Pathophysiology for Nursing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Nursing explores the fundamental mechanisms underlying disease processes and how these alterations affect normal body functioning. This course examines the physiological changes associated with various illnesses, emphasizing the relationship between pathological developments and clinical manifestations. Through the integration of theory and practical examples, students will learn to interpret signs and symptoms, understand diagnostic findings, and connect pathophysiological concepts to effective patient care and nursing interventions. The course provides a critical foundation for understanding the basis of disease, preparing nursing students to make informed clinical decisions in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety,a double blind study may be conducted during:
A)the first stage
B)the second stage
C)the third stage
D)any of these stages
Answer: C
Q2) The term cancer refers to:
A)dysplasia
B)hyperplasia
C)metaplasia
D)malignant neoplasm
Answer: D
Q3) What is an acute episode of a chronic disease called?
A)an exacerbation
B)a prodromal period
C)a complication
D)a sequel
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
A)albumin and fibrinogen
B)growth factors and cell enzymes
C)macrophages and neutrophils
D)histamine and prostaglandins
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?
A)Acetaminophen
B)Prednisone
C)Aspirin
D)Ibuprofen
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti-inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs?
A)increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation
B)Reye's syndrome developing in children and young adults
C)increased incidence of heart attacks and strokes
D)greatly delayed blood clotting
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term tolerance refers to:
A)surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system
B)the ability of the immune system to ignore "self" cells
C)the ability of T- and B-lymphocytes to work together
D)the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses
Answer: B
Q2) CD4-positive helper T-cells function by:
A)direct cytotoxic action
B)facilitating all immune system activity
C)production of immunoglobulins
D)inactivating allergens
Answer: B
Q3) Why is anaphylaxis considered a critical situation?
A)The heart rate is irregular.
B)Carbon dioxide levels in the body are greatly increased.
C)Bronchoconstriction and systemic vasodilation develop rapidly.
D)Manifestations are not obvious in the initial stages.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
A)The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
B)It causes a common STD.
C)It possesses many flagellae.
D)It is excreted in feces.
Q2) The structure of a virus includes:
A)a cell wall and membrane
B)metabolic enzymes for replication
C)a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
D)a slime capsule and cilia
Q3) What does bacteremia refer to?
A)numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
B)uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
C)multiple infections,primary and secondary,established in the body
D)small numbers of microbes temporarily present in the blood
Q4) A bacterial endospore can:
A)also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium
B)exist in latent form inside a host cell
C)reproduce very rapidly
D)survive high temperatures and dry environment
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A)thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
B)headache and lethargy
C)nausea and constipation
D)alopecia and weight loss
Q2) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A)chemotherapy cannot be used
B)signs and symptoms are absent
C)complications are evident
D)metastases occur
Q3) Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
A)alopecia
B)bone marrow depression
C)nausea and vomiting
D)weight loss
Q4) A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
A)persistent,unusual bleeding
B)a change in bowel habits
C)sudden development of fever,nausea,and diarrhea
D)a change in shape,color,or surface of a skin lesion
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serum potassium levels are affected by:
1)ADH
2)aldosterone
3)serum H+ levels
4)insulin levels
A)2 only
B)1,2
C)1,3
D)2,3,4
E)1,2,3
Q2) What does acidosis cause?
A)CNS hyperexcitability and nervousness
B)hypokalemia
C)CNS depression and drowsiness
D)hypernatremia
Q3) Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations?
A)increased carbonic acid
B)decreased carbonic acid
C)increased bicarbonate ion
D)decreased bicarbonate ion
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A)The effects are obvious at birth.
B)There is a test for the defective gene.
C)There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D)The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Q2) When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality,the result is called a:
A)chromosomal disorder
B)developmental disorder
C)multifactorial disorder
D)single-gene disorder
Q3) Blood tests are primarily performed on neonates in order to:
A)determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies
B)commence immediate treatment for metabolic abnormalities
C)identify the presence of any inherited disorders
D)rule out the presence of any infection
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Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity in adolescents is:
A)determined by calculating Body Mass Index (BMI)
B)a significant factor in a teen's self-image
C)related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks,"fast foods"
D)associated with lack of regular physical activities
E)All the above are correct.
