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This course provides an in-depth exploration of patient care principles and practices essential for medical assistants. It covers foundational skills such as obtaining vital signs, patient interviewing, and recording medical histories, while emphasizing effective communication, empathy, confidentiality, and cultural sensitivity. Students learn infection control procedures, assist with patient examinations and minor procedures, and support physicians in outpatient and ambulatory care settings. The course also addresses patient education, safety protocols, and critical thinking in responding to emergencies, preparing medical assistants to deliver high-quality, compassionate care across diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the ROS?
A)A history of the patient's previous diseases, injuries, and operations
B)The symptom causing the patient the most trouble
C)A systematic review of each body system
D)A review of the hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following services may be provided through home health care?
A)IV therapy
B)Respiratory care
C)Rehabilitation
D)Maternal-child care
E)All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as
A)family history.
B)review of systems.
C)genetic review.
D)chronological history.
Answer: A
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Q1) The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to
A)improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States.
B)protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace.
C)reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases.
D)prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens.
Answer: C
Q2) Cilia remove pathogens from the body by
A)providing an acidic environment.
B)engulfing pathogens.
C)trapping microorganisms.
D)constantly beating toward the outside.
E)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?
A)Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable
B)Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication
C)Getting blood onto your bare hands
D)Splashing blood into your eyes
E)All of the above
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoclave tape
A)ensures whether sterilization has occurred.
B)indicates whether the article was in the autoclave.
C)can be used only to close the pack.
D)plays "Jingle Bells" when it has been exposed to steam.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is used most often to sterilize articles in the medical office?
A)Dry heat oven
B)Ethylene oxide sterilizer
C)Autoclave
D)Chemical agents
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in technique during the chemical disinfection procedure?
A)Sanitizing articles before disinfecting them
B)Opening hinged instruments before placing them in the disinfectant
C)Completely immersing articles in the chemical disinfectant
D)Making sure articles are wet before immersing them in the disinfectant
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an axillary temperature of 100° F was taken orally,it would register as
A)98° F.
B)99° F.
C)100° F.
D)101° F.
Q2) What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration?
A)Tachypnea
B)Hypopnea
C)Orthopnea
D)Bradycardia
Q3) Normal blood pressure for an adult is
A)120/80 mm Hg or higher.
B)less than 120/80 mm Hg.
C)110 to 140 over 60 to 90 mm Hg.
D)70 to 80 beats/min.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eye
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) The function of a speculum is to
A)measure intraocular pressure.
B)grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping.
C)clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis.
D)open a body orifice or cavity for viewing.
Q3) The height of an adult patient usually is measured only
A)when the patient is ill.
B)during the first office visit.
C)when medication has been prescribed.
D)after a loss of weight.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The range of frequencies for normal speech is A)80 to 120 db.
B)512 to 1024 Hz.
C)300 to 4000 Hz.
D)6000 to 8000 Hz.
Q2) A person who cannot see close objects has a condition known as A)myopia.
B)strabismus.
C)cataracts.
D)hyperopia.
Q3) A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as A)hyperopia.
B)presbyopia.
C)myopia.
D)amblyopia.
Q4) Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique?
A)Making sure the medication bears the word ophthalmic
B)Asking the patient to look up before instilling drops
C)Instilling drops onto the center of the cornea
D)Asking the patient to close and roll the eye after the instillation
8
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cane should be held
A)on the strong side of the body.
B)with the cane handle 2 inches above the greater trochanter.
C)on the weak side of the body.
D)with the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle.
Q2) An ice bag is an example of A)dry heat.
B)moist heat.
C)dry cold.
D)moist cold.
Q3) The local application of cold may be used to A)soften exudates.
B)relieve muscle spasms.
C)prevent swelling.
D)increase suppuration.
Q4) Heat is often prescribed by the physician for A)black eyes.
B)osteoporosis.
C)fractures.
D)arthritis.

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Sample Questions
Q1) If left untreated,a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in A)pelvic inflammatory disease.
B)cervical cancer.
C)dysmenorrhea.
D)cervical erosion.
Q2) The purpose of measuring fundal height is to A)diagnose pregnancy.
B)determine the presence of fetal distress.
C)assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally.
D)determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement.
Q3) The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to A)record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results.
B)determine the presence of any concerns or problems.
C)determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy.
D)record the fetal heart tones and fundal height.
E)do all of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If PKU is left untreated,it can lead to A)malnutrition.
B)mental retardation.
C)aplastic anemia.
D)spinal curvature.
Q2) Topics included in anticipatory guidance include A)safety.
B)nutrition.
C)development.
D)sleep.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Head circumference is measured in A)millimeters.
B)grams.
C)centimeters or inches.
D)microns.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article?
A)Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
B)Do not use the article; obtain another one.
C)Ask the physician if the article should be used.
D)Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
Q2) Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle?
