Pathogenic Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathogenic Microbiology explores the biology, genetics, and physiology of microorganisms that cause disease in humans. Emphasizing bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, this course covers the mechanisms of pathogenicity, host-pathogen interactions, and the immune system's role in defense. Students will learn about the epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of infectious diseases, as well as contemporary challenges such as antibiotic resistance and emerging pathogens. The course integrates laboratory techniques for identification and characterization of pathogens, preparing students for advanced studies or careers in healthcare, research, and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 9th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) A parasitologist studies parasites. What does a mycologist study?
A)protozoa
B)how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer
C)the development of chemical substances to treat diseases
D)fungi
Answer: D
Q2) Who first elucidated the structure of DNA?
A)Hershey and Chase
B)Avery, McCarty and MacLeod
C)Watson and Crick
D)Tatum and Beadle
Answer: C
Q3) Bacteriophages are:
A)modified antibiotics that were used in the Soviet Union
B)viruses that attack and kill specific kinds of bacteria including antibiotic resistant bacteria
C) used to introduce genes in gene therapy
D) some of the genes in the human genome
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)Protein-amino acids
B)Nucleic acids-nucleotides
C)Polysaccharides - simple sugars
D)Fats-aldehyde
Answer: D
Q2) What is true about atomic weight?
A)It is the sum of the number of electrons and protons in an atom.
B)The higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond.
C)It is always a whole number.
D)Atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements about solutions is FALSE?
A)The solute is the substance dissolved in a solvent.
B)Left alone on a counter, a solution will separate out.
C)Solutes can consist of atoms, ions or molecules.
D)In cells, water is typically a solvent.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) The counterstain in the endospore stain is _____.
A)malachite green
B)crystal violet
C)safranin
D)methylene blue
Answer: C
Q2) Which stain would be the best choice for detecting mycobacterium (the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy)?
A)simple stain
B)endospore stain
C)acid-fast stain
D)Gram stain
Answer: C
Q3) The technique that involves the evaporation of water from a frozen and fractured specimen is called:
A)shadow casting
B)freeze-etching
C)heat fixation
D)freeze-fracturing
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Which of the following statements about outer membranes is true?
A)It contains an endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide)which is responsible for fever and potentially serious complications in human infections.
B)It prevents the cell from lysing when fluids flow into the cell.
C)Treatment with antibiotics which kill the bacteria will reduce the concentration of endotoxin.
D)It is a space that is very active in cell metabolism
Q2) Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape?
A)Spirochete
B)Coccus
C)Disc
D)Bacillus
Q3) A small comma shaped bacteria is described as being a ________.
A)spirochete
B)bacillus
C)spirillum
D)vibrio
Q4) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of:
A)carrying out photosynthesis
B)only obtaining energy from organic molecules
C)bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle
D)metabolizing without enzymes
Q2) Organisms that can use oxygen for metabolic reactions but can also function in an environment devoid of oxygen are termed _____.
A)aerobes
B)anaerobes
C)aerophiles
D)facultative anaerobes
Q3) The synthesis of DNA,in which small nucleotides are joined together to make a single large molecule would be most correctly described as being a/n ________ reaction.
A)metabolic
B)anabolic
C)catabolic
D)cytobolic
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise?
A)aerotolerant anaerobes
B)facultative anaerobes
C)obligate anaerobes
D)obligate aerobes
Q2) Most bacteria:
A)exhibit synchronous growth under natural conditions
B)divide when a small new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell
C)do not immediately increase in number when placed in a culture
D)immediately begin to divide when placed in a culture
Q3) All of the following are ways microorganisms adapt to limited nutrients except:
A)synthesize increased amount of enzymes for uptake and metabolism of limited nutrients
B)form metabolically active highly resistant endospores
C)synthesize enzymes needed to use a different nutrient source
D)adjust the rate at which they metabolize nutrients
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about mutations is false?
A)A mutation can alter the genotype of an organism without altering the phenotype.
B)Frameshift mutations are typically more serious than point mutations.