Q2) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A)a refusal to eat
B)extreme weight loss
C)alternating binge-eating and purging
D)chronic diarrhea
Q3) The biologic changes associated with adolescence result are stimulated primarily by:
A)the peripheral nervous system
B)the thalamus
C)increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone
D)the pituitary gland
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10
Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the likely cause of painless,bright red,vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
A)ectopic pregnancy
B)abruptio placentae
C)disseminated intravascular coagulation
D)placenta previa
Q2) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A)hCG
B)progesterone
C)AFP
D)estrogen
Q3) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all the following EXCEPT:
A)compression of the urinary bladder
B)restricted inspiratory volume
C)abdominal pain
D)varicose veins
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11
Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Q1) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A)widespread vascular degeneration
B)cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C)hereditary factors
D)increased immune surveillance
Q2) With advancing age,the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A)irregular impulse conduction in the heart
B)reduced number of collagen fibres to support cardiac muscle
C)vascular degeneration leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis
D)heart valves become thin and weak
E)lower blood pressure and slower pulse
Q3) All are physiologic changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A)reduced skeletal muscle mass
B)degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine
C)increased Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
D)reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying
E)thinner dermis and decreased subcutaneous tissue
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Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1)orthostatic hypotension
2)increased blood pressure and heart rate
3)increased risk of thrombi and emboli
4)rapid,deep respirations
A)1,2
B)1,3
C)2,4
D)3,4
Q2) Which of the following is/are common effect(s)of prolonged immobility in children?
A)delayed linear growth
B)contractures and deformities involving the hips,spine,legs and feet
C)skeletal muscle weakness
D)a,c
E)a,b,c
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13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Q1) A serious consequence of a major disaster,first recognized in war veterans is:
A)stress ulcers
B)delayed tissue healing
C)posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)cancer
Q2) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1)glycogenesis
2)bronchodilation
3)vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera
4)decreased metabolic rate
A)1,2
B)2,3
C)2,4
D)3,4
Q3) In which of the following disorders is stress NOT considered to be an exacerbating factor?
A)cystic fibrosis
B)rheumatoid arthritis
C)herpes simplex
D)multiple sclerosis
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
A)the reticular formation
B)the corticospinal tract
C)the spinothalamic tract
D)the relevant dermatome
Q2) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
Q3) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A)pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal,chemical,or physical means
B)spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin
C)responsible for the state of arousal with pain
D)useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body
Q4) Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and particularly useful in treating:
A)severe pain
B)pain caused by inflammation
C)intracranial pain
D)pain in young infants
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A)antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly
B)a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken
C)a large dose of a drug affects the central nervous system
D)an individual involuntarily develops a habit
Q2) When an increased dosage of a drug causes toxic effects,it is called:
A)synergism
B)neurostimulant
C)overdose
D)detoxification
Q3) Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?
A)Antabuse
B)methadone
C)cocaine
D)diazepam
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A)bone and cartilage
B)skeletal and smooth muscle
C)peripheral and central neurons
D)epithelial tissue and bone marrow
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia,the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A)body core temperature is very high
B)skeletal muscle spasms occur
C)hypovolemia and fainting occur
D)the cool-down process is too rapid
Q3) Inhalants can be:
A)a particulate such as asbestos
B)gaseous,such as sulfur dioxide
C)a solvent,such as benzene
D)a,c
E)a,b,c
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Q1) Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by:
A)chiropractors
B)naturopaths
C)homeopaths
D)osteopaths
Q2) What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
A)antagonism
B)beneficial
C)synergism
D)potentiation
Q3) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A)increase the effectiveness of selected drugs
B)prolong the action of a drug
C)act as an antidote when necessary
D)speed up the excretion of a drug
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18
Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high percentage of blast cells in the leukocyte population indicates a poor prognosis for an individual with:
A)Hodgkin's lymphoma
B)acute myelogenous leukemia
C)myelodysplastic syndrome
D)multiple myeloma
Q2) Secondary polycythemia may be associated with:
A)frequent angina attacks
B)certain types of anemia
C)severe chronic bronchitis
D)renal disease
Q3) In cases of polycythemia vera,blood pressure is elevated due to:
A)increased blood volume
B)frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation
C)congested spleen and bone marrow
D)increased renin and aldosterone secretions
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
A)Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
B)Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
C)The ventricles contract before the atria.
D)Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
Q2) What indicates compensation for shock?
A)increased heart rate and oliguria
B)lethargy and decreased responsiveness
C)warm,dry,flushed skin
D)weak,thready pulse
Q3) Which is the best definition of congestive heart failure?
A)cessation of all cardiac activity
B)inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body
C)insufficient circulating blood in the body
D)the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) Aspiration pneumonia is usually caused by aspiration of:
A)sharp pointed objects
B)solid round objects
C)water
D)liquids such as oils or milk
Q2) What are typical pathological changes with bronchiectasis?