A)An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn
B)Roller gauze using a spiral turn
C)A long leg cast
D)A tubular gauze bandage
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?
A)Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
B)A local anesthetic is not required for their application
C)Better approximation of the edges of a wound
D)Faster healing of the wound
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for every day?
A)qid
B)qh
C)qs
D)qd
Q2) Which of the following should be recorded in a patient's medication record?
A)Prescription medications
B)Nonprescription medications
C)Vitamins
D)Herbal products
E)All of the above
Q3) What is the term for the slanted edge at the top of a needle?
A)Tip
B)Bevel
C)Gauge
D)Lumen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram?
A)Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
B)Working on the left side of the patient
C)Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure
D)Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs
Q2) Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level?
A)Death of cells
B)Organ failure
C)Body system failure
D)Death
E)All of the above
Q3) All of the following may require home oxygen therapy except A)COPD.
B)congestive heart failure.
C)hepatitis.
D)cystic fibrosis.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy?
A)Lubricating the physician's gloved finger for the digital examination
B)Insufflating air into the colon
C)Placing lubricant on the sigmoidoscope
D)Assisting with suctioning equipment
Q2) Which of the following increases the PSA level?
A)Fasting
B)Smoking
C)Vigorous exercise
D)Alcohol consumption
Q3) Why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing?
A)To prevent a false-negative test result
B)To prevent gastrointestinal irritation
C)To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
D)To prevent a false-positive test result
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Q1) Why must gas be removed from the colon before a lower GI radiographic study?
A)It shows up as confusing shadows on the radiograph.
B)It obscures the image of the colon.
C)It makes the examination uncomfortable for the patient.
D)It results in blurring of the radiograph.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?
A)It is safe and painless.
B)The patient must remove all metal before the procedure.
C)The patient must remain still during the procedure.
D)The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
E)All of the above are correct characteristics.
Q3) An instrument used to view internal organs directly is known as a A)fluoroscope.
B)radiography.
C)fluoroscopy.
D)fluorometer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office?
A)Faxed
B)Mailed
C)Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier
D)Electronically
E)All of the above
Q2) What is the term for a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present?
A)Quantitative test result
B)Positive test result
C)Negative test result
D)Qualitative test result
Q3) Which of the following is included in a product insert of a testing kit?
A)Intended use
B)Principles of the procedure
C)Storage and stability
D)Interpretation and reading results
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH of most urine specimens is
A)acidic.
B)alkaline.
C)neutral.
D)negative.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result?
A)Trace
B)Small
C)2+
D)500 mg/dL
E)Positive
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?
A)Using a freshly voided urine specimen
B)Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
C)Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen
D)Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results
E)None of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n)
A)vampire.
B)venipuncturist.
C)optometrist.
D)phlebotomist.
Q2) Which of the following is another name for the butterfly method of venipuncture?
A)Winged infusion method
B)Syringe method
C)Luer adapter method
D)Z-track method
Q3) Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling?
A)Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein
B)Applying the tourniquet tightly
C)Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle
D)Inserting the needle 1/2 inch below the puncture site
Q4) When performing a capillary puncture,the finger should not be squeezed to avoid
A)diluting the blood sample with tissue fluid.
B)excessive bleeding around the puncture site.
C)exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens.
D)bruising of the patient's finger.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16.This is considered to be
A)within the reference range.
B)above the reference range.
C)below the reference range.
D)an invalid result.
Q2) Leukocytes do their work in the A)circulatory system.
B)tissues.
C)lymphatic system.
D)central nervous system.
Q3) The nucleus of a neutrophil generally contains A)three to five lobes.
B)six to eight lobes.
C)fine granules.
D)no lobes.
Q4) The function of hemoglobin is to A)defend the body against infection.
B)transport oxygen in the body.
C)assist in blood clotting.
D)transport electrolytes in the body.

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Sample Questions
Q1) In vivo means in A)glass.
B)the living body.
C)test tubes.
D)the uterus.
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through
A)coughing and sneezing.
B)contaminated food.
C)sexual intercourse.
D)saliva by direct oral contact.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is a screening test for syphilis?
A)STD
B)VDRL
C)RRP
D)ASO
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Q1) All of the following are natural defense mechanisms of the body except A)phagocytosis by white blood cells.
B)the skin.
C)antibiotics.
D)antibodies.
Q2) What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease?
A)Prodromal period
B)Infectious period
C)Inoculation
D)Incubation period
Q3) What name is given to round bacteria growing in pairs?
A)Bacilli
B)Diplococci
C)Staphylococci
D)Streptococci
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Q1) What is the name of the individual who is qualified to perform advanced life support measures?
A)EMT-Basic
B)EMT-Paramedic
C)MLT
D)EMD
Q2) What is the name of the type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are forcefully jammed together?
A)Transverse
B)Greenstick
C)Impacted
D)Closed
Q3) What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic?
A)Psychogenic
B)Status asthmaticus
C)Anaphylactic
D)Allergenic
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