Pediatric Nurse Practitioner Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
The Pediatric Nurse Practitioner course is designed to prepare advanced practice nurses with the specialized knowledge and clinical skills necessary to deliver comprehensive healthcare to infants, children, and adolescents. Emphasizing health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic illnesses, this course explores growth and development, pediatric pharmacology, and evidence-based practice interventions. Students will engage in case studies, simulations, and clinical practicums to enhance diagnostic reasoning, patient advocacy, and family-centered care, enabling them to effectively address the unique physical, emotional, and developmental needs of the pediatric population.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition
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20 Chapters
571 Verified Questions
571 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of clinical decision-making is most reliable?
A) Intuitive
B) Analytical
C) Experiential
D) Augenblick
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is false? To obtain adequate history,health-care providers must be:
A) Methodical and systematic
B) Attentive to the patient's verbal and nonverbal language
C) Able to accurately interpret the patient's responses
D) Adept at reading into the patient's statements
Answer: D
Q3) A likelihood ratio above 1 indicates that a diagnostic test showing a:
A) Positive result is strongly associated with the disease
B) Negative result is strongly associated with absence of the disease
C) Positive result is weakly associated with the disease
D) Negative result is weakly associated with absence of the disease
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of cancers is due to a single-gene mutation?
A) 50% to 70%
B) 30% to 40%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 5% to 10%
Answer: D
Q2) The pedigree of a family with a mitochondrial DNA disorder is unique in that:
A) None of the female offspring will have the disease
B) All offspring from an affected female will have disease
C) None of the offspring of an affected female will have the disease
D) All the offspring from an affected male will have disease
Answer: B
Q3) The leading causes of death in the United States are due to:
A) Multifactorial inheritance
B) Single gene mutations
C) X-linked disorders
D) Aneuploidy
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Skin
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of lesion is referred to as resembling "a dew drop on a rose petal?"
A) Varicella zoster
B) Measles
C) Rubella
D) Tinea
Answer: A
Q2) A patient with sarcoidosis has firm,tender,reddened nodules,along the anterior aspect of the leg.These lesions are called:
A) Erythema multiforme
B) Erythema nodosum
C) A discoid rash
D) Lichen planus
Answer: B
Q3) Skin turgor is best assessed by pinching skin over the:
A) Forehead
B) Forearm
C) Knees
D) Dorsum of the hand
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On physical examination,your 55-year-old female patient has an enlarged thyroid gland.She complains of feeling hot all the time,nervousness,palpitations,tremor,and recent weight loss of 10 pounds over the past 3 weeks.These signs and symptoms are commonly due to:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Thyroid cancer
D) All of the above
Q2) One of the most common signs of Epstein-Barr viral infection (infectious mononucleosis)is:
A) Swelling of the face
B) Parotitis
C) Cervical lymphadenopathy
D) Thyroid enlargement
Q3) Inflammation of the parotid gland can cause which of the following conditions?
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Bruxism
C) Mumps
D) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
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Chapter 5: The Eye
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has been treated for glaucoma for 5 years.Which of the following will provide indication of the level of progression during the funduscopic examination for this patient?
A) Checking the macula
B) Estimating cup-to-disk ratio
C) Verifying a red reflex
D) Extraocular movements
Q2) A Marcus-Gunn effect involves:
A) Abnormal pupillary responses
B) Abnormal visual acuity
C) Abnormal funduscopic findings
D) All of the above
Q3) A 9-month-old patient presents with fever and large areas of redness and bullae over the trunk,palms,legs,and sole of the feet.There is redness and swelling of the conjunctiva and lips.The clinician should recognize this condition as:
A) Giant cell arteritis
B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Botulism
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hand-foot-and mouth disease often causes vesicular lesions on the palms,soles of the feet,and oral mucosa.The microorganism that causes this disease is:
A) Herpes zoster
B) Herpes simplex I
C) Coxsackie virus
D) Candida
Q2) To examine if there is an intact gag reflex,ask the patient to say "ah" as you observe the:
A) Movement of the uvula to the left
B) Movement of uvula to the right
C) Tongue extension in the midline
D) Upward movement of the uvula in the midline
Q3) A 26-year-old female who gave birth 1 month ago presents with sudden development of fever,neck pain,sore throat with dysphagia,and radiation of pain to the ear.Which of the following conditions is most important to consider?
A) Diptheria
B) Epiglottitis
C) Thyroiditis
D) Otitis media
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain associated with pericarditis is .