C)Spontaneous mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens.
D)Photoreactivation can take place in non-photosynthetic bacteria.
Q2) The Ames test is used to determine if a chemical:
A)increases the rate at which a bacterial cell divides
B)decreases the number of cells in a culture
C)induces mutations in a cell's DNA
D)decreases the ability of a cell to photosynthesize
Q3) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome,the new DNA contains:
A)2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands
B)one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand
C)small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D)two of the above
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
Q2) A viral cycle,which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles,is the:
A)temperate cycle
B)lytic cycle
C)lysogenic cycle
D)prophage cycle
Q3) In Griffith's transformation experiments,which of the following did not take place?
A)Live, capsulated pneumococci killed mice
B)Live unencapsulated bacteria were able to retrieve the DNA from dead encapsulated bacteria and become virulent
C)DNA was transferred from capsulated to unencapsulated bacteria using a bacteriophage
D)Dead, capsulated pneumococci had no effect on mice
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) In the five-kingdom scheme of classification,algae are classified along in the Kingdom:
A)Monera
B)Protista and Fungi
C)Fungi
D)Protista
Q2) The correct order of taxonomic hierarchies (from most broad to most specific)is _____.
A)class, order, family, phylum
B)order, family, class, phylum
C)phylum, class, order, family
D)phylum, class, family, order
Q3) In the five-kingdom system of classification,_____.
A)viruses cannot be classified
B)all prokaryotic organisms are found in the kingdom eubacteria
C)all organisms that can photosynthesize are found in the plant kingdom
D)a domain is a division of a kingdom
Q4) How do lateral gene transfer and symbiosis complicate both the three-domain or five-kingdom treelike structure? Where do viruses,viroids and prions fit in today's taxonomy? Are they classified based on phylogeny or morphology?
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Bacteriophage DNA is transcribed to mRNA during the ________ phase of viral replication.
A)penetration
B)synthesis
C)maturation
D)release
Q2) Temperate phages:
A)do not always undergo a lytic cycle
B)only replicate at certain temperatures
C)are those that cause disease
D)form plaques on bacterial lawns
Q3) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A)prophage, lysogen
B)plaque, lysogen
C)lysogen, prophage
D)prophage, retrovirus
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Protozoa are almost always:
A)multicellular
B)parasitic
C)heterotrophic
D)photosynthetic
Q2) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that:
A)fungi are all unicellular, plants are all multicellular
B)fungi do not have a cell wall, plants have a cell wall
C)fungi cannot photosynthesize, plants can photosynthesize
D)fungi are prokaryotic, plants are eukaryotic
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist?
A)Euglenoids
B)Diatoms
C)Amebozoans
D)Dinoflagellates
Q4) Fungi are classified according to the _____.
A)type of cell wall they posses
B)type of photosynthetic pigments they posses
C)the nature of their sexual cycle
D)the nature of their asexual cycle
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Dry heat does most of its damage against microorganisms by _____.
A)disrupting membrane lipids
B)disrupting hydrogen bonds
C)oxidizing molecules
D)denaturing proteins
Q2) The use of phenol as a standard with which to compare the effectiveness of other chemical disinfectants is referred to as the _____.
A)phenol coefficient
B)phenol concentration
C)phenol effectiveness
D)phenol conditions
Q3) All of the following pertain to either sonic or ultrasonic waves and their properties,except:
A)are sound waves in the audible range
B)may cause cavitation - partial vacuum in a liquid
C)are a practical means of sterilization
D)are a useful means of fragmenting cells to study membranes, ribosomes or enzymes
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following directly pertain to inhibition of cellular protein synthesis by antimicrobial agents?