A)bronchospasm and increased mucus secretion
B)adhesions and fibrosis in the pleural membranes
C)airway obstructions and weak,dilated bronchial walls
D)fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position
Q3) Hemoptysis is a significant sign of:
A)pleural effusion
B)pulmonary embolus
C)pulmonary edema
D)atelectasis
Q4) Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
A)Mycoplasma pneumonia
B)Streptococcus pneumonia
C)Legionella pneumophila
D)Pneumocystis carinii
21
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are (a)manifestation(s)of hemolytic jaundice?
A)increased unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
B)increased bleeding tendencies
C)pale stool and dark urine
D)elevated liver enzymes in the blood
Q2) An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:
A)activate pepsinogen
B)activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
C)activate bile salts
D)produce mucus
Q3) Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?
A)blood incompatibility between mother and child
B)there is damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process
C)poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin
D)the immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough
Q4) Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
A)It usually appears as polyp or protruding mass.
B)Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
C)Genetics or geographic area does not affect the incidence.
D)It is usually diagnosed in an early stage because of pyloric obstruction.
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Q1) Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)encephalopathy
B)congestive heart failure
C)osteodystrophy
D)azotemia and acidosis
Q2) Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
A)development of hypercalcemia
B)deficit of parathyroid hormone
C)failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
D)excessive loss of phosphate ion
Q3) Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?
A)polycystic kidney
B)horseshoe kidney
C)hypoplasia of the kidney
D)vesicoureteral reflux
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Q1) In a case of bacterial meningitis,where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
A)involving the pia,arachnoid,and surface of the entire brain
B)in the dura mater and epidural space
C)at the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes
D)primarily around the spinal cord
Q2) Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
A)between the double layers of the dura mater
B)in the subdural space
C)in the subarachnoid space
D)through the arachnoid villi
Q3) Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a declaration of "brain death"?
A)no activity on EEG
B)absence of all reflexes
C)no spontaneous respirations
D)presence of any head injury
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A)impaired ventilation
B)cognitive impairment
C)poor control of eye movement
D)weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs
Q2) Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia?
A)disorganized thought processes,short attention span,delusions
B)lack of energy and motivation,poor concentration,insomnia
C)hyperventilation,tachycardia,intense anxiety
D)memory loss,mood swings,hostile behavior
Q3) All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:
A)hypoglycemia
B)severe acidosis
C)brain abscess
D)high fever in young child
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
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25
Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Q1) In a case of acute otitis media,what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
A)infection of the external ear
B)obstruction of the auditory tube
C)rupture of the tympanic membrane
D)spread of infection into the mastoid cells
Q2) Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
A)nystagmus
B)astigmatism
C)hyperopia
D)strabismus
Q3) The lens and cornea are nourished by:
A)small capillaries
B)tears
C)vitreous humor
D)aqueous humor
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Diabetic retinopathy results from:
A)degeneration of large blood vessels supplying the eye
B)abnormal metabolism in the lens of the eye
C)neuropathy affecting the optic nerve
D)obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels
Q2) Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
A)Type I diabetics
B)Type II diabetics
C)patients with a poor stress response
D)those with a regular exercise and meal plan
Q3) Which characteristic of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNK)differentiates it from diabetic ketoacidosis?
A)Dehydration is less severe.
B)Ketonuria is not present.
C)It only develops in Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
D)CNS depression develops.
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Q1) What is a common outcome of fibrosis,calcification,and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
A)damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B)paraplegia
C)impaired heart and lung function
D)rigidity,postural changes,and osteoporosis
Q2) Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
A)non-weight-bearing exercises
B)dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
C)transplants of osteoblasts
D)avoidance of all hormones
Q3) Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
A)a sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
B)severe hypercalcemia
C)mild trauma to the toes
D)development of a tophus
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Q1) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo:
A)large red painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B)small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C)red,swollen painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D)firm raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Q2) Which disease is manifested by large vesicles that coalesce and rupture?
A)pemphigus
B)discoid lupus erythematosus
C)lichen planus
D)scleroderma
Q3) What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
A)severe pain around the mouth
B)ruptured or crusted vesicles
C)fever,headache,and fatigue
D)mild tingling along the nerve or on the mouth
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?
A)It forms a mature ovarian follicle.
B)It secretes hCG.
C)It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last half of the menstrual cycle.
D)It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
Q2) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A)development of malignancy
B)irregular menstrual cycles
C)interference with ovulation
D)abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Q3) Why does frequency occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A)increased volume of dilute urine
B)irritation of the bladder and urethra
C)impaired micturition reflex
D)incomplete emptying of the bladder
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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