Pathology for Health Professions Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathology for Health Professions provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and principles of pathology as they relate to various health professions. The course examines the mechanisms of disease, including cellular adaptations, injury, inflammation, neoplasia, and the physiological impact of major systemic disorders. Emphasis is placed on the etiology, pathogenesis, morphological changes, and clinical significance of common diseases encountered in healthcare settings. Students will develop an understanding of how pathological processes influence diagnostic, therapeutic, and preventive practices, preparing them to integrate this knowledge effectively in clinical decision-making and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs within an infarct of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Pancreas
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of necrosis is found in granulomas of tuberculosis?
A) Coagulation necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common cause of delayed healing of a skin wound caused by a traffic accident?
A) Lack of vitamin B
B) Lack of vitamin C
C) Zinc deficiency
D) Infection
E) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
Q2) Which vitamin is known to prevent scurvy and promote wound healing?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin C
E) Vitamin D
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
A) A blood
B) B blood
C) AB blood
D) O blood
E) AO blood
Answer: C
Q2) Antibodies are produced by:
A) B lymphocytes
B) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Plasma cells
E) Eosinophils
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect of a DNA repair enzyme?
A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Hereditary polyposis coli
C) Xeroderma pigmentosum
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q2) Teratomas originate from:
A) Germ cells of the ovary
B) Brain cells
C) Thyroid cells
D) Endocrine cells of the pancreas
E) Fallopian tubes
Q3) Hodgkin's lymphoma is a neoplasm that typically involves the:
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Heart
D) Liver
E) Lymph nodes
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tall,slightly effeminate male with eunuchoid body proportions and gynecomastia is found to have a 47,XXY karyotype.This presentation is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Marfan's syndrome
E) Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy
Q2) Cystic fibrosis may present in newborns with signs of:
A) Dehydration
B) Meconium peritonitis
C) Malabsorption
D) Diarrhea
E) Bronchiectasis
Q3) The agents that cause fetal abnormalities are called:
A) Trophoblasts
B) Homeobox genes
C) Organogenesis
D) Teratology
E) Teratogens
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proteinaceous meshwork that holds a thrombus together is composed of:
A) Collagen
B) Elastic fibers
C) Fibrin
D) Fibrinogen
E) Plasmin
Q2) Shock resulting from massive bleeding is best classified as:
A) Hypotonic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Neurogenic
E) Endotoxemic
Q3) Melena is a typical complication of:
A) Rectal ulcer
B) Gastric ulcer
C) Skin ulcer
D) Heart failure
E) Venous thrombosis
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infarction of the posterior half of the interventricular septum is caused by an occlusion of the:
A) Main trunk of the left coronary artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D) Right coronary artery
E) Coronary sinus
Q2) The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:
A) Bacterial endocarditis
B) Viral endocarditis
C) Fungal myocarditis
D) Parasitic endocarditis
E) Pulmonary embolism
Q3) Septal defects produce a distinct:
A) Low-pitched systolic heart murmur
B) High-pitched systolic heart murmur
C) Low-pitched diastolic heart murmur
D) High-pitched diastolic heart murmur
E) Absence of sound during the systolic phase of contraction
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major pulmonary complication of congenital alpha -antitrypsin deficiency is:
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Atelectasis
D) Emphysema
E) Mesothelioma
Q2) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:
A) Asbestosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction
D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction
E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis
Q3) Attacks of intrinsic asthma may be precipitated by:
A) Exercise
B) Exposure to exogenous allergens
C) Daily use of Tylenol
D) Corticosteroids
E) Hay fever
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aplastic anemia is most often:
A) Idiopathic
B) Secondary to viral infection
C) Radiation induced
D) Drug induced
E) Immune mediated
Q2) Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Q3) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are common symptoms or complications of duodenal ulcer except:
A) Hematemesis
B) Melena
C) Vomiting
D) Epigastric pain
E) Carcinoma
Q2) The changes typical of Crohn's disease are found most often in the:
A) Anus
B) Rectum
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Transverse colon
E) Terminal ileum
Q3) Which of the following is a life-threatening condition that occurs in the lower intestinal tract?
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Gangrenous appendicitis
C) Rotavirus
D) Giardia lamblia
E) Esophageal varices
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Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary sclerosing cholangitis affects primarily:
A) Intercellular bile ductules along the liver cell plates
B) Small intrahepatic bile ductules
C) Small intrahepatic bile ducts
D) Extrahepatic bile ducts
E) Gallbladder
Q2) In the preantibiotic era the most common cause of pylephlebitic abscesses of the liver was:
A) Peptic ulcer
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Acute appendicitis
E) Intestinal tuberculosis
Q3) In chronic liver failure there is a marked decrease of blood:
A) Hemoglobin
B) Bilirubin
C) Immunoglobulin G
D) Immunoglobulin M
E) Albumin
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fat necrosis typically found in and around the pancreas in acute pancreatitis is caused by a release of:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Pepsin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q2) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
Q3) Histologically,most carcinomas of the pancreas are classified as:
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Oat cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Transitional cell carcinoma
E) Acinic cell carcinoma
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who develop chronic renal failure or end-stage renal disease require:
A) Nephrectomy
B) Dialysis
C) Blood transfusions
D) Corticosteroid treatments
E) Ultrasonic targeting
Q2) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) The most important developmental disorder of the urinary tract is known as:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) One-sided renal agenesis
E) Glomerular disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
Q2) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
Q3) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate:
A) Occurs mostly in old age
B) Occurs more often in castrated men
C) Is caused by HPV
D) Is related to HIV infection
E) Is a squamous cell carcinoma
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is part of the external female genitalia?