A)cellular cytoplasm is lost
B)binding and inhibition of RNA polymerase
C)imitation or molecular mimicry of normal molecules
D)interferes with accurate translation of mRNA message
Q2) Imidazoles and triazoles are antimicrobial agents that are effective:
A)bacteriostatic agents
B)bactericidal agents
C)antifungal agents
D)antiviral agents
Q3) Metronidazole:
A)is effective against viruses
B)has no side effects
C)prevents overgrowth of Candida yeast infections
D)is useful in the treatment of amoebas and Giardia
Q4) Describe the targets or action for three of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species
A)does not change the pathogenicity
B)increases its fitness in broth culture
C)can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
D)can decrease the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
Q2) Giardia intestinalis,a protozoan,possesses the following virulence factor.
A)Adhesive disc
B)Aflatoxin
C)Beta-hemolysin
D)Coagulase
Q3) The microorganism Staphylococcus aureus causes which condition?
A)Gas gangrene
B)Botulism
C)Scalded skin syndrome
D)Scarlet fever
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it not possible to demonstrate that leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulates?
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Sexually transmitted diseases are most often spread by what mode of transmission?
A)Direct contact
B)Indirect contact
C)Mechanical vectors
D)Waterborne
Q2) An opportunistic infection acquired from the individual's own microbiota is:
A)nosocomial
B)reservoir
C)exogenous
D)endogenous
Q3) Factors that increase the likelihood of an epidemic include all of the following except:
A)overcrowding
B)migration
C)lack of vaccination
D)access to medical care
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterrorism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Toll-like receptors can distinguish between:
A)nonspecific and specific immune responses
B)Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
C)bacteria versus viruses
D)two of the above
Q2) What occurs in a lymph node?
A)Lymph moves in two directions.
B)Lymph enters sinuses lined by aggregations of B cells.
C)Bacteria are removed by phagocytes and the adaptive immune response is initiated.
D)Only lymphocytes flow through the lymph nodes therefore they are not a site of infection.
Q3) What is the body's first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate?
Q4) The spleen:
A)along with the thymus gland and the tonsils are all lymphoid organs
B)contains lymph nodes that filter microbes from the lymph
C)filters material but does not contain phagocytes
D)two of the above
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 potential hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren't there vaccines for every disease?
Q2) The concentration of antibody needed to bind to and neutralize an antigen is called the:
A)tolerance
B)toxicity
C)titer
D)antitoxin
Q3) Agglutination:
A)is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody
B)leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization
C)requires complement
D)occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles
Q4) Privileged sites:
A)have M cells interspersed between epithelial cells
B)include the uterus, anterior chamber of the eye and testes
C)have especially strong immune responses against viruses
D)are not accessible to most pathogens
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Chapter 18: Immunology Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)is a life threatening condition. Its treatment includes _____.
A)bone marrow transplants
B)immunosuppressive drugs
C)steroids
D)two of the above
Q2) Type IV hypersensitivity involves _____.
A)B cells
B)complement
C)immune complexes
D)TH1 cells
Q3) Which of the following statements about immunological disorders is correct?
A)Bottle-fed infants are less likely to develop food allergies than are breast-fed infants.
B)Primary immunodeficiences include malnutrition and AIDS.
C)Autoimmune disorders are hypersensitivity reactions against self-antigens.
D)Secondary immunodeficiences are genetic or developmental defects.
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Measles (also known as rubeola)could be described by each of the following statements except:
A)not very contagious
B)Koplik's spots seen on cheek mucosa
C)two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections
Q2) Gas gangrene,with gas production leading to tissue necrosis,is due to:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Clostridium perfringens
D)Spirillum minor
Q3) Dermal warts:
A)are more common in older people than children
B)never go away on their own
C)are often treated by freezing the tissue and then excising the wart
D)two of the above
Q4) What is the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Disseminated CMV:
A)always involves the brain and in adults leads to neural damage
B)can occur 1 to 4 months after an organ transplant
C)can lead to severe and often lethal pneumonia in bone marrow transplant patients
D)two of the above
Q2) The acid pH in the vagina is predominantly due to ______ fermenting the _____ present in vaginal cells.
