Organizational Theory
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Course Introduction
Organizational Theory explores the structures, processes, and dynamics that shape how organizations function and adapt in complex environments. The course examines key theoretical perspectives, including classical, human relations, contingency, and modern approaches, to understand how organizations are designed, how power and culture influence behavior, and how organizations respond to change and innovation. Through case studies and practical applications, students will analyze real-world organizational challenges and learn to apply theoretical frameworks to improve organizational effectiveness and strategic decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Emerging Knowledge 5th Edition by Steven L. McShane
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15 Chapters
2246 Verified Questions
2246 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Field of Organizational Behavior
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148 Verified Questions
148 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communications and information systems are two emerging fields from which organizational behavior is now acquiring knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Research indicates that Baby Boomers and Generation-X employees bring the same values and expectations to the workplace.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Corporate social responsibility is most closely related to which of these organizational behavior trends?
A)Workforce diversity
B)Employment relationships
C)Information technology
D)Globalization
E)Workplace values and ethics
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Individual Behavior, Personality, and Values
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139 Verified Questions
139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One problem with the utilitarian principle of ethical decision making is that:
A)not all utilitarian rights are protected by law.
B)there is no agreement on what activities are the greatest benefit to the least well off.
C)it is difficult to predict the 'trickle down' benefits to the least well off in society.
D)it is almost impossible to evaluate the benefits or costs of many decisions.
E)the utilitarian principle is not really a valid ethical principle at all.
Answer: D
Q2) People function better when their _________ has many elements that are compatible with each other and relatively clear.
A)self-concept
B)self-verification
C)self-implication
D)self-esteem
E)self-efficacy
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Perception and Learning in Organizations
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150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to the process of receiving information about and making sense of the world around us?
A)Personality
B)Stereotyping
C)Reinforcement theory
D)Perception
E)Social identity
Answer: D
Q2) Interacting with people from other backgrounds is more likely to minimize perceptual biases when these people have equal status with you throughout the interaction.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Continuous reinforcement provides the most rapid learning of the targeted behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Workplace Emotions, Attitudes and Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emotional labor is defined as any situation in which:
A)you get upset with customers at times when you are supposed to remain calm.
B)you begin to feel burned out from facing too many customers in one day.
C)you don't realize that your emotions are causing you to act differently toward someone than you had intended.
D)all of the above are part of the emotional labor definition.
E)none of the above represents the emotional labor definition.
Q2) When employees have higher job satisfaction they tend to:
A)provide friendlier service to customers.
B)get angry at customers more often than when they are dissatisfied with their jobs.
C)provide the same quality of customer service as when they were dissatisfied with their jobs.
D)provide more consistent service to customers because of their longer employment in the job.
E)do both 'A' and 'D'.
Q3) Job sharing and telework are usually considered ways to reduce stress through work/life balance.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Foundations of Employee Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Voice and the right to appeal are two important practices that influence:
A)the size of outcome valences.
B)a person's innate drives.
C)a person's location in maslow's needs hierarchy.
D)perceptions of procedural justice.
E)whether companies should use 360-degree feedback or just supervisor feedback.
Q2) Research suggests that feedback originating only from the supervisor provides more complete and accurate information than feedback received through a 360-degree process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Maslow's needs hierarchy, the bottom four levels are collectively known as ___________ needs, whereas self-actualization is called a ______________ need.
A)belongingness, infinite
B)fictitious, factual
C)deficiency, growth
D)subordinate, superordinate
E)safety, reward
Q4) Compare and contrast ERG Theory with McClelland's Theory of Learned Needs.
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Chapter 6: Applied Performance Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of job specialization?
A)The quality of work increases.
B)Jobs can be mastered quickly.
C)Employees are more involved with their jobs.
D)The work is less repetitive.
E)Task specialization has no clear advantages to the organization.
Q2) Which of these performance-based rewards tends to create the strongest psychological connection between the individual employee's work effort and the reward received?
A)Profit sharing plan
B)Gainsharing plan
C)Employee stock ownership plan
D)Employee stock option plan
E)None of these rewards offer any psychological connection between the individual employee's work effort and the reward received.
Q3) Job evaluation mainly supports the competency approach to rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast gainsharing with employee share ownership plans.
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Chapter 7: Decision Making and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The contingencies of employee involvement include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)the source of decision knowledge.
B)the decision quantity.
C)the decision structure.
D)the decision commitment.
E)the risk of conflict.
Q2) The creative potential of a person tends to increase with his or her:
A)ability to synthesize information.
B)ability to analyze ideas.
C)ability to apply ideas.
D)ability to be persistent.
E)All of these statements are correct.
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the incubation stage of the creative process?
A)Escalation of commitment
B)Prospect theory effect
C)Convergent thinking
D)Divergent thinking
E)Decision choice
Q4) Describe the rational choice paradigm of decision making.
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Chapter 8: Team Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these team decision-making structures explicitly discourages criticism and debate?
A)Nominal group technique.
B)Delphi method.
C)Brainstorming.
D)All three - brainstorming, Delphi method, and nominal group technique explicitly discourage criticism and debate.
