Pathophysiology for Allied Health Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology for Allied Health provides students with a foundational understanding of the physiological processes underlying common diseases and disorders affecting the human body. The course focuses on the mechanisms by which normal body systems are altered in various pathological conditions, exploring topics such as inflammation, infection, immune response, and organ system dysfunction. Emphasis is placed on the clinical manifestations, progression, and potential complications of diseases most frequently encountered by allied health professionals. Through case studies and application-based learning, students will develop the critical thinking skills necessary to recognize and interpret disease processes, supporting their roles in diagnosis, treatment, and patient education within healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/176
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called:
A) acute.
B) latent.
C) chronic.
D) manifestation.
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
A) follow cancer screening guidelines.
B) use sun block agents whenever exposed.
C) participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
D) choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
A) The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
B) The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
C) Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
D) The global search for emerging diseases
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2431
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?
A) Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing
B) Drowsiness and general lethargy
C) Increased nervous system irritability
D) Decreased urine pH
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na<sup>+</sup> levels?
A) ADH
B) Aldosterone
C) Serum H<sup>+</sup> levels
D) serum K<sup>+</sup> levels
Answer: B
Q3) Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body:
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 4%
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2432
Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by:
A) chiropractors.
B) naturopaths.
C) homeopaths.
D) osteopaths.
Answer: D
Q2) Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
A) immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
B) prevent gastric irritation.
C) ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
D) cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
Answer: B
Q3) Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Sublingual
D) Intravenous
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2433
Sample Questions
Q1) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A) tension
B) sinus
C) migraine
D) intracranial
Q2) Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a specific area of the body is referred to as:
A) chronic pain.
B) central pain.
C) cardiovascular pain.
D) ischemic pain.
Q3) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2434
Sample Questions
Q1) One goal for current research in tissue engineering is to:
A) create a functional replacement tissue when regeneration is not possible.
B) adapt cells from the injured organ to produce replacement tissue.
C) design a nonliving synthetic replacement tissue.
D) use stem cells as a temporary covering for damaged tissue.
Q2) An abscess contains:
A) serous exudate.
B) purulent exudate.
C) fibrinous exudate.
D) hemorrhagic exudate.
Q3) Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury?
1) Pain
2) Local vasoconstriction
3) Increased capillary permeability
4) Pallor
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2435
Sample Questions
Q1) The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:
A) severe anemia.
B) secondary infections.
C) asthma.
D) emphysema.
Q2) The "incubation period" refers to the time period between:
A) entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
B) the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
C) the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
D) the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.
Q3) A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
A) A dry environment
B) An acidic medium
C) Air at a temperature less than 61° F/16° C
D) The absence of oxygen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2436
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
A) It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
B) It may result from ingested foods.
C) Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
D) A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
A) a chronic allergic condition.
B) development of an immune-deficient state.
C) a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
D) immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.
Q3) An autoimmune disease is:
A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
A) Hypoplasia of the thymus
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Immunosuppressive drugs
D) Atrophy of the lymph nodes
Page 9
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2437
Sample Questions
Q1) How are antiviral drugs effective in treating a viral infection?
A) They destroy the virus if administered for at least 2 weeks.
B) They limit the acute stage and viral shedding.
C) They prevent any systemic effects of viruses.
D) They prevent any secondary bacterial infection.
Q2) What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Viral infection
B) Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin
C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
D) Frequent hypersensitivity reactions
Q3) Systemic effects of acute necrotizing fasciitis include:
A) low-grade fever and malaise.
B) toxic shock and disorientation.
C) mild nausea and vomiting.
D) headache and difficulty breathing.
Q4) Which of the following statements applies to impetigo?
A) Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms.
B) The cause is usually a virus.
C) The infection is highly contagious.
D) Scar tissue is common following infection.
Page 10
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2438
Sample Questions
Q1) The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
A) excessive bone movement.
B) severe ischemia and tissue necrosis.
C) malunion or nonunion.
D) fat emboli to form.
Q2) What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
A) The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B) The wider joint space
C) Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D) Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Q3) Which of the following describes a Colles' fracture?
A) The distal radius is broken.
B) The distal fibula is broken.
C) A vertebra appears crushed.
D) A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2439
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic tests would be within the normal range for an individual with hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding time
B) Coagulation time
C) PTT time
D) Prothrombin time
Q2) What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
A) Radiation
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy
Q3) Why is excessive bleeding a common occurrence with acute leukemia?
A) Deficit of calcium ions
B) Impaired production of prothrombin and fibrinogen
C) Decreased platelets
D) Dysfunctional thrombocytes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2440
Sample Questions
Q1) The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
A) Reed-Sternberg system.
B) sequential staging system.
C) Ann Arbor system.
D) differential landmark system.
Q2) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
Q3) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2441
Sample Questions
Q1) Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because:
A) leg muscles are painful, restricting movement.
B) edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area.
C) emboli form in damaged veins, leading to local ischemia.
D) valves in veins restrict blood flow.
Q2) In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?
A) Veins of the legs and feet
B) Jugular veins
C) Pulmonary capillaries
D) Blood vessels of the liver and spleen
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Second-degree heart block
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2442
Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
A) The kidneys eliminating more bicarbonate ions
B) The kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions
C) The kidneys reabsorbing more hydrogen ions
D) An increase in respiratory rate
Q2) Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
A) can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.
B) promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the lungs.
C) causes paraneoplastic syndrome.
D) increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs.
Q3) Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
A) insufficient surfactant production.
B) incomplete expiration shortly after birth.
C) retention of fluid in the lungs after birth.