A)Staphylococcus, glycogen
B)Escherichia, glucose
C)Staphylococcus, starch
D)Lactobacillus, glycogen
Q3) All of the following defense mechanisms are present in the urogenital system except:
A)normal flora competing with opportunists
B)sphincter muscles
C)flushing action of fluids
D)high pH
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The presence of Bordetella pertussis is confirmed by _____.
A)beta colonies on a blood agar plate
B)sensitivity to penicillin
C)a reddish pigmented colony
D)a fluorescent antibody stain
Q2) Cyanosis,which may occur during whooping cough,is:
A)a fainting spell
B)a vomiting incident
C)a bluing of the skin
D)formation of a red rash
Q3) Bronchial pneumonia differs from lobar pneumonia in that _____.
A)it only affects old people
B)it starts as a secondary infection
C)it lacks the fibrin deposits
D)two of these choices
Q4) Which of the following statements about diphtheria is incorrect?
A)A prophage carries the exotoxin producing gene.
B)An epidemic of diphtheria killed numerous people in the former Soviet Union.
C)The bacteria are Gram-negative rods.
D)The bacteria are in a palisade arrangement and have metachromatic granules.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which can be found in a peanut butter and jelly sandwich,if moldy peanuts were used to make the peanut butter?
A)Aflatoxin
B)Ergot
C)Amanita
D)two of these choices
Q2) Viral enteritis is caused by:
A)Rotavirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Hepatitis viruses
D)two of these choices
Q3) Echinococcus granulosus is characterized by all of the following except:
A)it is a tapeworm
B)children are infected when their faces are licked by infected dogs
C)may form cysticercus in bladder
D)may form hydatid cysts in vital tissues, like the brain
Q4) Your 14-month old daughter is fussy when you bring her home from daycare.When you change her diaper you are shocked to find diarrhea with blood and mucus.Which pathogen might she have and why did you reach that diagnosis?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) ______ disease is actually the reoccurrence of a rickettsial infection.
A)Zoster
B)Brill-Zinsser
C)Tsutsugamushi
D)Burkitt's lymphoma
Q2) Which term refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood stream?
A)bacteremia
B)septic shock
C)septicemia
D)lymphangitis
Q3) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is characterized by all of the following except:
A)vector is the dog tick, Dermacentor variabilis
B)etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii
C)most cases reported are in the northwest U.S.
D)prominent rash on palms and soles
Q4) Epstein Barr Virus is associated with:
A)Burkitt's lymphoma
B)cervical cancer
C)nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Prions infectivity:
A)can be destroyed by autoclaving for 1 hour
B)is reduced after formaldehyde treatment
C)can be retained in buried brains left for 3 years in soil
D)two of these choices
Q2) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is _____.
A)antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B)dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C)the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D)the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q3) Tetanus is treated by _____.
A)antibiotic therapy
B)antiviral therapy
C)antitoxin therapy
D)two of these choices
Q4) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area that is difficult to get to and where vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which term is correctly matched with its definition?
A)biotic factors - interaction of organisms with other organisms
B)ecology - all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors
C)ecosystem - organisms that are always found in a given environment
D)niche - recycling of life-essential elements and water
Q2) Most denitrification is due to _____.
A)Rhizobium
B)Azotobacter
C)Pseudomonas
D)Nitrosomonas
Q3) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true?
A)Not all living microbes require carbon.
B)Nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes.
C)Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid.
D)Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
Q4) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is:
A)Escherichia coli
B)Salmonella typhi
C)Poliovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Milk naturally contains some antimicrobial substances which include:
A)agglutinins
B)leukocytes
C)lactenin
D)all of these choices
Q2) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect?
A)Single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein.
B)They are used in the production of steroid hormones.
C)They can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste.
D)They are currently used in animal feed.
Q3) All of the following statements are true about bacterial contamination of melons except:
A)cantaloupes are often contaminated because their netted surfaces allow biofilms to form
B)surface pasteurization kills 99.999% of Salmonella but affects the quality of the melon
C)melons can be surface pasteurized
D)about 5% of melons imported into the United States have biofilm layers of Salmonella
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