Organizational Behavior Exam Review
Course Introduction
Organizational Behavior explores the dynamics of how individuals, groups, and structures affect behavior within organizations. This course examines key concepts such as motivation, leadership, team dynamics, decision-making, organizational culture, and communication. Through analysis of real-world cases and the application of behavioral theories, students gain insights into managing and improving workplace effectiveness, employee satisfaction, and organizational performance. The course also addresses current trends and challenges in managing diversity, power, conflict, and change in contemporary organizations.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 14th Edition by Robert L. Mathis
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Chapter 1: Human Resource Management in Organizations
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Q1) Ramone, a human resource manager, works for TelVille Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment. After a promotion, he was made responsible exclusively for employee benefits. Which of the following is true of Ramone?
A) Both the roles that Ramone played were generalist roles.
B) Both the roles that Ramone played were specialist roles.
C) Ramone moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
D) Ramone moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
Answer: B
Q2) Define human resource management.
Answer: Human resource management is the design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals.
Q3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires companies to establish ethics codes, develop employee complaint systems, and have antiretaliation policies for employees who act as whistle blowers to identify wrongful actions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Human Resources Strategy and Planning
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Q1) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time-workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is a source of outflow in the current staffing level?
A) External hires
B) Promotions
C) Recalls
D) Internal transfers
Answer: B
Q3) Define severance benefits.
Answer: Severance benefits are temporary payments made to laid-off employees to ease the financial burden of unemployment.
Q4) Define organizational mission.
Answer: Organizational mission is the core reason for the existence of the organization and what makes it unique.
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Chapter 3: Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) Disparate treatment occurs when either different standards are used to judge individuals or the same standard is used but it is not related to the individuals' jobs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) According to the _____ employees are required to notify their employers of military service obligations.
A) Civil Rights Act
B) Rehabilitation Act
C) Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act
D) Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act
Answer: D
Q3) Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?
A) Difference in seniority
B) Difference in marital status
C) Difference in ethnicity
D) Difference in religious beliefs
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Workforce, Jobs, and Job Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following is typically the responsibility of the HR in job analysis?
A) To provide information to outside experts
B) To coordinate job analysis
C) To help complete job analysis information
D) To request new analyses as jobs change
Q2) Explain the various stages in the job analysis process.
Q3) Describe the characteristics of jobs to consider in design.
Q4) _____ refers to taking an existing job and changing it to improve it.
A) Job planning
B) Job analysis
C) Job design
D) Job redesign
Q5) A _____ is formed to address specific problems, improve work processes, and enhance the overall quality of products and services.
A) global team
B) special-purpose team
C) self-directed team
D) virtual team
Q6) Define labor force participation rate.
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Chapter 5: Individualorganization Relations and Retention
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Q1) Insufficient pay is one of the reasons that lead to employee turnover.
A)True
B)False
Q2) CLASS, a newly-opened real estate agency, has twenty employees on its payroll. In June 2012, Jane and Selin, each took three days of leave of absence from work. What was the absenteeism rate of the company in June 2012?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 1
D) 2
Q3) Which of the following is an intangible item in a psychological contract?
A) Wages
B) Benefits
C) Attendance
D) Fair treatment
Q4) Hiring has little to do with retention.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe three methods used to control absenteeism in organizations.
Q6) Discuss a few strategies to improve retention in organizations.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Recruiting and Labor Markets
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Q1) Stacy, the HR manager of a bank, restricts her recruiting efforts for the post of loan officer to placing advertisements on the Web site of the American Banking Association. This will allow Stacy to determine the _____ for the job of loan officer.
A) applicant population
B) labor force population
C) applicant pool
D) entire labor market
Q2) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of regular staffing?
A) It uses workers who are traditional employees.
B) It uses independent contractors.
C) Companies can utilize the "try before you buy" approach.
D) Companies can avoid litigation associated with the termination of workers.
Q3) How has the growth of Internet recruiting affected recruiting efforts done by employers?
Q4) Yield ratio is a measure of the quality of job applicants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the advantages and limitations of focusing on internal recruiting sources to fill open positions?
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Chapter 7: Selecting Human Resources
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Q1) When operating managers are allowed to select their own staff, the effectiveness of the selection process is enhanced because the operating managers have an instinctive feel for the type of employee who would perform well in their department.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of a(n) _____ is to obtain additional information on a candidate and to clarify information gathered throughout the selection process.
A) personality test
B) application form
C) selection interview
D) polygraph
Q3) _____ measure dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.
A) Physical ability tests
B) Work sample tests
C) Aptitude tests
D) Psychomotor tests
Q4) What is the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory?
Q5) What are the key competencies for successful global employees?
Q6) Why are medical examinations required in the selection process?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Training Human Resources
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Q1) The best way to determine if a change in performance resulted from training or from other factors is to use a control group combined with:
A) a pre-/post-measure.
B) a method of measuring trainee skill levels before the training takes place.
C) a process of comparing training results with results from similar training programs in other companies.
D) a return-on-investments calculation.
Q2) Training plans allow organizations to identify what is needed for employee performance before training begins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "cognitive" component of intercultural competence is the person's:
A) level of sensitivity to cultural issues.
B) ability to connect with foreigners on an emotional level.
C) ability to handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment.
D) knowledge about a foreign culture.
Q4) What are the different elements that must be considered to make a training design effective?
Q5) What does the actual delivery of training involve?
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Chapter 9: Talent, Careers, and Development
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Q1) The high rate of turnover of nursing staff is a major concern at Briar Mountain Regional Medical Center. Many experienced nurses resist moving into management, but exit interviews indicate that many of the best nurses leave Briar Mountain because they feel they cannot advance in the organization. Which of the following steps would be most efficient in reducing the turnover of nursing staff?