A) Crushing and squeezing
B) Constant
C) Worse with inspiration
D) Only present with fever
Q2) An S<sub>3</sub> gallop is commonly heard in:
A) Children with fever
B) Adults with heart failure
C) Children with aortic stenosis
D) Adults with hypertension
Q3) On an electrocardiogram,you see a deepened Q wave that is greater than one-third the height of the QRS complex.This is indicative of:
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Acute myocardial ischemia
C) Left ventricular hypertrophy
D) Past myocardial infarction
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Chapter 8: Respiratory System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency should be considered in patients diagnosed with:
A) Exercise-induced cough
B) Bronciectasis
C) COPD
D) Pericarditis
Q2) Patients with pulmonary fibrosis show decreased lung tissue compliance and diminished forced vital capacity (FVC).Pulmonary fibrosis is a type of:
A) Obstructive disease
B) Restrictive disease
C) Hyperreactive airway disease
D) None of the above
Q3) A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
A) Barrel-shaped chest
B) Clubbing
C) Pectus excavatum
D) Prolonged capillary refill
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Chapter 9: Breasts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old woman is concerned about a mass she found on palpation.Upon examination of the patient,the mass feels cystic,round,and mobile with discrete borders.The diagnostic study that is recommended is:
A) CT scan
B) Mammogram
C) Biopsy
D) Ultrasound
Q2) When examining the breasts of a 45-year-old female patient,you note nodularity throughout both breasts.There is no dominant mass,tenderness,nipple change,or skin change.Which of the following condition is most likely?
A) Multiple fibroadenomas
B) Fibrocystic breasts
C) Mastalgia
D) Mastitis
Q3) A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:
A) Pseudogynecomastia
B) BRCA1 and 2
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) B and C
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11
Chapter 10: Abdomen
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse practitioner reports that your patient's abdominal x-ray demonstrates multiple air-fluid levels in the bowel.This is a diagnostic finding found in:
A) Appendicitis
B) Cholecystitis
C) Bowel obstruction
D) Diverticulitis
Q2) A 20-year-old engineering student complains of episodes of abdominal discomfort,bloating,and episodes of diarrhea.The symptoms usually occur after eating,and pain is frequently relieved with bowel movement.She is on a "celiac diet" and the episodic symptoms persist.Physical examination and diagnostic tests are negative.Colonoscopy is negative for any abnormalities.This is a history and physical consistent with:
A) Inflammatory bowel disease
B) Irritable bowel syndrome
C) Laxative abuse
D) Norovirus gastroenteritis
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Chapter 11: Genitourinary System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:
A) Hydronephrosis
B) Renal artery stenosis
C) Ureteral rupture
D) Kidney mass
Q2) An intravenous pyelogram should not be performed if serum creatinine is:
A) Less than 1.5
B) Greater than 1.0
C) Greater than 1.6
D) Less than 1.0
Q3) A 77-year-old female patient with heart failure complains of frequency and urgency of urination during the day and nocturia of 2 to 3 times a night.Which of the following medications can cause these symptoms?
A) Beta adrenergic blocker
B) Diuretic
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Digitalis
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13
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a biochemical marker for testicular cancer?
A) Carcinogenic antigen 125 (CA-125)
B) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
C) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
D) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
Q2) A male and female patient complain of problems with conception.The female patient is in generally good health.The male patient reports history of cystic fibrosis.It is important for the clinician to recognize that in male patients with CF,there is often malformation of the:
A) Vas deferens
B) Epididymis
C) Seminal vesicles
D) All of the above
Q3) The majority of male newborns born with cryptorchidism usually attain testicular descent by:
A) 1 week old
B) 1 month old
C) 6 months old
D) 1 year old
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Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary dysmenorrhea is pain with menses that occurs due to:
A) Rise in prostaglandins
B) Endometriosis
C) Fibroid tumor
D) Excessive estrogen
Q2) A 20-year-old female complains of thin vaginal discharge and pruritus.On pelvic examination,there are "strawberry spots" on the vaginal walls.With this infection,it is important to:
A) Treat the patient's partner
B) Perform STD and HIV testing
C) Look for characteristic clue cells
D) A and B
Q3) Your 24-year-old female patient comes to the clinic for a routine pelvic exam and Pap smear.It is recommended that a female of this age obtain a Pap smear:
A) Every year
B) Every 3 years
C) Every 5 years
D) None of the above
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15
Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old female presents with ankle pain due to a fall while walking on ice 1 hour ago.You watch her limp as she walks into the emergency room.On physical examination,the ankle is erythematous,swollen,and tender to touch.The patient cannot stand on the affected ankle.Range of motion is severely limited on inversion of the ankle.On palpation,there is no pain with pressure on the medial or lateral malleolus.Should this patient be sent for ankle x-rays according to the Ottawa ankle rules?
