydration
B) Hypotonic dehydration
C) Hypertonic dehydration
D) Hyperosmotic dehydration
Q2) The nurse is teaching a group of female adolescents about toxic shock syndrome and the use of tampons. What statement by a participant indicates a need for additional teaching?
A) "I can alternate using a tampon and a sanitary napkin."
B) "I should wash my hands before inserting a tampon."
C) "I can use a superabsorbent tampon for more than 6 hours."
D) "I should call my health care provider if I suddenly develop a rash that looks like sunburn."
Q3) What is the most immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries?
A) Shock
B) Anemia
C) Local infection
D) Systemic sepsis
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Q1) What statement is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis compared with hemodialysis?
A) Protein loss is less extensive.
B) Dietary limitations are not necessary.
C) It is easy to learn and safe to perform.
D) It is needed less frequently than hemodialysis.
Q2) A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show?
A) Bacteriuria and hematuria
B) Hematuria and proteinuria
C) Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity
D) Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity
Q3) The parent of a child hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why blood pressure readings are being taken so often. What knowledge should influence the nurse's reply?
A) The antibiotic therapy contributes to labile blood pressure values.
B) Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time.
C) Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring.
D) Blood pressure fluctuations indicate that the condition has become chronic.
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes feedings of 1 to 2 oz Pedialyte every 3 hours and to advance to 1/2 strength Similac with iron as tolerated postoperatively for an infant who had a pyloromyotomy. The nurse should decide to advance the feeding if which occurs?
A) The infant's IV line has infiltrated.
B) The infant has not voided since surgery.
C) The infant's mother states the infant is tolerating the feeding okay.
D) The infant is taking the Pedialyte without vomiting or distention.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe?
A) Steatorrhea
B) Clay colored
C) Currant jelly-like
D) Loose stools with undigested food
Q3) What signs or symptoms are most commonly associated with the prodromal phase of acute viral hepatitis?
A) Bruising and lethargy
B) Anorexia and malaise
C) Fatigability and jaundice
D) Dark urine and pale stools
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child on oxygen being delivered by a nasal cannula. What is the advantage of delivering oxygen in this manner?
A) It can deliver mist if desired.
B) It is less likely to cause abdominal distention.
C) The child is able to eat and talk while getting oxygen.
D) This method can deliver a higher concentration of oxygen.
Q2) The nurse is planning home care for a 2-year-old child with a tracheostomy. What recommendation should be included?
A) Sterile technique is essential in home care of the tracheostomy.
B) Parents are able to change the tracheostomy tube when needed.
C) Play activities must be sedentary such as listening to music and working on puzzles.
D) The child must wear a plastic bib when eating or drinking to prevent aspiration into the stoma.
Q3) What medication is considered to be the most useful in treating cardiac arrest?
A) Bretylium tosylate (Bretylium)
B) Xylocaine (lidocaine)
C) Adrenaline (epinephrine)
D) Naloxone (Narcan)
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Q1) A term infant is delivered, and before delivery, the medical team was notified that a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) was diagnosed on ultrasonography. What should be done immediately at birth if respiratory distress is noted?
A) Give oxygen.
B) Suction the infant.
C) Intubate the infant.
D) Ventilate the infant with a bag and mask.
Q2) An infant with bronchiolitis is hospitalized. The causative organism is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse knows that a child infected with this virus requires what type of isolation?
A) Reverse isolation
B) Airborne isolation
C) Contact Precautions
D) Standard Precautions
Q3) What tests aid in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) Sweat test, stool for fat, chest radiography
B) Sweat test, bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis
C) Sweat test, stool for trypsin, biopsy of intestinal mucosa
D) Stool for fat, gastric contents for hydrochloride, radiography
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Q1) Represents the time that the ventricles are in the absolute refractory period
A)P wave
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)Q-T interval
E)ST segment
Q2) What condition is the leading cause of death after heart transplantation?
A) Infection
B) Rejection
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Heart failure
Q3) The parents of a young child with heart failure (HF) tell the nurse that they are nervous about giving digoxin. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge?
A) It is a safe, frequently used drug.
B) Parents lack the expertise necessary to administer digoxin.