A) Vagina
B) Vulva
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Fallopian tube
Q2) In addition to the stage of the tumor,the most important prognostic factor for women with endometrial carcinoma is:
A) Age
B) Presence of endocrine risk factors
C) Obesity
D) Hypertension
E) History of irregular menstrual periods
Q3) A cystic ovarian lesion filled with clear,straw-colored fluid,showing multiple peritoneal metastases,is most likely a:
A) Mucinous cystadenoma
B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
E) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breast secretes milk in response to hormonal stimulation with:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
E) Aldosterone
Q2) Which statement is not true regarding breast cancer in males?
A) Most men do not think that they can develop breast cancer.
B) Most men do not perform breast self-examination.
C) Breast cancer in males is less common than in females.
D) Males usually have a worse prognosis than females.
E) Breast cancer in males has different histologic features than breast cancer in women.
Q3) The developmental abnormality that refers to the congenital absence of the breast is known as:
A) Accessory breast tissue
B) Polythelia
C) Polymastia
D) Amastia
E) Anumerary breasts
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is:
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid hyperplasia
D) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome
Q2) Hypocalcemic tetany is most often secondary to:
A) Neck surgery
B) Autoimmune disease
C) Infectious disease
D) Benign tumors
E) Hyperparathyroidism
Q3) The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis releases:
A) Gonadotropins
B) ACTH
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Thyrotropin
E) Prolactin
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that have developed resistance to antibiotics have become a major source of hospital-acquired infections.The most prominent is:
A) MRSA
B) AIDS
C) Staphylococci
D) Streptococci
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) In patients with burns,to estimate the chances for survival and to determine appropriate treatment modalities health care workers utilize the:
A) Rule of three
B) Rule of fives
C) Rule of seven
D) Rule of nines
E) Rule of twelves
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which malignant tumor is composed of neoplastic cartilage cells that are insensitive to chemotherapy?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Paget's disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Chondroma
Q2) A tumor in a 15-year-old boy was diagnosed in the diaphysis of the tibia. On x-ray examination,it had a sunburst appearance and histologically it was composed of a uniform population of small blue cells.This tumor is a(n):
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Giant cell tumor
D) Ewing's sarcoma
E) Metastasis from a lung cancer
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21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congenital myopathies affect infants to the point that they cannot hold up their head. This disorder is also known as:
A) Floppy neck syndrome
B) Floppy arm syndrome
C) Floppy baby syndrome
D) Atrophy myopathies
E) Becker's dystrophy
Q2) Which of the following is a typical "upper neuron injury"?
A) Polymyositis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Spinal cord injury caused by traffic accident
D) Diabetic neuropathy
E) Lead poisoning
Q3) Frontal baldness,testicular atrophy,and muscle spasm are typical of which autosomal dominant muscular dystrophy?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb-girdle
E) Myotonic
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tabes dorsalis is characterized by:
A) Atrophy in frontal (motor) cortex
B) Atrophy of basal ganglia
C) Hypertrophy of putamen
D) Atrophy of anterior horns of the spinal cord
E) Atrophy of the posterior columns of the spinal cord
Q2) Which form of brain injury does not cause significant macroscopic or microscopic changes in the brain?
A) Brain concussion
B) Brain contusion
C) Brain laceration
D) Coup lesion
E) Contrecoup lesion
Q3) The most common location of glioblastoma multiforme is:
A) Cerebrum
B) Pons
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
E) Spinal cord
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structural congenital abnormalities of the eyes are common consequences of intrauterine infections with pathogens that cause:
A) AIDS
B) Herpes simplex 2
C) Mumps
D) TORCH syndrome
E) Rubella
Q2) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
Q3) Hard exudates,macular stars,and papilledema caused by arterial hypertension are best diagnosed by:
A) Measuring intraocular pressure
B) Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus
C) Measuring pupillary reflexes
D) Measuring vision with vision charts
E) Biopsy of the cornea
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Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ear is connected to the nasopharynx by the:
A) Internal auditory canal
B) External auditory canal
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Eustachian tube
E) Stapes
Q2) Accumulation of fluid in the inner ear is known as:
A) Purulent otitis media
B) Purulent otitis externa
C) Acute otitis media
D) Serous otitis media
E) Serous otitis externa
Q3) The tympanic cavity is part of the:
A) Auricle
B) External ear
C) Auditory meatus
D) Middle ear
E) Internal ear
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