E)Both brainstorming and nominal group technique explicitly discourages criticism and debate.
Q2) A team's effectiveness is partly measured by how well its members' needs are fulfilled.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Knowledge-based trust is based on the belief that the other party will deliver its promises because punishments would be applied if they fail to deliver those promises.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the distinctive features of a typical self-directed team.
Q5) reasons why employees join informal groups in organizational settings.
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Chapter 9: Communicating in Teams and Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management by walking around minimizes the problem of filtering in the communication process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ambiguous language is sometimes necessary to describe situations or concepts that are ill-defined or lack agreement between sender and receiver.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a sender and receiver want to transmit technical information more efficiently, they should:
A)use jargon that they both understand.
B)use filtering.
C)use upward communication coordinators.
D)use nonverbal communication.
E)use idiosyncratic goggles.
Q4) Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: "The communication process is more effective when ambiguity is minimized".
Q5) Should companies try to eliminate grapevine communication? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 10: Power and Influence in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have found that people with power over others have more difficulty empathizing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jason is effective at forming friendships with other people in the organization.Over time, he becomes well known and respected by numerous people in key positions in the organization.Through his networking, Jason has:
A)increased his level of Machiavellianism.
B)reduced his centrality.
C)increased his coercive power.
D)increased his referent power.
E)reduced his visibility.
Q3) Influence is an essential process in organizations through which people coordinate their effort.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referent power is mainly developed through a person's interpersonal skills.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which types of people are more likely to engage in organizational politics?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Conflict and Negotiation in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conflict process begins:
A)when one party intends to interfere with the other's goals.
B)when one party does something that actually interferes with the other party's goals.
C)after the first party does something that causes the second party to take a similar hostile action.
D)when scarce resources, different values, or other conditions exist that potentially causes conflict.
E)when both parties are informed by a third party that they have a potential conflict.
Q2) Negotiators share information more fully by adopting a win-lose orientation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is possible to agree on a common goal yet still experience conflict due to differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The union and management teams are under a deadline to conclude negotiations.Discuss two effects that time will have on the negotiation process.
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13
Chapter 12: Leadership in Organizational Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about leadership is FALSE?
A)Anyone may be a leader at an appropriate time and place.
B)Leaders use power and persuasion to get others to achieve organizational objectives.
C)Scholars began studying leadership after World War II.
D)Effective leaders provide an environment for followers to achieve team or organizational objectives.
E)Organizational behavior scholars have studied leadership from several different perspectives.
Q2) Transactional leaders are mainly change agents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Charismatic leadership refers to:
A)personal traits that provide referent power over others.
B)the same features as transactional leadership.
C)the same features as transformational leadership.
D)the people-oriented behaviors in the behavioral perspective of leadership.
E)any situation where followers attribute positive things to leaders who do not really deserve this credit.
Q4) Are transformational leaders charismatic leaders? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 13: Organizational Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A matrix structure often combines which two forms of departmentalization?
A)Divisional structure and simple structure
B)Network structure and cluster structure
C)Simple structure and hybrid structure
D)Geographic divisional structure and product divisional structure
E)Functional structure and network structure
Q2) One problem with a functional structure is that:
A)it is more difficult to directly supervise employees within each department.
B)it produces higher dysfunctional conflict and poorer coordination.
C)it makes it difficult to permit greater specialization of skills.
D)it prevents companies from creating economies of scale in their pool of talent.
E)employees have difficulty creating career paths within their area of knowledge.
Q3) For many years, Quokka Consumer Corp has had a geographic divisionalized organizational structure.The company is now rethinking the appropriateness of this structure compared to other divisionalized structures.Describe the two other divisionalized structures that Quokka can consider adopting and explanation two reasons why Quokka might want to move away from the geographic structure.
Q4) What role does organizational strategy play in designing organizations?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Organizational Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the first steps in a bicultural audit is to identify the other organization's corporate culture through artifacts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The themes shared most widely by employees represent:
A)the organization's dominant culture.
B)the organization's deculturation process.
C)the organization's counterculture.
D)artifacts held mainly by senior executives in the organization.
E)organizational rituals.
Q3) Artifacts of organizational culture may include the building's design, the way people are greeted and the food served in the company's cafeteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The president of Advanced Systems Corp.wants the company to have a strong organizational culture around a specific set of values.As a vice-president, you are concerned that the president may be trying to strengthen the culture too much thereby creating a corporate cult.Describe three potential problems with having an organizational culture that is too strong.
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Chapter 15: Organizational Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Employee resistance to change most often takes the form of overt work behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to force field analysis, organizational change is more likely to occur by:
A)increasing the driving forces and decreasing the restraining forces.
B)decreasing the process forces and increasing the driving forces.
C)increasing the driving forces and increasing the restraining forces.
D)increasing both the driving forces and the restraining forces.
E)Force field analysis says that none of these will assist organizational change.
Q3) In Lewin's force field analysis model, refreezing involves producing a disequilibrium between the current and future state.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In some situations, resistance to change occurs when employees are worried about the consequences of change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outline the organizational change process based on the action research approach.
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