C) It is difficult to either overmedicate or undermedicate with digoxin.
D) Parents need to learn specific, important guidelines for administration of digoxin.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physiologic defect is responsible for causing anemia?
A) Increased blood viscosity
B) Depressed hematopoietic system
C) Presence of abnormal hemoglobin
D) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
Q2) A child with hemophilia A will have which abnormal laboratory result?
A) PT (ProTime)
B) Platelet count
C) Fibrinogen level
D) PTT (partial thromboplastin time)
Q3) What condition is an inherited immunodeficiency disorder characterized by absence of both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
A) Fanconi syndrome
B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS)
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Q1) What is appropriate mouth care for a toddler with mucosal ulceration related to chemotherapy?
A) Mouthwashes with plain saline
B) Lemon glycerin swabs for cleansing
C) Mouthwashes with hydrogen peroxide
D) Swish and swallow with viscous lidocaine
Q2) A child, age 10 years, has a neuroblastoma and is in the hospital for additional chemotherapy treatments. What laboratory values are most likely this child's?
A) White blood cell count, 17,000/mm<sup>3</sup>; hemoglobin, 15 g/dl
B) White blood cell count, 3,000/mm<sup>3</sup>; hemoglobin, 11.5 g/dl
C) Platelets, 450,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 12 g/dl
D) White blood cell count, 10,000/mm<sup>3</sup>; platelets, 175,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) One pediatric oncologic emergency is acute tumor lysis syndrome. Symptoms that this may be occurring include what?
A) Muscle cramps and tetany
B) Respiratory distress and cyanosis
C) Thrombocytopenia and sepsis
D) Upper extremity edema and neck vein distension
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old with an epidural hemorrhage. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Headache
B) Vomiting
C) Irritability
D) Cephalhematoma
E) Pallor with anemia
Q2) The nurse is doing a neurologic assessment on a 2-month-old infant after a car accident. Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are present. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A) Neurologic health
B) Severe brain damage
C) Decorticate posturing
D) Decerebrate posturing
Q3) What test is never performed on a child who is awake?
A) Doll's head maneuver
B) Oculovestibular response
C) Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions
D) Funduscopic examination for papilledema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching an adolescent about giving insulin injections. The adolescent asks if the disposable needles and syringes can be used more than once. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge?
A) It is unsafe.
B) It is acceptable for up to 24 hours.
C) It is acceptable for families with very limited resources.
D) It is suitable for up to 3 days if stored in the refrigerator.
Q2) A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. When is the best time for the GH to be administered?
A) At bedtime
B) After meals
C) Before meals
D) After arising in morning
Q3) The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. What effect does exercise have on a type 1 diabetic?
A) Exercise increases blood glucose.
B) Extra insulin is required during exercise.
C) Additional snacks are needed before exercise.
D) Excessive physical activity should be restricted.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with application of a synthetic cast on a child with a fractured humerus. What are the advantages of a synthetic cast over a plaster of Paris cast? (Select all that apply.)
A) Less bulky
B) Drying time is faster
C) Molds readily to body part
D) Permits regular clothing to be worn
E) Can be cleaned with small amount of soap and water
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed azathioprine (Imuran) 1 mg/kg/day PO for a child with juvenile arthritis. The child weighs 77 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the daily dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer below in a whole number.

Q3) Immobilization causes what effect on metabolism?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Decreased metabolic rate
C) Positive nitrogen balance
D) Increased levels of stress hormones
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 10-year-old child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calf muscle hypertrophy
B) Late onset, usually between 6 and 8 years of age
C) Progressive muscular weakness, wasting, and contractures
D) Loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age
E) Slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence
Q2) A feeding technique the nurse can teach to parents of a child with cerebral palsy to improve use of the lips and the tongue to facilitate speech is which?
A) Feeding pureed foods
B) Placing food on the tongue
C) Placing food at the side of the tongue
D) Placing food directly into the mouth with a spoon
Q3) What is the rationale for orthopedic surgery for a child with cerebral palsy?
A) To cure spasticity
B) To improve function
C) For cosmetic purposes
D) To prevent the need of physical therapy
Page 37
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