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Pathophysiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the altered physiological processes that occur in the human body as a result of disease or injury. This course explores the mechanisms underlying common and significant health disorders, examining how normal biological functions are disrupted at the molecular, cellular, organ, and systemic levels. Students will learn to relate clinical manifestations to these underlying disturbances, enhancing their understanding of symptom development and helping to inform clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on the foundational concepts that link basic sciences to clinical practice, preparing learners for advanced study and professional work in healthcare fields.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man who had generalized atherosclerosis died 24 hours after having a stroke. A cerebral infarct was found at autopsy. Necrosis of the brain is classified as
A) coagulative necrosis
B) liquefactive necrosis
C) fat necrosis
D) fibrinoid necrosis
E) caseous necrosis
Answer: B
Q2) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called
A) Autophagocytosis
B) heterophagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
E) involution
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22167
Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin lowers the body temperature by inhibiting the synthesis of which regulator of the central thermostat in the hypothalamus?
A) Leukotriene B<sub>4</sub>
B) Lipoxin
C) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
D) Prostacyclin
E) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Answer: E
Q2) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of hemorrhage is most typical of defective platelet function seen in uremia (end stage kidney failure)?
A) Multiple petechiae
B) Multiple ecchymoses
C) Solitary ecchymoses
D) Hematoma
E) Hemarthrosis
Answer: A
Q2) Most cases of septic shock are caused by endotoxin-producing bacteria, which are classified as
A) pyogenic
B) gram-positive
C) gram-negative
D) encapsulated
E) acid fast
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibodies are considered to be markers of Sjögren syndrome?
A) Antinuclear antibody
B) Anti-double-stranded DNA
C) Anti-single-stranded DNA
D) Anti-topoisomerase
E) Anti-ribonucleoprotein antibody SS-A (Ro)
Q2) Amyloid deposited in the tissue of patients who are on dialysis for chronic renal failure is most often biochemically related to which precursor protein?
A) Light chain of immunoglobulin G
B) Serum amyloid associated (SAA) protein
C) Transthyretin
D) ß2-microglobulin
E) Calcitonin
Q3) Autoantibodies to IgA are found in approximately 40% of patients who have A) common variable immunodeficiency
B) isolated IgA deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) severe combined immunodeficiency
E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which cell function is BRCA1, a gene mutated in women with familial breast carcinoma, involved?
A) Cell adhesion
B) Growth inhibition
C) Signal transduction
D) Cell surface channel
E) Transcriptional regulation and DNA repair
Q2) Which enzymes in the liver account for the activation of most procarcinogens into carcinogens?
A) Cytochrome P-450-dependent mono-oxidases
B) Aminotransferases
C) Hydroxylases
D) Glutathione dehydrogenase
E) Caspases
Q3) Pseudomyxoma peritonei is a complication of which tumor?
A) Serous cystadenoma of the ovary
B) Mucinous cystadenoma of the ovary
C) Ovarian fibroma
D) Myxoma of the heart
E) Myxosarcoma of the lower extremity
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22171
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone can suppress surfactant production in fetal lungs?
A) Cortisol
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Glucagon
E) Androgens
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by a trinucleotide repeat mutation?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) Achondroplastic dwarfism
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Fragile X syndrome
E) Hemophilia B
Q3) Chromosome 22q11 deletion is typically associated with
A) rocker-bottom feet
B) horseshoe kidneys
C) thymic hypoplasia
D) microphthalmia
E) simian crease on hands
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xerophthalmia and night blindness typically result from deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Leptin is a hormone that acts on the hypothalamic centers for satiety and energy expenditure. Where is leptin synthesized?
A) Liver
B) Thyroid
C) Peripheral fat cells
D) Skeletal muscle cells
E) Nervous system
Q3) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22173
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of herpesvirus-induced eye infection?
