Pathophysiology Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional and physiological changes in the body that result from disease or injury. This course explores the mechanisms underlying the development and progression of various disorders, linking abnormal biological processes to clinical manifestations. Students will examine alterations in body systems, including cellular function, immune response, inflammation, and organ system dysfunctions. The course emphasizes understanding how disruptions in normal physiology contribute to signs, symptoms, and complications observed in clinical practice, providing a foundation for effective diagnosis, treatment, and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:
A) abnormal metabolic processes.
B) certain food additives.
C) genetic defects.
D) localized hypoxia.
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
A) follow cancer screening guidelines.
B) use sun block agents whenever exposed.
C) participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
D) choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
Answer: C
Q3) Caseation necrosis refers to an area where:
A) cell proteins have been denatured.
B) cell are liquefied by enzymes.
C) dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
D) bacterial invasion has occurred.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
A) Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
B) Increased activation of vitamin D
C) Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
D) Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
Answer: C
Q2) The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the:
A) liver and pancreas.
B) lungs and kidneys.
C) lungs and plasma proteins.
D) kidneys and bone marrow.
Answer: B
Q3) The control center for thirst is located in the: A) kidneys.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla.
D) hypothalamus.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as:
A) registered massage therapy.
B) naturopathy.
C) physiotherapy.
D) reflexology.
Answer: C
Q2) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
Q3) Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
A) those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
B) those typical side effects associated with this drug.
C) the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
D) the maximum shelf life of the medication.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
A) Depression and debilitation
B) A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C) Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D) Severe but short term
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B) Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C) Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D) Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
Q3) What is the definition of endorphins?
A) Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
B) Transmitters for sensory impulses
C) Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
D) Pain-causing chemical mediators
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include:
1) reduced risk of infection.
2) decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid.
3) developing stronger fibrous scar tissue.
4) more rapid healing.
5) regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles.
A) 1, 3
B) 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 2, 3, 5
Q2) Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
A) erythema and warmth.
B) loss of movement at the affected joint.
C) fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
D) abscess formation.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?
A) Mosquitoes (bites)
B) Inhaling contaminated particles
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Cysts in feces
Q2) What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Bone marrow damage
C) Presence of bacterial infection
D) An allergic or autoimmune reaction
Q3) Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
A) bacilli.
B) diplococci.
C) staphylococci.
D) streptococci.
Q4) Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
A) Urine
B) Pharynx
C) Distal urethra
D) Vagina
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humoral immunity is mediated by:
A) natural killer cells.
B) T lymphocytes (T cells).
C) B lymphocytes (B cells).
D) neutrophils.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV?
1) It contains two strands of DNA.
2) It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains.
3) The incubation period is extremely short.
4) It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q3) An autoimmune disease is:
A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
A) Small, brown pruritic lines
B) Painful and pruritic fissures
C) Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
D) Firm, red, painful nodule or pustule
Q2) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A) Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
B) Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
C) Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
D) Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Q3) Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses?
A) They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B) They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C) They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D) They are malignant and invasive.
Q4) What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Viral infection
B) Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin
C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
D) Frequent hypersensitivity reactions
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Severe anemia
D) Orthostatic hypotension
Q2) Paget's disease often leads to which of the following?
A) A reduction in bone fractures
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Disintegration of joint cartilage
Q3) What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
A) Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B) Frequent fractures of long bones
C) Impaired heart function
D) Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
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11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to the condition disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) It is usually a secondary complication.
B) It is always initiated by excessive bleeding.
C) It results in an inability of platelets to adhere.
D) It is not life threatening.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the characteristic erythrocyte associated with pernicious anemia?
A) Hypochromic, microcytic
B) Normochromic, normocytic
C) Elongated, sickle-shaped
D) Megaloblastic or macrocytic nucleated cells
Q3) In cases of polycythemia vera, blood pressure is elevated as a result of:
A) increased blood volume.
B) frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation.
C) congested spleen and bone marrow.
D) increased renin and aldosterone secretions.
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
A) lymphomas
B) myelomas
C) lymphocytomas
D) lymphedemas
Q2) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
Q3) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of:
A) endocarditis.
B) myocarditis.
C) pericarditis.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q2) In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:
A) onset of circulatory shock.
B) the inflammatory response.
C) release of enzymes from necrotic tissue.
D) heart failure.
Q3) Cardiac output refers to:
A) the amount of blood passing through either of the atria.
B) the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute.
C) the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction.
D) the total number of heartbeats in one minute.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?
A) Elderly patients are predisposed to secondary infections.
B) The virus is transmitted by numerous routes.
C) The virus is very difficult to destroy.
D) Viral mutation reduces immunity from prior infections.
Q2) What is a large-sized pulmonary embolus likely to cause?
A) Hypertension and left-sided heart failure
B) Atelectasis and respiratory failure
C) Hypotension and right-sided heart failure
D) Pleural effusion and atelectasis
Q3) Restrictive lung disorders may be divided into two groups based on:
A) patient history of obesity and exposure to other COPD.
B) smoking history and congenital defects.
C) previous lung disease and cardiovascular disorders.
D) anatomical abnormality and lung disease damage, impairing expansion.
