Pathology for Health Professions Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Pathology for Health Professions offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of disease processes and their impact on human health. The course explores the causes, mechanisms, and effects of various diseases at the cellular, tissue, and organ levels, emphasizing their clinical significance in health professions. Students will learn to recognize the basic pathological changes associated with common medical conditions, understand the terminology used in pathology, and appreciate the relevance of pathological findings in patient assessment and management. Practical case studies and laboratory illustrations enhance the learning experience, bridging the gap between theory and clinical practice for students pursuing careers in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of ATP production by hypoxia causes all of the following except:
A) Increased production of lactic acid in the cytoplasm
B) Degranulation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dilation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Swelling of the mitochondria
E) Alkalinization of the hyaloplasm
Answer: E
Q2) Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs within an infarct of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Pancreas
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Decreased vascular permeability
C) Accumulation of neutrophils
D) Accumulation of platelets
E) Activation of the complement system
Answer: A
Q2) Aspirin can inhibit some aspects of inflammation by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandin and thromboxane
C) Serotonin
D) Hageman factor
E) Arachidonic acid
Answer: B
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common feature of AIDS?
A) Burkitt's lymphoma
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Kaposi's sarcoma
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the largest immunoglobulin,whose function is to neutralize microorganisms?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
E) IgD
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?
A) Carcinoma of the lung
B) Carcinoma of the liver
C) Carcinoma of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Malignant brain tumors
Q2) Workers employed in the chemical industry and exposed to high levels of aniline dyes are at increased risk of developing cancer of the:
A) Brain
B) Lung
C) Stomach
D) Urinary bladder
E) Testis
Q3) Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for malignant tumors originating in the:
A) Brain
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Uterus
E) Thyroid
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Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which congenital deficiency occurs when an inborn error of protein metabolism causes the inability to metabolize phenylalanine into tyrosine?
A) Hunter's syndrome
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Niemann-Pick disease
D) Gaucher's disease
E) Phenylketonuria
Q2) The most important intracranial complication of neonatal respiratory syndrome is:
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Periventricular hemorrhage, possibly expanding into a hematocephalus
C) Calcification of the basal ganglia
D) Kernicterus
E) Microcephaly
Q3) Children born with a fragile X chromosome suffer from:
A) Muscle weakness
B) Blindness
C) Spinal cord deformities
D) Mental retardation
E) Glucose intolerance
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial hemorrhage can be differentiated from venous hemorrhage by noting that the blood is:
A) Bright red and flows in a pulsating manner
B) Dark blue and bluish-red and oozes
C) Greenish and rich in bilirubin
D) Yellow and rich in bilirubin
E) Clotting rapidly
Q2) In decompression sickness or caisson disease,the emboli are composed of:
A) Air
B) Fat
C) Platelets
D) Fibrin
E) Plasminogen
Q3) Iron deficiency anemia develops most often as a result of:
A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Metrorrhagia
D) Hemothorax
E) Hemopericardium
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
Q2) Infarction of the posterior half of the interventricular septum is caused by an occlusion of the:
A) Main trunk of the left coronary artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D) Right coronary artery
E) Coronary sinus
Q3) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:
A) Coronary arteries
B) Ascending aorta
C) Thoracic aorta
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Iliac arteries
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the primary cause of atelectasis in premature neonates?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Deficiency of surfactant
C) Compression of the lungs from outside
D) Resorption of air distal to bronchial obstruction
E) Empyema
Q2) Pleural tumors are usually associated with:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pyothorax
D) Pleural effusion
E) Empyema
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
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10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin split products are typically found in the urine of patients who have:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Thrombocytopenia
Q2) All of the following findings are typical of secondary polycythemia except:
A) Increased number of red blood cells in circulation
B) Hyperviscosity of the blood
C) Increased number of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow
D) Increased incidence of thrombi
E) Association with myelodysplastic syndromes
Q3) Which lymphoma is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Q2) Crypt abscesses,serpiginous ulcerations,and inflammatory polyps of the large intestine are typical features of:
A) Diverticulosis coli
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Pseudomembranous colitis
E) Cholera
Q3) The changes typical of Crohn's disease are found most often in the:
A) Anus
B) Rectum
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Transverse colon
E) Terminal ileum
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Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complications of cirrhosis include all of the following except:
A) Ascites
B) Splenomegaly
C) Esophageal varices
D) Hypoalbuminemia
E) Hypogammaglobulinemia
Q2) In Wilson's disease,serum contains decreased amounts of:
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Ferritin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Haptoglobin
Q3) Which hepatitis virus most commonly results in cirrhosis in the United States?
A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
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Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a late complication of acute pancreatitis?
A) Diverticulosis
B) Amyloidosis
C) Pseudocysts
D) Carcinoma of the ducts of the pancreas
E) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Q2) Acute pancreatitis can be induced experimentally by what method?