A) Blepharitis
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Keratitis
E) Retinitis
Q2) During a mini-epidemic of Shigella, a 5-year-old child from India became infected and died 3 days after the onset of diarrhea. The most prominent changes seen at autopsy were
A) dilatation of the entire small intestine
B) ulceration of the proximal small intestine
C) ulcerations of the distal ileum
D) multiple ulcerations partially covered with pseudomembranes
E) perforation of the rectum
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10
Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin
B) elevation of angiotensin in blood
C) potassium retention in the kidneys
D) reduced sodium excretion in urine
E) increased diuresis
Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Heart
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old man presented with fever, fatigue, and flu-like symptoms. Murmurs were heard in the pericardial area, and ultrasonography revealed lesions on the mitral valve. The patient suddenly developed right flank pain. Several hours later, urinalysis showed hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
B) Acute bacterial endocarditis
C) Rheumatic endocarditis
D) Fungal endocarditis
E) Atrial fibrillation with thrombus formation in the left auricle
Q2) Cardiac disease is found in 20% to 40% of patients with longstanding crippling rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most common cardiac disease encountered in patients who have rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Valvular endocarditis
B) Mural endocarditis
C) Valvular calcifications
D) Myocarditis
E) Pericarditis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22176
Sample Questions
Q1) The deletion of two -globin chains of hemoglobin is the cause of
A) -thalassemia trait
B) -thalassemia minor
C) salient carrier state
D) hemoglobin H disease
E) hydrops fetalis
Q2) Which test is abnormal in hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding
B) Platelet count
C) Prothrombin time
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Clot retraction
Q3) Normocytic normochromic anemia, associated with low serum iron, reduced total-iron binding capacity, and abundant iron stores, as seen in the bone marrow biopsy, are laboratory findings typically found in anemia of
A) iron deficiency
B) chronic disease
C) thalassemia minor
D) thalassemia trait
E) vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
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Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177
Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary infection characterized by predominance of macrophages involving predominantly small bronchioli and sparing the large bronchioli is most typical of infection caused by
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) Which of the following lung diseases is classified as restrictive rather than obstructive?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Pneumoconiosis
E) Emphysema
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14
Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22178
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
Q2) The normal glomerular basement membrane is composed of which type of collagen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22179
Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the esophagus most often presents on gross examination as a
A) polypoid exophytic lesion
B) flat induration of the mucosa
C) volcano-like excavated lesion
D) diffuse narrowing of the esophageal lumen
E) linitis plastica
Q2) In adults, which part of the intestine is most often involved in volvulus?
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Transverse colon
E) Sigmoid colon
Q3) Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults presenting with nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain in most instances is caused by A) astrovirus
B) Norwalk virus
C) rota virus
D) enteric adenovirus
E) poliovirus
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22180
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of cirrhosis unrelated to alcohol, viral hepatitis, or metabolic diseases (i.e., the so-called "cryptogenic cirrhosis") is
A) latent bacterial infection
B) amyloidosis
C) circulatory disorders
D) steatohepatitis
E) autoimmune diseases
Q2) Ascending cholangitis is most often caused by
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Salmonella typhi
E) Ascaris lumbricoides
Q3) Cryoglobulinemia is found in chronic hepatitis caused by which hepatotropic virus?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22181
Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22182
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who develops cancer later in life shows an increased tendency to develop urogenital congenital anomalies of the lower urinary tract. Which of the following anomalies is this patient most likely to develop?
A) Bladder diverticular
B) Bladder exstrophy
C) Hypospadia
D) Congenital urethral stenosis
E) Megaureters
Q2) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Androstenedione
D) Estriol
E) Inhibin
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22183
Sample Questions
Q1) Comedocarcinoma of the breast is a type of which of the following carcinomas?
A) Ductal carcinoma in situ
B) Medullary carcinoma
C) Invasive ductal carcinoma
D) Invasive lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q2) A 50-year-old woman sees her physician because she has noticed a bloody discharge from the left nipple. Upon physical examination, there are no palpable masses in the breast. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this discharge?
A) Solitary cyst
B) Fibrocystic change
C) Acute mastitis
D) Intraductal papilloma
E) Carcinoma
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22184
Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is implicated in the pathogenesis of which complication of diabetes?
A) Cerebral infarcts
B) Intraretinal microangiopathy
C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
D) Gangrene of the foot
E) Peripheral neuropathy
Q2) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trinucleotide CTG repeat expansion plays a role in the pathogenesis of which of the following muscle diseases?
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Autosomal dominant limb girdle muscular dystrophy
D) Autosomal recessive limb girdle muscular dystrophy
E) Myotonic dystrophy
Q2) The autosomal dominant bone disorder caused by a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is characterized by short stature, rhizomelic shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, and midface abnormalities. Which of the following disorders is described by these characteristics?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
D) Synpolydactyly
E) Holt-Oram syndrome
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22187
Sample Questions
Q1) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q2) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q3) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22188
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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