D) immature neural control of respirations.
Q4) Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:
A) cause pulmonary edema.
B) cause hypocapnia.
C) increase lung expansion.
D) decrease venous return to the heart.
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2443
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
A) Erratic diastolic pressure
B) Decreasing systolic pressure
C) Systolic and diastolic pressures decreasing proportionately
D) Increasing pulse pressure
Q2) An epidural hematoma is located between the:
A) dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
B) dura mater and the skull.
C) arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
D) pia mater and the brain.
Q3) What are the characteristic changes in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer's disease?
A) Cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
B) Increased acetylcholine (ACh) and decreased GABA and serotonin levels
C) Obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex
D) Vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2444
Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the:
A) left optic nerve.
B) right optic nerve.
C) left occipital lobe.
D) right occipital lobe.
Q2) What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
A) Increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
B) Movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
C) Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
D) Damage to the optic nerve and meninges
Q3) An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?
A) Sensorineural
B) Conduction
C) Semiacute
D) Inflammatory
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2445
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
1) If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar.
2) If unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%).
3) Treat immediately with insulin.
4) Give large quantity of clear fluids for shock.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Severe impairment of all aspects of growth and development, including difficulty feeding, mental retardation, and stunted skeletal growth, are associated with:
A) myxedema.
B) Cushing's syndrome.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) cretinism.
E) Graves' disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2446
Sample Questions
Q1) What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
A) Acute infection is present.
B) Chronic infection has developed.
C) Liver failure is in progress.
D) The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is occurring.
Q2) Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
A) It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII.
B) It is entirely voluntary.
C) It is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus.
D) It does not affect respiration.
Q3) Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
A) Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
B) Severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin
C) Hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia
D) Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2447
Sample Questions
Q1) The normal pH of urine is:
A) 7.35-7.45.
B) 4.5- 8.0.
C) 1.5-7.5.
D) 1.0-7.0.
Q2) What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?
A) Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
B) Pyuria and leucopenia
C) Hypertension and heart failure
D) Gross hematuria and pyuria
Q3) Which disease would cause an increased ASO titer and elevated serum ASK?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Polycystic kidney
Q4) Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
A) Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity
B) Hypotension and increased urine output
C) Development of decompensated acidosis
D) Very low GFR and increased serum urea
Page 20
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2448
Sample Questions
Q1) Specific genetic links have been shown for:
1) cervical cancer.
2) testicular cancer.
3) breast cancer.
4) prostatic cancer
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?
A) A positive Pap test
B) Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting
C) Infection resistant to treatment
D) Painful intercourse
Q3) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A) Development of malignancy
B) Irregular menstrual cycles
C) Interference with ovulation
D) Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2449
Sample Questions
Q1) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A) chemotherapy cannot be used.
B) signs and symptoms are absent.
C) complications are evident.
D) metastases occur.
Q2) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A) thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
B) headache and lethargy.
C) nausea and constipation.
D) alopecia and weight loss.
Q3) What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
A) Epithelial cells
B) Skeletal muscle cells
C) Nerve tissue
D) Collagen and fibrous tissue
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2450
Sample Questions
Q1) Blood tests are performed on neonates primarily to:
A) determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies.
B) identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.
C) identify the presence of any inherited disorders.
D) rule out the presence of any infection.
Q2) What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual's cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
A) Pedigree
B) Punnett squares
C) Karyotype
D) Genotype
Q3) A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:
A) autosome.
B) genotype.
C) meiosis.
D) mutation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2451
Sample Questions
Q1) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
Q2) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2452
Sample Questions
Q1) Three factors common to metabolic syndrome include:
A) presence of significant abdominal fat mass, changes in glucose metabolism, and changes in lipoprotein metabolism.
B) increased fat mass throughout the body, changes in glucose metabolism, and delayed sexual maturation.
C) significant increase of fat on hips and thighs, delayed linear growth, and change in calcium and vitamin D metabolism.
D) BMI at the 85th percentile, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension.
Q2) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A) sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
B) abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test.
C) the causative bacteria in the saliva.
D) extreme fatigue and malaise.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2453
Sample Questions
Q1) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
Q2) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased estrogen secretion.
B) genetic factors.
C) sedentary lifestyle.
D) decreased parathyroid hormone.
Q3) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the eyeball becomes less elastic, thus preventing accommodation and resulting in:
A) presbyopia.
B) cataracts.
C) glaucoma.
D) damage to the retina.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2454
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
Q2) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) nausea.
D) increased rate of peristalsis.
Q3) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A) Decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B) Increased retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Inability to sneeze forcefully
D) Stasis of secretions in the lungs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2455
Sample Questions
Q1) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
Q3) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2456
Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A) hereditary factors.
B) disease requiring certain prescription drugs.
C) easy access to many kinds of drugs.
D) increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress.
E) increased work productivity.
Q2) Which of the following is/are NOT a common sign(s) of withdrawal?
A) Irritability
B) Respiratory depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Psychotic episodes and convulsions
E) Tremors
Q3) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2457
Sample Questions
Q1) During the development of hyperthermia, the stage of heat stroke is marked by:
A) shock and coma.
B) hypervolemia and headache.
C) diaphoresis and decreasing body temperature.
D) dizziness, fainting, and headache.
Q2) Which of the following is a potential effect of a bite or sting?
A) Immediate heart failure
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Bone marrow damage
Q3) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A) Bone and cartilage
B) Skeletal and smooth muscle
C) Peripheral and central neurons
D) Epithelial tissue and bone marrow
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.