A) Hiring nurses who are later in their careers, where advancement is less of a concern to them
B) Offering to pay tuition for nurses who wish to enroll in MBA programs so they are more qualified to take managerial positions
C) Implementing a dual-career ladder for nurses
D) Providing retention bonuses and significant pay raises tied to seniority
Q2) How do assistant positions work as a job-site development method?
Q3) The modeling process involves only straightforward imitation and copying.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What does presupervisor training mean?
Q5) Describe some methods of assessing the development needs of employees and their advantages and disadvantages.
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Chapter 10: Performance Management and Appraisal
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Q1) Which of the following is true of appraisal interviews?
A) Managers must communicate both praise and constructive criticism.
B) Managers must communicate only praise and not constructive criticism.
C) Managers must communicate only constructive criticism and not praise.
D) Managers must not communicate praise or constructive criticism.
Q2) Which of the following is typically the last stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using MBO?
A) Continuing performance discussions
B) Development of performance standards
C) Setting of objectives
D) Job review and agreement
Q3) In the _____ method, the manager keeps a written record of both highly favorable and unfavorable actions performed by an employee during the entire rating period.
A) forced distribution
B) ranking
C) essay
D) critical incident
Q4) Describe the features required in an effective performance management system.
Q5) Describe the different types of performance information.
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Chapter 11: Total Rewards and Compensation
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Q1) Describe two motivation theories and their relationship with compensation.
Q2) The entitlement philosophy assumes that compensation decisions reflect performance differences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the various components of compensation.
Q4) Market banding groups jobs into pay grades based on similar market survey amounts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is an indicator of external inequity?
A) Difficulty hiring new employees
B) Lack of fairness in how rewards are distributed among employees
C) Lower attrition levels
D) Reward system based on favoritism
Q6) Benchmark jobs are _____.
A) all blue-collar jobs that require high skill and application
B) jobs that are found in many other organizations
C) all white-collar jobs that require high skill and application
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D) jobs that are not commonly found in many other organizations
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Chapter 12: Variable Pay and Executive Compensation
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Q1) The "clawbacks" provision in Civil Rights Act of 1964 allows a company to recover any incentive-based pay that was paid out during the prior three years if it would not have been paid under restated financial statements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A free rider is a member of the group who contributes the most in a group venture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most accurate metric of organizational performance in variable pay plans?
A) Customer satisfaction
B) Accident rates
C) Revenue growth
D) Employee satisfaction
Q4) According to the Dodds-Frank Act, publicly listed companies now must allow shareholders to vote on executive compensation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Managing Employee Benefits
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Q1) According to the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, enrollment in health coverage is mandatory for every citizen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a _____, an employer makes contributions to help employees cover their health-related expenses.
A) consumer-driven health plan
B) cash balance plan
C) self-directed health plan
D) managed care plan
Q3) According to the 1986 amendment to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA):
A) most employees cannot be forced to retire at a specific age.
B) workers should contribute to the defined benefit plans.
C) equal treatment should be given to older workers in severance situations.
D) employers can be sued by employees for age discrimination.
Q4) John is a part-time employee in a publishing company. Is he eligible to receive benefits?
Q5) Elaborate on the two main types of retirement benefits?
Q6) What is workers' compensation? Explain.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Risk Management and Worker Protection
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Q1) In the context of the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following statements is true about medical-related information?
A) It should be maintained separately from all other confidential files, with restricted access and security provisions.
B) It should be given to the employee and no copies should be made or kept by the employer.
C) It should be used only by the safety committee when deciding what accommodations can be made for an affected employee.
D) It should be filed with all other confidential information about an employee, with access restricted to the employee and certain company officials.
Q2) Why do health and safety issues at workplaces concern employers? Do employers have a legal responsibility to provide its employees a healthy workplace?
Q3) Cumulative trauma disorders are psychological issues that workers face due to repetitively performing the same task for years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Employee Rights and Responsibilities
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Q1) Operating managers, and not HR staff, are the main users and enforcers of rules, procedures, and policies in a company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain some of the best practices that need to be considered while conducting workplace investigations. Are polygraph tests an important component of the investigation procedures?
Q3) What are the consequences that employers may face if they fail to follow up on implied promises?
Q4) Employment-at-will is a common-law doctrine holding that:
A) an employee must provide a minimum of two weeks' notice before quitting a job.
B) employees can be asked to leave a company only if they are willing to do so.
C) employees are free agents, but employers must have a just cause for terminating them.
D) an employer has the right to hire, fire, demote, or promote whomever it chooses.
Q5) Describe three alternative dispute resolution (ADR) processes that are commonly used.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Unionmanagement Relations
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Q1) During a contract negotiation, the management of RMS, Inc. and its employee union fail to reach an agreement on an issue related to night shift pay scales. A neutral third party is called in to actively work with both sides and help them reach a settlement. This party suggests several ideas that could help in solving the issue. The process used by the third party in the given scenario is referred to as:
A) arbitration.
B) mediation.
C) fact-finding.
D) conciliation.
Q2) The union contract between the union and the management of Gable Electronics Inc. includes a no-strike clause that is valid till the date of the contract's expiry. When a supervisor threatens salary cut for those unionized employees who refuse to work on a few weekends, the employees conduct a strike. The employees are resorting to a(n) _____ strike.
A) jurisdiction
B) unfair labor practices
C) wildcat
D) economic
Q3) What is the current state of labor union activity in the United States?
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