Q4) Whenever PO<sub>2</sub> levels decrease below normal, PCO<sub>2</sub> levels: A) increase.
B) decrease also.
C) may or may not change.
D) increase slightly.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
A) Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
B) Only after birth by direct observation of the sac
C) After birth when the sac herniates as CSF builds up
D) Only with a spinal X-ray
Q2) All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate EXCEPT:
A) enlarged head with bulging fontanels.
B) vomiting, headache, and paralysis.
C) irritability and feeding difficulties.
D) eyes turned downward with sclerae showing above the pupils.
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis?
A) The cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junctions are damaged.
B) It is an autoimmune disorder.
C) Muscle weakness and fatigue occur in the face and neck.
D) Dementia develops in the later stage.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B) Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C) Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D) Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q2) Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch are referred to as:
A) visceroceptors.
B) exteroceptors.
C) mechanoceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
Q3) Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
A) Aqueous humor
B) Vitreous humor
C) Cerebrospinal fluid
D) Tears
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin?
A) Control by releasing hormones
B) Control by tropic hormones
C) Negative feedback control
D) Hypothalamus/hypophysis coordination
Q2) What is/are the effect(s) of thyrotoxic crisis?
A) Hyperthermia and heart failure
B) Hypotension and hypoglycemia
C) Toxic goiter and hypometabolism
D) Decreased stress response
Q3) What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
A) Malignant neoplasm
B) Infection
C) Congenital defect
D) Benign tumor
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
A) Physical and emotional stress
B) An autoimmune reaction
C) A combination of recessive genes
D) Idiopathic
Q2) A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon, impairing motility is referred to as:
A) diverticulitis.
B) Crohn's disease.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) Hirschsprung's disease.
Q3) The early stage of vomiting causes:
A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) increased respirations.
D) increased excretion of hydrogen ions.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are a cause(s) of acute tubule necrosis and acute renal failure?
A) Prolonged circulatory shock
B) Sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins
C) Crush injuries or burns
D) All of the above
Q2) Reduced urine output resulting from inflammation and necrosis of the tubules is called:
A) oliguria.
B) anuria.
C) pyuria.
D) polyuria.
Q3) Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Glomerulus
C) Loop of Henle
D) Afferent arteriole
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
A) The invasive stage
B) The stage of mild dysplasia
C) The time before it can be detected by a Pap test
D) Noninvasive severe dysplasia
Q2) Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the:
A) prostate.
B) testes.
C) ovary.
D) cervix.
Q3) Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Syphilis
D) Gonorrhea
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) High risk factors for cancer include:
1) human papilloma virus.
2) chronic irritation and inflammation.
3) repeated sun exposure.
4) high family incidence.
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A) chemotherapy cannot be used.
B) signs and symptoms are absent.
C) complications are evident.
D) metastases occur.
Q3) All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:
A) They are difficult to diagnose and treat.
B) They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin.
C) The number of skin cancer cases is increasing.
D) Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Q1) TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal infections; TORCH stands for:
A) toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
B) tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
C) toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
D) tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A) The effects are obvious at birth.
B) There is a test for the defective gene.
C) There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D) The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
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23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to eclampsia?
A) Elevated blood pressure returns to normal after delivery.
B) Kidney and liver function remain normal.
C) It commonly develops with ectopic pregnancies.
D) Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur.
Q2) Place the following statements regarding Rh incompatibility in the correct sequence. Not all choices are included in each answer.
1) Hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur.
2) Maternal Rh-negative cells enter fetal blood.
3) Fetal Rh-positive cells enter maternal blood.
4) Elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in the fetus.
5) Antibodies to Rh-positive cells form in maternal blood.
6) Maternal Rh antibodies enter the fetal circulation.
A) 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
B) 6, 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
C) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4
D) 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is:
A) lordosis.
B) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA).
C) osteomyelitis.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Q2) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A) Levels of androgens
B) Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on X-ray
C) Lack of a broader pelvis in males
D) Development of kyphosis
Q3) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphoscoliosis
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
A) loss of elastic fibers.
B) decreased metabolic rate.
C) decreased secretion of all hormones.
D) degenerative vascular changes.
Q2) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
Q3) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
A) Infection by resident flora
B) Ischemia at pressure points
C) Normal degenerative changes
D) Allergic reaction to adhesive tape or dressings
Q2) Atelectasis may occur with a prolonged period of bed rest because of:
A) reduced removal of pulmonary secretions.
B) increased expansion of the lower lobes of the lungs.
C) increased risk of aspiration in a sitting position.
D) loss of cough reflex.
Q3) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
Q4) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
Q2) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
Q3) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A) Methadone
B) Diazepam
C) Disulfiram
D) Naloxone
Q2) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A) antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly.
B) a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken.
C) a large dose of a drug affects the CNS.
D) an individual involuntarily develops a habit.
Q3) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following events would most likely cause a person to faint and experience difficulty breathing?
A) Exposure to gamma rays
B) Eating fish containing mercury
C) An insect sting
D) Inhalation of asbestos particles
Q2) Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
A) Lead
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Inhaled particulates
D) Mercury
Q3) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
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