A) No,the ankle shows no tenderness over the medial or lateral malleolus
B) Yes,the patient is unable to bear weight on the ankle
C) Yes,ankle range of motion is limited
D) No,range of motion of the ankle is not limited in all planes
Q2) To assess muscle tone,the clinician should:
A) Palpate the patient's muscle as the muscle is passively stretched
B) Examine how the patient performs active range of motion
C) Palpate the muscles comparing side to side
D) A and C
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Chapter 15: Neurological System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ménière's 'disease presents with the following triad of symptoms:
A) Vertigo,nystagmus,hearing loss
B) Vertigo,tinnitus,hearing loss
C) Vertigo,syncope,hearing loss
D) None of the above
Q2) A 65-year-old male complains of a headache that feels "like a knife is cutting into his head." He also reports feeling right-sided scalp and facial pain and "seeing double" at times.He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia.His medications include beta blocker,statin drug,and an ACE inhibitor.On physical examination,you note palpable tenderness over the right side of the forehead.There are no neurological deficits.Vision is 20/20 with lenses.No weakness of extremities.CN II to XII are intact.The history corresponds to which of the following disorders?
A) Drug toxicity
B) Giant cell arteritis
C) Cluster headache
D) Migraine headache
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Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a high risk of respiratory depression with administration of an opiate medication in patients with:
A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Obstructive sleep apnea
D) A and C
Q2) A 57-year-old female complains of fatigue,muscle weakness,palpitations,nervousness,and insomnia for the last few weeks.She thought she was just experiencing stress from her husband's recent stroke 1 month ago.There are no current medications.Past medical history includes cholecystecomy at age 45,D & C,age 50.On physical examination,the patient is afebrile,pulse 102,18 breaths/min,BP 156/ 98.Physical examination reveals tremulousness and quadriceps weakness bilaterally +4/5. Which of the following diagnostic tests is a priority in the work-up?
A) ACTH challenge test
B) TSH
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Fasting blood glucose
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypomania is different from mania in that:
A) Hypomania does not cause impaired social or occupational functioning
B) Hypomania does not require hospitalization
C) Mania can endure for a longer period of time than hypomania
D) A and B
Q2) It is widely recognized that bereavement-associated depression can last for up to:
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years
Q3) What percentage of patients who commit suicide have depressive illness?
A) 100%
B) 90%
C) 70%
D) 50%
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Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stances is normal in a toddler?
A) Genu varum
B) Genu valgum
C) Lordosis
D) A and C
Q2) Which of the following should warrant further investigation?
A) A 9-month-old child does not interact with another person
B) The infant does not stand up by 12 months
C) The infant does not smile at 2 months
D) A and B
Q3) At what age do the "baby" teeth start to erupt in the majority of children?
A) 3 months
B) 4 months
C) 5 months
D) 6 months
Q4) What is the minimum daily calcium requirement for adolescents?
A) 1200 mg/day
B) 1300 mg/day
C) 1400 mg/day
D) 1500 mg/day
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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estimated date of delivery is calculated by:
A) Adding 7 days to LMP and subtracting 3 months
B) Adding 9 months to the date of LMP
C) Most accurately by ultrasound examination
D) A & C
Q2) The schedule of prenatal care should be:
A) Every 2 weeks between 28 and 36 weeks
B) Every week between 28 and 36 weeks
C) Every week between 36 and 40 weeks
D) A & C
Q3) As you assess a pregnant patient you suspect false large-for-dates presentation.You should recognize that a possible cause for this is:
A) Inaccurate LMP date
B) Excessive amniotic fluid
C) Maternal obesity
D) All of the above
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21
Chapter 20: Older Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A useful laboratory measure that indicates protein-energy malnutrition in hospitalized elders include a total cholesterol below.
A) 190 mg/dl
B) 180 mg/dl
C) 170 mg/dl
D) 160 mg/dl
Q2) A BMI of less than is an indicator of high risk for malnutrition.
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Q3) Based on the 2010 Census of the United States,the fastest growing segment of the population is:
A) Adults aged 65 to 75
B) Adults aged 75 to 85
C) Adults aged 85 to 95
D) Adults aged 100+
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