A) Obstruction of the main pancreatic duct
B) Obstruction of the secondary pancreatic duct
C) Physical injury of the pancreatic acinar cells
D) Drugs that stimulate the production of pancreatic acinar cells
E) Removal of bile from the main pancreatic duct
Q3) The pancreas can be divided into several parts,the largest of which is the:
A) Endocrine part
B) Tail
C) Head
D) Body
E) Accessory part
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solid renal tumor in a 4-year-old child is histologically composed of immature cells reminiscent of fetal tubules.This tumor represents a(n):
A) Renal cell adenoma
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Wilms' tumor
D) Interstitial cell fibroma
E) Teratoma
Q2) Biopsy specimens used to confirm bladder cancer are obtained by:
A) Urine specimen
B) Blood urea nitrogen
C) KUB x-ray examination
D) Cystoscopy
E) Abdominal surgery
Q3) Patients who develop chronic renal failure or end-stage renal disease require:
A) Nephrectomy
B) Dialysis
C) Blood transfusions
D) Corticosteroid treatments
E) Ultrasonic targeting
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old male complains of urinary retention,has an urgency to void but cannot begin to urinate,and has a weak urinary stream or experiences dribbling.The most likely cause is:
A) Cystitis
B) Chlamydia infection
C) Syphilis
D) BPH
E) Prostatic enlargement
Q2) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormality of the placenta characterized by deep penetration of the placental villi into the wall of the uterus is called:
A) Multiple placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Placenta accreta
D) Dichorionic diamniotic placenta
E) Monozygotic pregnancy
Q2) In addition to the stage of the tumor,the most important prognostic factor for women with endometrial carcinoma is:
A) Age
B) Presence of endocrine risk factors
C) Obesity
D) Hypertension
E) History of irregular menstrual periods
Q3) The most important complication of endometriosis is:
A) Vaginal bleeding
B) Infertility
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome (POS)
E) Malignant transformation
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which region of the breast do 50% of breast carcinomas occur?
A) Upper medial quadrant
B) Lower medial quadrant
C) Upper lateral quadrant
D) Lower lateral quadrant
E) Underneath the areola
Q2) Women who have symptoms related to fibrocystic disease report flair up of symptoms if placed on:
A) Oral contraceptives
B) Estrogen replacement therapy
C) Progesterone
D) Fertility hormones
E) Calcium
Q3) Approximately 75% of all the lymph draining from the breast flows into the:
A) Axillary lymph nodes
B) Internal mammary lymph nodes
C) External mammary lymph nodes
D) Substernal lymph nodes
E) Cervical lymph nodes
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuroblastomas have a peak incidence in which age group?
A) 1-5 years
B) 10-15 years
C) 20-25 years
D) 40-45 years
E) 60-65 years
Q2) The C cells of the thyroid secrete:
A) Thyroglobulin
B) Thyroxin
C) Triiodothyronine
D) Calcitonin
E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q3) The most common cause of Cushing's syndrome encountered in medical practice today is:
A) Adenoma of the pituitary
B) Adenoma of adrenal cortex
C) Adenoma of adrenal medulla
D) Carcinoma of adrenal cortex
E) Exogenous steroids administered by physicians
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that have developed resistance to antibiotics have become a major source of hospital-acquired infections.The most prominent is:
A) MRSA
B) AIDS
C) Staphylococci
D) Streptococci
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) A rash that the typically begins between the toes and spreads locally is known as:
A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea capitis
E) Tinea pedis
Q3) Malignant melanoma may originate from:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Lentigo
D) Urticaria pigmentosa
E) Mycosis fungoides
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteomyelitis of long bones is most often caused by:
A) Viruses
B) Pyogenic cocci
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Fungi
E) Parasites
Q2) The extracellular organic matrix of bones is called:
A) Osteon
B) Osteoid
C) Osteoblast
D) Osteocyte
E) Osteoclast
Q3) Which vitamin is essential for the formation of bones?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
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Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with myasthenia gravis who are given edrophonium,an antagonist of cholinesterase,show:
A) Aggravation of symptoms
B) Complete paralysis
C) Temporary improvement of muscle weakness
D) Reduced levels of circulating antibodies
E) Reduced calcium in blood
Q2) A patient with myasthenia gravis is found to have an anterior mediastinal mass.This mass proves to be a tumor.Most likely it is a:
A) Thyroid adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Smooth muscle cell tumor
E) Thymoma
Q3) Spastic contraction of muscles,known as tetany,is caused by:
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypoparathyroidism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Hyponatremia
E) Hypophosphatemia
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most prominent clinical feature of Alzheimer's disease is:
A) Ataxia
B) Tremor
C) Dementia
D) Aphasia
E) Apraxia
Q2) The most common characteristic of epilepsy is:
A) Apraxia
B) Dementia
C) Seizures
D) Dysphagia
E) Tremors
Q3) Which tumor occurs only in peripheral nerves?
A) Meningioma
B) Oligodendroglioma
C) Schwannoma
D) Medulloblastoma
E) Ependymoma
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related macular degeneration,a common cause of blindness in elderly persons,is:
A) Immune mediated
B) Caused by diabetes
C) Of unknown pathogenesis
D) Found only in myopic persons
E) Caused by high blood pressure
Q2) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
Q3) A primary malignant tumor of the eye in a 3-month-old child is most likely:
A) Melanoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Retinoblastoma
E) Glioblastoma
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tumor accounts for most tumor-related hearing loss?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Acoustic neuroma of cranial nerve VIII
D) Neurilemoma of cranial nerve VII
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q2) Mike is having a hard time hearing and tries to remove some earwax with a toothpick.He suddenly feels a sharp pain and is unable to hear well.Mike has most likely caused what type of injury to what part of the ear?
A) Scratched the inner ear canal
B) Punctured the external ear canal
C) Perforated the tympanic membrane
D) Perforated the Eustachian tube
E) Experienced trauma to the stapes
Q3) Sensory hearing loss may be a consequence of:
A) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
B) Infection of the external auditory canal
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Noise trauma
E) Laceration of the auricle
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